CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) Exam Dumps & Questions 2025
CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor) Exam Dumps & Questions 2025
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Question 1:
Which environmental control is appropriate for protecting computer equipment against short-term reductions in electrical power?
A. Surge protective devices
B. Interruptible power supplies
C. Alternative power supplies
D. Power line conditioners
Answer: D
Explanation:
Power line conditioners are used to compensate for peaks and valleys in the power supply and reduce peaks in the power flow to what is needed by the machine. Any valleys are removed by power stored in the equipment. Surge protection devices protect against high- voltage bursts. Alternative power supplies are intended for computer equipment running for longer periods and are normally coupled with other devices such as an uninterruptible power supply (UPS) to compensate for the power loss until the alternate power supply becomes available. An interruptible power supply would cause the equipment to come down whenever there was a power failure.
Question 2:
What is a distinctive feature of the Secure Electronic Transactions (SET) protocol in electronic credit card payments?
A. All personal SET certificates are stored securely in the buyer‘s computer.
B. The buyer is assured that neither the merchant nor any other party can misuse their credit card data.
C. The buyer is liable for any transaction involving his/her personal SET certificates.
D. The payment process is simplified, as the buyer is not required to enter a credit card number and an expiration date.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The usual agreement between the credit card issuer and the cardholder stipulates that the cardholder assumes responsibility for any use of their personal SET certificates for e- commerce transactions. Depending upon the agreement between the merchant and the buyer‘s credit card issuer, the merchant will have access to the credit card number and expiration date. Secure data storage in the buyer‘s computer (local computer security) is not part of the SET standard. Although the buyer is not required to enter their credit card data, they will have to handle the wallet software.
Question 3:
What service provides nonrepudiation for e-commerce transactions?
A. Data Encryption Standard (DES)
B. Public key infrastructure (PKI)
C. Personal identification number (PIN)
D. Message authentication code (MAC)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Nonrepudiation in e-commerce transactions is typically provided by the use of digital signatures. Digital signatures are cryptographic techniques that ensure the integrity and origin of a message or document. When a user digitally signs a message or a transaction, it provides a unique and verifiable signature that can be linked to the signer. This helps in establishing the identity of the sender and ensures that the sender cannot later deny their involvement in the transaction. In the context of e-commerce, digital signatures play a crucial role in providing nonrepudiation. They help prevent either the sender or the recipient from denying the authenticity or validity of the transaction. Digital signatures are a key component of Public Key Infrastructure (PKI), which is widely used to secure electronic communications and transactions on the internet.
Question 4:
What situation would increase the likelihood of fraud?
A. Application programmers are implementing changes to production programs.
B. Operations support staff are implementing changes to batch schedules.
C. Application programmers are implementing changes to test programs.
D. Database administrators are implementing changes to data structures.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Production programs are used for processing an enterprise‘s data. It is imperative that controls on changes to production programs are stringent. Lack of control in this area could result in application programs being modified to manipulate the data. Application programmers are required to implement changes to test programs. These are used only in development and do not directly impact the live processing of data. The implementation of changes to batch schedules by operations support staff will affect the scheduling of the batches only; it does not impact the live data. Database administrators are required to implement changes to data structures. This is required for reorganization of the database to allow for additions, modifications or deletions of fields or tables in the database.
Question 5:
Which payment mode attempts to emulate physical cash by creating digital certificates that can be redeemed later?
A. Electronic withdraw model
B. Electronic Money Model
C. Electronic transfer model
D. Electronics Checks model
Answer: B
Explanation:
The electronic money model aims to emulate physical cash in digital form. In this system, an issuer creates digital certificates, which users purchase and later redeem with the issuer. During the interim period, these certificates can be transferred among users for trading goods or services. To impart some attributes of physical cash, certain techniques are employed to ensure that when a certificate is deposited, the issuer cannot determine the original withdrawer, providing the electronic certificate with unconditional uncertainty.
There are two primary parties in payment systems: the issuer and the user. The issuer operates the payment service and holds the items represented by the payment, while the user, who can be a payer or payee, performs functions such as making and receiving payments.
The electronic check model closely resembles real-world checks and is relatively easy to understand and implement. Users create electronic checks, digitally signed instructions to pay, which are then transferred to another user. The recipient deposits the electronic check with the issuer, who verifies the payer’s signature and transfers funds from the payer’s account to the payee’s account.
On the other hand, the electronic transfer model is the simplest of the three payment models. The payer creates a digitally signed payment transfer instruction, sends it to the issuer, who verifies the signature and performs the transfer. This system requires the payer to be online, but not the payee.
For a full set of 1990 questions. Go to
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SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
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Question 6:
Which statement incorrectly describes a network device such as a router?
A. Router builds a routing table based on MAC address
B. Router assigns a different network address per port
C. Router creates a new header for each packet
D. Router does not forward broadcast packet
Answer: A
Explanation:
The statement that is not valid about routers is that Router builds a routing table based on MAC address. The correct statement is that routers build a routing table based on IP address. Routers use the IP address information in packets to determine the most appropriate path for forwarding the packets to their destinations. They make decisions based on the network layer (layer 3) information, which includes the IP addresses. MAC addresses, on the other hand, are used at the data link layer (layer 2) for communication within a local network segment.
Question 7:
Which encrypt/decrypt steps provide the greatest assurance of achieving confidentiality, message integrity, and non-repudiation by either sender or recipient?
A. The encrypted prehash code is derived mathematically from the message to be sent.
B. The recipient uses the sender‘s public key, verified with a certificate authority, to decrypt the prehash code.
C. The encrypted prehash code and the message are encrypted using a secret key.
D. The recipient uses their private key to decrypt the secret key.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Most encrypted transactions use a combination of private keys, public keys, secret keys, hash functions and digital certificates to achieve confidentiality, message integrity and nonrepudiation by either sender or recipient. The recipient uses the sender‘s public key to decrypt the prehash code into a posthash code, which when equaling the prehash code, verifies the identity of the sender and that the message has not been changed in route; this would provide the greatest assurance. Each sender and recipient has a private key known only to themselves and a public key, which can be known by anyone. Each encryption/decryption process requires at least one public key and one private key, and both must be from the same party. A single, secret key is used to encrypt the message, because secret key encryption requires less processing power than using public and private keys. A digital certificate, signed by a certificate authority, validates senders‘ and recipients‘ public keys.
Question 8:
Which changeover approach is suggested when shifting users from an older system to a newer system on a cutoff date and time?
A. Abrupt changeover
B. Phased changeover
C. Pilot changeover
D. Parallel changeover
Answer: A
Explanation:
In the abrupt changeover approach, the newer system is switched over from the older system on a specified cutoff date and time, leading to the discontinuation of the older system once the changeover is complete.
Changeover involves shifting users from the existing (old) system to the replacing (new) system and includes four major steps:
1. Converting files and programs
2. Test running on a test bed
3. Installing new hardware, operating system, application system, and migrated data
4. Training employees or users in groups
5. Scheduling operations and test running for the go-live or changeover
The risks associated with changeover include:
* Asset safeguarding
* Data integrity
* System effectiveness
* Change management challenges
* The possibility of duplicate or missing records
The Incorrect Answers provided information about other changeover approaches, such as:
* Parallel changeover (running both old and new systems simultaneously before full changeover)
* Phased changeover (breaking the older system into deliverable modules and gradually phasing them out with the new system)
* Pilot changeover (not a valid changeover type)
Question 9:
When evaluating business continuity strategies, why does an IS auditor interview key stakeholders in an organization?
A. adequacy of the business continuity plans.
B. effectiveness of the business continuity plans.
C. clarity and simplicity of the business continuity plans.
D. ability of IS and end-user personnel to respond effectively in emergencies.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The IS auditor should interview key stakeholders to evaluate how well they understand their roles and responsibilities. When all stakeholders have a detailed understanding of their roles and responsibilities in the event of a disaster, an IS auditor can deem the business continuity plan to be clear and simple.
To evaluate adequacy, the IS auditor should review the plans and compare them to appropriate standards. To evaluate effectiveness, the IS auditor should review the results from previous tests. This is the best determination for the evaluation of effectiveness.
An understanding of roles and responsibilities by key stakeholders will assist in ensuring the business continuity plan is effective. To evaluate the response, the IS auditor should review results of continuity tests. This will provide the IS auditor with assurance that target and recovery times are met. Emergency procedures and employee training need to be reviewed to determine whether the organization had implemented plans to allow for the effective response.
Question 10:
What is the most cost-effective recommendation for reducing the number of defects encountered during software development projects?
A. Require the sign-off of all project deliverables
B. implement formal software inspections
C. increase the time allocated for system testing
D. increase the development staff
Answer: B
Explanation:
Inspections of code and design are a proven software quality technique. An advantage of this approach is that defects are identified before they propagate through the development life cycle. This reduces the cost of correction as less rework is involved.
Allowing more time for testing may discover more defects; however, little is revealed as to why the quality problems are occurring and the cost of the extra testing, and the cost of rectifying the defects found will be greater than if they had been discovered earlier in the development process.
The ability of the development staff can have a bearing on the quality of what is produced; however, replacing staff can be expensive and disruptive, and the presence of a competent staff cannot guarantee quality in the absence of effective quality management processes.
Sign-off of deliverables may help detect defects if signatories are diligent about reviewing deliverable content; however, this is difficult to enforce. Deliverable reviews normally do not go down to the same level of detail as software inspections.
For a full set of 1990 questions. Go to
https://skillcertpro.com/product/cisa-exam-questions/
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.