Microsoft Cybersecurity Business Professional (SC-730) Exam Questions 2026
Microsoft Cybersecurity Business Professional (SC-730) Exam Questions 2026
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Question 1:
A business unit plans to use AI recommendations as the sole basis for customer eligibility outcomes. Which decision is most responsible?
A.Use the AI only when the organization is busy because speed matters most during peak periods
B.Trust the AI if the output is presented as a numerical score instead of written reasoning
C.Allow the AI to make the final decision because automation removes human inconsistency
D.Keep meaningful human oversight for high-impact decisions and review the process for fairness and risk
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: Operational convenience, such as prioritizing speed during peak periods, does not justify bypassing ethical and safety requirements. Responsible AI principles must be applied consistently, not only when it is convenient.
Option B is Incorrect: Presenting output as a numerical score does not inherently make an AI model more "responsible" or less biased. A score can mask underlying bias or inaccurate data; transparency and explainability are required regardless of the output format.
Option C is Incorrect: While automation can reduce human error, relying solely on AI for sensitive decisions, such as customer eligibility, introduces risks like algorithmic bias or "black box" outcomes. Microsoft’s framework mandates that humans remain in the loop for accountability.
Option D is Correct: Meaningful human oversight is a foundational pillar of the Microsoft Responsible AI Standard. For high-impact decisions that affect individuals or legal rights, the process must include human validation, regular audits for fairness, and active risk mitigation to ensure the AI remains aligned with organizational values and legal requirements.
Question 2:
A security team wants targeted controls for sensitive applications rather than the same rule for every app. Which policy decision best reduces risk without broadly blocking work?
A.Trust all sign-ins that use a corporate email address regardless of the device or location
B.Require administrator approval before every sign-in to any application
C.Require stronger authentication or additional checks when access to sensitive apps is high risk
D.Remove all remote access to every business application for every user
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: This violates the Zero Trust principle of "Never Trust, Always Verify." Relying solely on a corporate email address (identity) without verifying the context (device state, location, risk level) creates a massive security gap. An attacker with compromised credentials could easily bypass this control.
Option B is Incorrect: This is an example of excessive friction that hinders business productivity. While secure, requiring manual administrator approval for every sign-in is not scalable and would result in significant operational bottlenecks, failing the "without broadly blocking work" requirement of the question.
Option C is Correct: This is the core of a robust Conditional Access strategy. By applying granular controls—such as requiring Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) or ensuring a device is compliant—only when specific high-risk conditions or sensitive applications are involved, you effectively reduce risk while maintaining user productivity for lower-risk activities.
Option D is Incorrect: This is an "all-or-nothing" approach. Blanket-blocking all remote access stops work entirely rather than securing it, which is the opposite of the intended goal to "reduce risk without broadly blocking work." It ignores the reality of modern hybrid work and the need for secure, remote productivity.
Question 3:
A malware event is contained and the business has resumed core operations. What should leadership ensure happens after the immediate response is complete?
A.Assume the same event will not happen again because it was already handled once
B.Focus only on who made the mistake rather than on process or control improvements
C.Close the matter immediately so teams can move on without revisiting unpleasant details
D.Conduct a post-incident review to identify root causes and improve controls or processes
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: This violates the fundamental security principle of continuous improvement. Assuming an incident will not recur leaves the organization vulnerable to the same or similar attack vectors, failing to acknowledge that threat landscapes are dynamic and persistent.
Option B is Incorrect: A "blame culture" is counterproductive to cybersecurity. Microsoft and industry standards emphasize that the focus should be on systemic failures, process gaps, and control deficiencies rather than individual punishment, which discourages transparency and reporting in the future.
Option C is Incorrect: Failing to document and analyze the incident prevents the organization from learning from the event. Closing a matter without a formal review denies leadership the opportunity to gain insights into the effectiveness of their response, leading to a static and weakened security posture.
Option D is Correct: Conducting a Lessons Learned or Post-Incident Review (PIR) is a mandatory phase of the incident response process. The goal is to perform a root cause analysis (RCA), evaluate the effectiveness of the containment and recovery efforts, and implement actionable improvements to policies, technologies, or training to prevent recurrence.
Question 4:
A user downloads repeated copies of sensitive material instead of working from the governed source. Which habit best reduces ongoing exposure?
A.Work from the governed source and avoid creating unnecessary copies of sensitive data
B.Create more copies so there is always a backup in case one version is lost
C.Leave every historical copy available because storage space is cheaper than review time
D.Rename each copy differently and rely on filenames rather than access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is Correct: This is the best practice for maintaining data security and compliance. By working from a "single source of truth," the organization ensures that consistent security labels, encryption, and access permissions are applied. This significantly reduces the risk of sensitive data being exposed through unauthorized, stale, or unprotected local copies.
Option B is Incorrect: Creating unnecessary copies increases the "attack surface." Each additional copy creates a new location that must be secured and monitored, violating the principle of data minimization and increasing the risk of data leakage or unauthorized access.
Option C is Incorrect: Retaining historical copies indefinitely—especially those that are unmanaged—is a major compliance risk. It makes data discovery and lifecycle management (such as retention or deletion policies) nearly impossible, and it increases the risk of data being accessed by individuals who may no longer have the authorization to view it.
Option D is Incorrect: Relying on filenames for security is "security through obscurity," which is not a valid control. Access control must be enforced via identity and permission-based policies (e.g., Entra ID/Active Directory groups or sensitivity labels), not by how a user names a file.
Question 5:
A business unit wants to send employee data to a new external processor in another country. Which step is most appropriate before proceeding?
A.Send only part of the data first and skip the formal review to save time
B.Request privacy, legal, and security review before sharing or repurposing the data
C.Assume the original collection automatically permits any future use of the data
D.Proceed if the business benefit seems high and address any issues after the launch
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: Skipping a formal review, even for a "test" batch of data, is a violation of data protection principles. Any transfer of sensitive employee data—especially across borders—requires a full assessment to ensure compliance with local regulations like GDPR or other regional privacy laws.
Option B is Correct: This is the mandatory approach under the Microsoft security and compliance framework. Before sharing data with an external processor, the organization must perform a formal Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA) or similar review. This ensures that the transfer is legally compliant, that security controls are in place at the recipient site, and that the data is being used for authorized purposes.
Option C is Incorrect: Data collection is subject to the principle of "Purpose Limitation." An individual’s consent or the legal basis for the original collection does not grant a "blank check" for any future use, especially when sharing that data with third-party processors in other countries.
Option D is Incorrect: Prioritizing business benefit over security and legal due diligence creates unacceptable risk. "Addressing issues after the launch" exposes the organization to severe regulatory fines, legal liability, and loss of employee trust. Security must be "baked in" during the planning phase, not added on after a breach or compliance failure occurs.
For a full set of 480 questions. Go to
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Question 6:
A parking notice in the lobby tells employees to scan a QR code and enter company credentials to avoid a penalty. What is the safest approach?
A.Ask a coworker to scan the code first and confirm whether the page looks real
B.Use the QR code but enter only a partial password so the process stays safe
C.Navigate to the service through the normal trusted website or app instead of using the QR code
D.Scan the code if the branding looks professional and the instructions seem urgent
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: This is a dangerous strategy. Relying on a coworker’s visual assessment is subjective and unreliable. If the coworker is also fooled, you have effectively helped the attacker compromise two accounts instead of one.
Option B is Incorrect: Entering a "partial password" provides no security. Attackers can use sophisticated keylogging or real-time proxy tools to capture the remainder of your credentials as you interact with the malicious site. There is no such thing as a "safe" way to interact with a potentially fraudulent login portal.
Option C is Correct: This is the safest approach and aligns with the principle of Zero Trust. By ignoring the QR code and manually navigating to the organization’s official, verified resource, you bypass any malicious redirect, URL spoofing, or credential-harvesting site embedded in the QR code. You are relying on a known-good path rather than an untrusted, unsolicited link.
Option D is Incorrect: This is exactly what attackers hope for. Phishing campaigns often use professional branding, corporate logos, and manufactured urgency to trick victims. High-quality visuals are not an indicator of authenticity; they are a hallmark of modern, effective phishing attempts.
Question 7:
An employee receives a pop-up asking for consent to let an unfamiliar app access Teams messages and calendar data. Which response is best?
A.Ignore the request for now and approve it later if the prompt reappears
B.Decline the request and report the unexpected app permission prompt
C.Accept the request if the app name sounds related to Microsoft 365 work
D.Approve the request because consent screens appear only for trusted apps
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: Ignoring a suspicious prompt is not a secure action. It fails to mitigate the risk and may lead the user to accidentally approve the request later, especially if they are prompted again during a busy moment.
Option B is Correct: This is the recommended security posture. Declining the request prevents the malicious or unauthorized application from gaining access to sensitive corporate data. Reporting the event allows the organization's security team to investigate the app, determine if it is malicious, and potentially block it for the entire tenant using Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps or Entra ID app governance features.
Option C is Incorrect: Attackers often choose app names that sound legitimate, professional, or related to official tools (e.g., "M365 Assistant" or "Teams Helper") to deceive users. Never trust an application based solely on its name; permissions should only be granted if the application is verified and authorized by IT.
Option D is Incorrect: This is a dangerous misconception. The consent screen is a mechanism to inform the user about the requested permissions, but it is not a "seal of approval" from Microsoft. Attackers can register their own applications and trigger these standard consent prompts. Users must understand that any application—whether malicious or legitimate—can present a consent screen.
Question 8:
A department keeps spreading regulated data into new worksheets and shared drives. Which habit best reduces ongoing exposure?
A.Work from the governed source and avoid creating unnecessary copies of sensitive data
B.Create more copies so there is always a backup in case one version is lost
C.Leave every historical copy available because storage space is cheaper than review time
D.Rename each copy differently and rely on filenames rather than access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option A is Correct: This represents the best practice for maintaining data security and regulatory compliance. By working from a "single source of truth," the organization ensures that consistent security labels, encryption, and granular access permissions are applied and tracked. This significantly reduces the risk of sensitive data being exposed through unauthorized, stale, or unprotected local copies that fall outside the scope of central governance.
Option B is Incorrect: Creating unnecessary copies actively increases the "attack surface" of the organization. Each additional copy creates a new location that must be secured, audited, and monitored, which violates the principle of data minimization and increases the likelihood of data leakage or unauthorized access.
Option C is Incorrect: Retaining historical copies indefinitely—especially those that are unmanaged—is a major compliance risk. It makes data discovery, lifecycle management (such as retention or deletion policies), and auditing nearly impossible. Furthermore, it increases the risk that sensitive data remains accessible to individuals who may no longer have the authorization to view it.
Option D is Incorrect: Relying on filenames for security is "security through obscurity," which is not a valid control. Effective access control must be enforced via identity and permission-based policies (e.g., Microsoft Entra ID/Active Directory groups or sensitivity labels), not by how a user labels or names a file.
Question 9:
A legal partner needs temporary access to one collaboration area and no other department content. Which setup best follows secure guest access principles?
A.Use an internal employee account for the guest to avoid managing guest permissions separately
B.Create a guest account with broad tenantwide access so no later requests are needed
C.Grant limited guest access only to the required workspace and set an appropriate review or expiry point
D.Publish the material through an anonymous link because external partners dislike sign-in prompts
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: Using an internal employee account for a guest ("identity spoofing") is a severe security violation. It circumvents auditing, complicates compliance tracking, and prevents the application of specific external access policies. Guests should always use their own managed identities (B2B collaboration).
Option B is Incorrect: Granting broad tenant-wide access violates the principle of Least Privilege. Guests should only be granted access to the specific resources required for their role. Over-provisioning access significantly increases the blast radius if the guest's account is compromised.
Option C is Correct: This approach follows the Zero Trust model. By restricting access to a specific workspace and implementing access reviews or expiration dates, you ensure that access is temporary and relevant. This minimizes the risk of "permission creep" where guests retain access long after their project is finished.
Option D is Incorrect: Sharing via anonymous links is insecure because it provides "anyone with the link" access. This removes authentication, authorization, and auditing, making it impossible to know who is accessing the data or to revoke that access effectively if a breach occurs.
Question 10:
A department plans to move regulated records into a new jurisdiction with different handling rules. Which step is most appropriate before proceeding?
A.Assume the original collection automatically permits any future use of the data
B.Request privacy, legal, and security review before sharing or repurposing the data
C.Proceed if the business benefit seems high and address any issues after the launch
D.Send only part of the data first and skip the formal review to save time
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option A is Incorrect: Data collection is subject to the principle of "Purpose Limitation." An individual’s consent or the legal basis for the original collection does not grant an automatic right to move or repurpose that data in a new jurisdiction with different legal requirements.
Option B is Correct: This is the mandatory approach under Microsoft’s security and compliance framework. Before moving regulated records to a new jurisdiction, the organization must conduct a formal Data Protection Impact Assessment (DPIA) or equivalent legal/security review. This ensures that the transfer complies with local laws, that appropriate cross-border transfer mechanisms are in place, and that the data remains protected according to organizational standards.
Option C is Incorrect: Prioritizing business benefit over security and legal due diligence creates unacceptable risk. Addressing issues "after the launch" is a reactive approach that exposes the organization to severe regulatory fines, legal liability, and loss of consumer trust. Security and compliance must be integrated during the planning phase.
Option D is Incorrect: Skipping a formal review, even for a "test" batch of data, is a violation of fundamental data protection principles. Any transfer of regulated data requires a full assessment to ensure compliance, regardless of the volume of data being moved.
For a full set of 480 questions. Go to
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.