Google Cloud Digital Leader Exam Dumps & Questions 2025
Google Cloud Digital Leader Exam Dumps & Questions 2025
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Question 1:
The fitness tracking app “FitLife“ wants to develop a feature that can build personalized workout plans based on user data, requiring a platform to create custom end-to-end artificial intelligence models. Which Google Cloud product or service should FitLife use?
A.Recommendations AI
B.Dataproc
C.Compute Engine
D.Vertex AI
Answer: D
Explanation:
A is incorrect because Recommendations AI is a managed service designed specifically for creating product recommendations based on user behavior data. It is optimized for use cases like e-commerce and content recommendation systems. While it can provide some level of personalization, it is not a general-purpose AI platform suitable for developing a wide range of custom AI models, especially those tailored for personalized workout plans. Recommendations AI focuses on providing recommendations rather than building complex, customized AI models from scratch.
B is incorrect because Dataproc is a managed Spark and Hadoop service for processing large datasets. It is excellent for batch processing and big data analytics but is not tailored for developing and deploying custom AI models. Dataproc can be part of a data processing pipeline for preparing data for machine learning, but it does not offer the comprehensive tools needed for building, training, and deploying AI models. FitLife needs a platform that supports end-to-end AI model development, which Dataproc does not provide.
C is incorrect because Compute Engine provides scalable virtual machines for running general-purpose workloads. While it offers the flexibility to run any software, including AI frameworks, it does not provide the specialized tools and managed services needed for the entire AI model lifecycle, such as data preparation, model training, hyperparameter tuning, and deployment. Developing custom AI models on Compute Engine would require significant manual setup and management of infrastructure, which is less efficient compared to using a managed AI platform.
D is correct because Vertex AI is Google Cloud‘s managed machine learning platform that provides all the tools necessary for building, training, and deploying custom AI models. It supports end-to-end workflows, from data preparation and labeling to training, tuning, and deploying models. Vertex AI simplifies the development process with pre-built components, managed infrastructure, and integration with other GCP services. This makes it the ideal choice for FitLife to create personalized workout plans based on user data, as it allows them to build custom models tailored to their specific needs efficiently.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/recommendations
– https://cloud.google.com/dataproc
– https://cloud.google.com/compute
– https://cloud.google.com/vertex-ai
Question 2:
A fictional company, TechGuard Innovations, is assessing the security measures of its new app, SecureConnect, to ensure it is protected against various cyber threats. The team is particularly worried about the possibility of social engineering attacks by malicious actors. What form might these social engineering attacks take?
A.SQL injection attacks
B.Physical damage to hardware
C.Phishing emails
D.Distributed denial-of-service attacks
Answer: C
Explanation:
A is incorrect because SQL injection attacks are a type of injection attack where malicious SQL code is inserted into an entry field for execution (e.g., to dump the database contents to the attacker). While dangerous and common, SQL injection attacks exploit vulnerabilities in web applications‘ software rather than manipulating human psychology. Social engineering attacks specifically rely on tricking individuals into compromising security, which SQL injection does not involve.
B is incorrect because physical damage to hardware involves the direct destruction or tampering with physical components of a computer system. While this can be a significant security threat, it does not fall under the category of social engineering attacks. Social engineering is about manipulating people into divulging confidential information or performing actions that compromise security, rather than causing physical damage to equipment.
C is correct because phishing emails are a classic example of social engineering attacks. These attacks involve sending emails that appear to be from reputable sources to deceive individuals into revealing personal information, such as passwords and credit card numbers. Phishing leverages human trust and curiosity, making it a prime example of social engineering, which focuses on exploiting human psychology to gain access to sensitive information or systems.
D is incorrect because Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attacks aim to overwhelm a system with a flood of internet traffic, causing the system to slow down or crash. While effective at disrupting service, DDoS attacks target the availability of a system through technical means rather than manipulating individuals. Thus, they do not fall under the category of social engineering, which is centered on tricking people.
Reference links:
– https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection
– https://us.norton.com/internetsecurity-emerging-threats-what-is-social-engineering.html
– https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-a-ddos-attack.html
Question 3:
A software development company is worried about the potential loss of their application‘s user data due to unexpected hardware malfunctions or malicious cyber threats. They need to ensure that they can revert their systems to an earlier, stable state in the event of such incidents. What should the company do?
A.Set Service Level Objectives (SLOs)
B.Use Cloud Monitoring
C.Back up data regularly
D.Enable autoscaling
Answer: C
Explanation:
A is incorrect because setting Service Level Objectives (SLOs) helps define the performance and reliability targets for a service, such as availability and latency. While SLOs are crucial for maintaining service quality and managing user expectations, they do not provide a mechanism for reverting systems to a previous state after data loss incidents. SLOs are more about monitoring and ensuring ongoing compliance with these performance targets rather than addressing data recovery needs.
B is incorrect because using Cloud Monitoring allows the company to observe and manage its cloud resources and applications‘ performance in real-time. Cloud Monitoring can help detect issues, set up alerts, and gain insights into system behavior, which is valuable for maintaining uptime and diagnosing problems. However, it does not inherently offer the capability to restore data to a previous state following hardware failures or cyber-attacks. Cloud Monitoring focuses on identifying issues rather than directly handling data backup and recovery.
C is correct because backing up data regularly is a fundamental strategy for data protection and recovery. Regular backups ensure that there are copies of data stored separately from the primary data source, which can be used to restore systems to an earlier state in the event of hardware malfunctions, data corruption, or cyber threats. Backups provide the company with the ability to recover lost or compromised data, thus mitigating the risk of significant data loss and ensuring business continuity.
D is incorrect because enabling autoscaling is a method to automatically adjust the number of computing resources allocated to an application based on its current load. Autoscaling helps manage performance and cost efficiency by scaling resources up or down as needed. However, it does not address the issue of data recovery. Autoscaling ensures that the application can handle varying levels of demand but does not provide a solution for restoring data to a previous stable state following unexpected data loss incidents.
Reference links:
– SLOs: https://cloud.google.com/stackdriver/docs/solutions/slo-monitoring
– Cloud Monitoring: https://cloud.google.com/monitoring
– Data Backup: https://cloud.google.com/backup-and-restore
– Autoscaling: https://cloud.google.com/compute/docs/autoscaler
Question 4:
A mobile fitness app is training a model to suggest personalized workout plans for its users. The model was trained on historical workout data but did not include user-specific details such as age, fitness level, and health conditions. What dimension of the data is responsible for the model‘s poor performance?
A.Validity
B.Accuracy
C.Timeliness
D.Completeness
Answer: D
Explanation:
A is incorrect because “Validity“ refers to whether the data conforms to the expected format and type. It ensures that the data is logically sound and falls within the acceptable range or type for the given field. In this case, the issue with the model‘s performance is not about the data being in an incorrect format or type, but rather the lack of certain critical information.
B is incorrect because “Accuracy“ pertains to how close the data is to the true values. Accurate data reflects the real-world values it represents. While accuracy is important for model performance, the scenario described points more towards missing data rather than the accuracy of the existing data. The historical workout data might be accurate, but the absence of user-specific details means the model lacks essential context for personalization.
C is incorrect because “Timeliness“ concerns whether the data is up-to-date and relevant at the time it is used. Timeliness is crucial for ensuring that the data reflects the current situation. However, the problem described is not about the data being outdated but about the absence of necessary user-specific details that are essential for the model to make accurate predictions.
D is correct because “Completeness“ refers to whether all necessary data is present. The models poor performance is due to the absence of user-specific details such as age, fitness level, and health conditions. Completeness is crucial because missing important data dimensions can lead to suboptimal or incorrect predictions, as the model does not have all the information needed to make accurate and personalized recommendations.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/architecture/mlops-continuous-delivery-and-automation-pipelines-in-machine-learning
– https://cloud.google.com/solutions/machine-learning
– https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/data-quality-dimensions
Question 5:
A global travel booking website, “Wanderlust Adventures,“ is hosted on servers in Europe, and users in Asia are experiencing slow response times despite having high-speed internet connections. What is the problem?
A.Not enough application servers
B.Network bandwidth
C.Network latency
D.Misconfigured application servers
Answer: C
Explanation:
A is incorrect because having not enough application servers would generally result in overall system slowdowns and higher response times for all users, regardless of their location. In this case, the problem is specific to users in Asia, while the application servers are located in Europe. If the issue were due to an insufficient number of servers, users from all regions would likely experience similar performance issues.
B is incorrect because network bandwidth issues typically affect the speed at which data can be transferred over the network. However, the users in Asia have high-speed internet connections, indicating that the bandwidth on their end is sufficient. The problem is not with the amount of data that can be transferred, but rather with the time it takes for data to travel between Europe and Asia.
C is correct because network latency is the delay that occurs when data travels from one point to another. Since the servers are located in Europe and the users are in Asia, the physical distance causes higher latency. This latency results in slower response times despite the users having high-speed internet. The farther the data has to travel, the higher the latency, which is why users in Asia are experiencing slower response times.
D is incorrect because misconfigured application servers would generally affect all users accessing the application, regardless of their geographical location. Since the slow response times are specific to users in Asia, it indicates that the issue is not related to server configuration but rather to the network latency caused by the physical distance between the servers and the users.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/compute/docs/tutorials/latency
– https://cloud.google.com/blog/products/networking/understanding-latency-and-its-impact-on-application-performance
– https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/performance/what-is-latency/
For a full set of 1350 questions. Go to
https://skillcertpro.com/product/google-cloud-digital-leader-exam-questions/
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.
Question 6:
A health and wellness app, “HealthyHabits,“ needs to ensure that its third-party data processors are ISO 27001 certified and must access relevant compliance documentation. Which Google Cloud tool should they use?
A.Compliance Reports Manager
B.Security Command Center
C.Network Intelligence Center
D.Cloud Monitoring
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is correct because Compliance Reports Manager is a Google Cloud tool specifically designed to help users access and manage compliance-related documentation. This tool provides reports and certifications, including ISO 27001, which are essential for demonstrating compliance to standards required by regulations or third-party assessments. HealthyHabits can use the Compliance Reports Manager to easily find and access the ISO 27001 certification and other compliance documents necessary to ensure their third-party data processors meet the required standards.
B is incorrect because the Security Command Center is primarily focused on security posture management. It helps users to gain centralized visibility into their Google Cloud assets, detect potential vulnerabilities, and respond to security threats. While it is an essential tool for maintaining security within the cloud infrastructure, it does not specialize in providing compliance documentation such as ISO 27001 certifications.
C is incorrect because the Network Intelligence Center is a suite of network management tools aimed at providing visibility into network performance, health, and configuration. Its features include network monitoring, verification, and optimization, which are crucial for maintaining a robust network infrastructure. However, it does not offer capabilities related to accessing or managing compliance documentation, making it unsuitable for HealthyHabits‘ specific need to ensure ISO 27001 certification for their data processors.
D is incorrect because Cloud Monitoring is a tool used for tracking the performance and health of Google Cloud applications and services. It allows users to create dashboards, set up alerts, and monitor metrics and logs to ensure their cloud environment is functioning optimally. While it is valuable for operational monitoring and management, it does not provide access to compliance documentation or certification reports like ISO 27001.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/compliance
– https://cloud.google.com/security-command-center
– https://cloud.google.com/network-intelligence-center
– https://cloud.google.com/monitoring
Question 7:
A fictional online bookstore, “BookBazaar,“ is planning to revamp its platform by adopting a microservices architecture as it transitions to Google Cloud. Which benefit would this approach offer BookBazaar?
A.The revamped platform will be more efficient and scalable
B.No code changes will be necessary
C.This transition approach ensures the quickest migration to the cloud
D.The platform will automatically meet PCI-DSS compliance standards
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is correct because adopting a microservices architecture will make BookBazaar‘s platform more efficient and scalable. Microservices break down the application into smaller, independent services that can be developed, deployed, and scaled independently. This allows for better resource utilization, as each microservice can scale according to its specific demand, leading to improved performance and cost efficiency. Additionally, microservices enable faster development cycles and easier maintenance, as each service can be updated or replaced without affecting the entire system. This modular approach supports the scalability needs of an online bookstore like BookBazaar, which may experience varying loads on different services (e.g., search, checkout, inventory management) at different times.
B is incorrect because transitioning to a microservices architecture generally requires significant code changes. Existing monolithic applications need to be refactored into smaller, discrete services, each with its own codebase, dependencies, and data management practices. This often involves re-architecting the application, rewriting code to decouple functionalities, and ensuring that inter-service communication is efficiently managed. Such changes are necessary to reap the benefits of microservices but require careful planning and execution.
C is incorrect because the transition to a microservices architecture is not necessarily the quickest migration path to the cloud. Migrating a monolithic application to the cloud can be quicker if done using a lift-and-shift approach, where the application is moved as-is with minimal modifications. In contrast, breaking down a monolithic application into microservices involves extensive re-architecting and refactoring, which is time-consuming and complex. Therefore, while microservices offer long-term benefits, they do not guarantee the quickest migration.
D is incorrect because adopting a microservices architecture does not automatically ensure that the platform meets PCI-DSS compliance standards. PCI-DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) compliance involves specific requirements for securing payment card information, including encryption, access controls, and regular security testing. While microservices can enhance security by isolating functions and limiting the scope of each service, compliance still requires intentional design and implementation of security measures across all services. Compliance is an ongoing process that involves regular audits and updates to security practices.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/solutions/microservices-on-gcp
– https://cloud.google.com/architecture/migrating-monolithic-applications-to-microservices-gcp
– https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/pci_security/
Question 8:
In the context of the social networking app “SnapWave,“ which allows users to share and discover photos and videos in real time, what is the purpose of an application programming interface (API)?
A.To provide a set of instructions that allow SnapWave‘s mobile and web applications to communicate with each other
B.To provide cloud plugins for SnapWave‘s integrated development environments
C.To connect SnapWave‘s network with other social networking platforms
D.To manage multiple containerized workloads within SnapWave‘s infrastructure
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is correct because an API (Application Programming Interface) provides a set of instructions that allow different software components to communicate with each other. In the context of SnapWave, the API enables the mobile and web applications to interact seamlessly. This interaction is crucial for ensuring that user actions on one platform are reflected on the other. For instance, if a user uploads a photo from their mobile device, the API ensures that this action is communicated to the web application, allowing the photo to be visible across both platforms. APIs define the methods and data formats that applications use to communicate, ensuring consistency and interoperability between SnapWave‘s mobile and web applications.
B is incorrect because cloud plugins for integrated development environments (IDEs) are tools that help developers integrate cloud services directly into their development workflows. These plugins facilitate activities such as deploying applications to the cloud or managing cloud resources from within the IDE. However, they do not serve the purpose of enabling communication between SnapWave‘s mobile and web applications. While useful for developers, cloud plugins do not provide the real-time data exchange capabilities needed for the functioning of SnapWaves user-facing applications.
C is incorrect because connecting SnapWave‘s network with other social networking platforms involves creating integrations that allow data to be shared between SnapWave and these external platforms. While such integrations can be facilitated using APIs, this is not the primary purpose of SnapWave‘s internal API. The internal API is specifically designed to enable communication between SnapWaves own mobile and web applications, not to connect with external social networks. Connecting with other platforms would require additional APIs and protocols specific to those integrations.
D is incorrect because managing multiple containerized workloads within SnapWave‘s infrastructure pertains to the orchestration and management of containers, which are packages of software that include all the necessary components to run in any environment. This task is typically handled by container orchestration tools like Kubernetes. While APIs can play a role in managing and interacting with containerized services, the primary purpose of SnapWaves API, in this context, is to enable communication between its mobile and web applications, not to manage the containerized workloads themselves.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/docs/apis
– https://www.redhat.com/en/topics/api/what-are-application-programming-interfaces
– https://kubernetes.io/docs/concepts/overview/what-is-kubernetes/
Question 9:
What is the advantage of the custom-designed servers used by the fictional e-commerce platform ShopSphere compared to conventional servers?
A.They are optimized for specific tasks, making them more efficient
B.They are backward compatible with legacy disk drives
C.They are cheaper to build than standard servers
D.They run software that cannot be deployed on standard servers
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is correct because custom-designed servers can be specifically tailored to optimize performance for the unique workloads and applications of the e-commerce platform ShopSphere. This optimization means that the servers can handle specific tasks more efficiently than general-purpose servers, which are designed to be versatile but may not perform as well for specialized tasks. Customization can include optimizing the hardware and software stack to improve speed, reduce latency, and enhance overall system performance, leading to better user experiences and potentially lower operational costs due to increased efficiency.
B is incorrect because backward compatibility with legacy disk drives is generally not considered an advantage of custom-designed servers. In fact, custom-designed servers typically focus on leveraging the latest technologies to maximize performance and efficiency, rather than maintaining compatibility with older hardware. While backward compatibility can be important in certain scenarios, it is not a primary benefit of custom-designed servers, which are often built to push the boundaries of current technology capabilities.
C is incorrect because custom-designed servers are typically more expensive to build than standard servers. The process of designing, prototyping, and manufacturing custom servers involves significant investment in research and development, as well as potentially higher costs for specialized components. Standard servers benefit from economies of scale due to mass production and widespread use, making them generally cheaper to produce. Therefore, cost reduction is not a common advantage of custom-designed servers.
D is incorrect because the ability to run software that cannot be deployed on standard servers is not a typical advantage of custom-designed servers. Most software is developed to be compatible with standard server architectures to ensure broad usability and flexibility. While custom servers can be optimized for specific software, it is rare for software to be exclusive to custom hardware unless there are highly specialized requirements that standard servers cannot meet. The main advantage lies in performance optimization rather than exclusivity of software deployment.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/compute/docs/
– https://aws.amazon.com/what-is/a-server/
– https://www.datacenterknowledge.com/archives/2019/04/30/how-to-choose-the-right-server-for-your-business
– https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/servers-unified-computing/what-is-a-server.html
Question 10:
A food delivery startup wants to improve its ability to analyze order trends and make near real-time business decisions. They currently process batch data of all orders at the end of each month. What should the startup do?
A.Change from a relational database to a NoSQL database
B.Filter the data so reports are generated faster
C.Switch from batch processing to stream processing
D.Process batch reports weekly instead of monthly
Answer: C
Explanation:
A is incorrect because changing from a relational database to a NoSQL database does not inherently address the need for near real-time business decisions. While NoSQL databases can provide flexibility and scalability, they do not change the underlying processing method from batch to real-time. The core issue is how the data is processed, not just how it is stored. Therefore, switching to NoSQL would not directly enable the startup to analyze order trends in near real-time.
B is incorrect because filtering the data to generate faster reports might improve report generation times marginally but does not fundamentally change the batch processing approach. The process would still involve waiting until the end of the period (in this case, the month) before processing and analyzing the data. This does not provide the startup with the near real-time insights needed for quicker business decisions. The issue is the latency inherent in batch processing, which filtering does not resolve.
C is correct because switching from batch processing to stream processing allows the startup to process and analyze data in near real-time. Stream processing continuously ingests data as it arrives, enabling the generation of up-to-date insights and allowing the business to respond swiftly to trends and changes. This shift from periodic, delayed analysis to ongoing, immediate analysis directly addresses the need for improved and timely decision-making capabilities.
D is incorrect because processing batch reports weekly instead of monthly only reduces the latency of insights by a small margin. While this would allow the startup to receive insights more frequently, it does not offer the immediate data analysis capabilities required for near real-time decision-making. The fundamental problem of waiting for a complete batch cycle (even if shortened to a week) before analysis remains unresolved. The real-time processing requirements are still unmet with this approach.
Reference links:
– https://cloud.google.com/stream-analytics
– https://cloud.google.com/bigquery/docs/batch-streaming-data
– https://cloud.google.com/pubsub/docs/overview
For a full set of 1350 questions. Go to
https://skillcertpro.com/product/google-cloud-digital-leader-exam-questions/
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.