Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) Exam Questions 2025
Certified SOC Analyst (CSA) Exam Questions 2025
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Question 1:
Which of the following steps of incident handling and response process focus on limiting the scope and extent of an incident?
A. Identification
B. Eradication
C. Data Collection
D. Containment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Containment:
This phase of incident response focuses on limiting the scope and extent of the incident to prevent further damage.
It involves isolating compromised systems, blocking malicious traffic, and taking other steps to prevent the attacker from spreading further.
Incorrect Options:
A. Identification: This phase involves identifying the incident and gathering initial information.
B. Eradication: This phase involves removing the root cause of the incident, such as malware or unauthorized access.
C. Data Collection: This phase involves gathering evidence and information about the incident.
Question 2:
Which method restricts bots and automated tools from sending requests and filling forms in web applications?
A. Command Injection Attack
B. Captcha Attach
C. XSS Attack
D. SQL Attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
Captcha (Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart) is a method used to prevent bots and automated tools from accessing and interacting with web applications. It typically presents users with challenges, such as identifying distorted text or selecting images, that are easy for humans to solve but difficult for automated scripts to pass. This helps verify that the user is a human and not a bot, thereby reducing the risk of automated attacks such as spamming or credential stuffing.
Question 3:
What is the systematic approach employed to manage security incidents with the goal of minimizing damage, recovery time, and costs?
A. Threat Intelligence
B. Threat Hunting
C. Incident Response
D. Error Detection
Answer: C
Explanation:
Incident Response refers to the systematic approach taken to handle security incidents in a coordinated and efficient manner. The primary objectives of incident response are to minimize the impact and damage caused by security incidents, reduce recovery time, and control associated costs. It involves preparing for potential incidents, detecting and analyzing incidents when they occur, responding promptly, and learning from the experience to improve future incident handling. The other options, b (Threat Intelligence), c (Error Detection), and d (Threat Hunting), represent different aspects of cybersecurity, with Threat Intelligence focusing on understanding threats, Error Detection on identifying system errors, and Threat Hunting on proactively searching for potential threats.
Question 4:
In IRT Model which team generally play an advisory role and They are not directly responsible for incident response.
A. Centralized Incident Response Team
B. Distributed Incident Response Teams
C. Incident Handler
D. Coordination Teams
Answer: D
Explanation:
Coordination Teams:
These teams are responsible for coordinating the overall incident response effort and ensuring that all necessary resources and personnel are available.
They often play an advisory role, providing guidance and support to other teams involved in the incident response process.
While they may not be directly involved in the technical aspects of incident response, they play a crucial role in ensuring that the incident is handled effectively and efficiently.
Incorrect Options:
A. Centralized Incident Response Team: This team is typically responsible for handling incidents directly, including conducting investigations, containing the threat, and restoring systems.
B. Distributed Incident Response Teams: These teams are responsible for handling incidents within specific geographic regions or functional areas. While they may also provide support to other teams, they are not solely advisory.
C. Incident Handler: Incident handlers are individuals who are responsible for carrying out the technical tasks involved in incident response, such as isolating compromised systems, removing malware, and restoring data.
Question 5:
Which method prevents DoS attacks by intercepting and validating TCP connection requests to eradicate DoS/DDoS incidents?
A. TCP Intercept
B. Egress Filtering
C. Ingress Filtering
D. Rate Limiting
Answer: A
Explanation:
TCP Intercept is a method used to prevent DoS (Denial of Service) attacks by intercepting and validating TCP connection requests. By inspecting incoming connection requests and verifying their validity, TCP Intercept helps mitigate the impact of DoS and DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attacks, thereby eradicating such incidents from affecting the network or system.
For a full set of 668 questions. Go to
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SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
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Question 6:
What security measure involves providing a defined number of login attempts to users and logging the number of failed login attempts?
A. Password expiration policy
B. Captcha verification
C. Account lockout policy
D. Two-factor authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
An account lockout policy is a security measure that limits the number of login attempts a user can make within a specified time period. After exceeding the allowed number of failed login attempts, the user‘s account is temporarily locked out, preventing further access until the account is unlocked by an administrator or after a set period of time. Logging the number of failed login attempts helps in monitoring and detecting potential unauthorized access attempts.
Question 7:
Which technique filters legitimate user traffic from fake DDoS attack traffic?
A. Throttling
B. Drop Request
C. Block the Attacks
D. Load Balancing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Throttling is a method used to limit or control the rate of incoming requests, allowing legitimate user traffic to pass through while slowing down or blocking excessive requests typically associated with DDoS attacks. This helps to maintain the availability of the service or website by managing the volume of incoming traffic during an attack.
Question 8:
Which of the following service provides phishing protection and content filtering to manage the Internet experience on and off your network with the acceptable use or compliance policies?
A. Apility.io
B. Malstrom
C. OpenDNS
D. I-Blocklist
Answer: C
Explanation:
OpenDNS:
Offers extensive phishing protection and content filtering services.
Enforces internet use policies on and off the network, ensuring compliance with acceptable use policies.
Utilizes DNS security to prevent threats before reaching the network.
Provides a roaming client for consistent enforcement even on off-network devices.
Incorrect Options:
A. Apility.io: While Apility offers security solutions, it‘s not specifically known for phishing protection and content filtering for managing internet experience.
B. Malstrom: Information about Malstrom is scarce, and it‘s not a widely recognized service for the functionalities mentioned in the question.
D. I-Blocklist: I-Blocklist is primarily a DNS-based blocklist that can be integrated with other security solutions. It doesn‘t offer the comprehensive features of OpenDNS.
Question 9:
Which department is responsible for ensuring the organization‘s compliance with regulations, business standards, and laws in the regions of its operation?
A. Public Relations
B. Human Resources
C. Financial Auditors
D. Internal Auditor
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Internal Auditor is tasked with ensuring that the organization adheres to regulations, business standards, and laws relevant to its operational regions. Internal Auditors conduct independent assessments of the organization‘s internal controls, processes, and activities to verify compliance. They play a crucial role in identifying areas where the organization may need to adjust its practices to meet legal and regulatory requirements. This function is essential for risk management, governance, and maintaining the organization‘s reputation. The other options, a (Public Relations), b (Human Resources), and c (Financial Auditors), have different responsibilities and are not typically focused on regulatory compliance in the same manner as Internal Auditors.
Question 10:
According to the forensics investigation process, what is the next step carried out right after collecting the evidence?
A. Send it to the nearby police station
B. Call Organizational Disciplinary Team
C. Set a Forensic lab
D. Create a Chain of Custody Document
Answer: D
Explanation:
Create a Chain of Custody Document:
This is a critical step immediately following evidence collection in a forensic investigation.
The Chain of Custody document records the history of the evidence, including who has had possession of it, when, and under what conditions.
This ensures the integrity of the evidence and helps prevent tampering or loss.
Incorrect Options:
A. Send it to the nearby police station: While sending evidence to law enforcement might be necessary in some cases, it‘s not the immediate step after evidence collection. The Chain of Custody must be established first.
B. Call Organizational Disciplinary Team: This action might be taken later depending on the nature of the incident and the findings of the investigation, but it‘s not the immediate step after evidence collection.
C. Set a Forensic Lab: While a forensic lab might be necessary for further analysis, it‘s not the immediate step after collecting evidence. The Chain of Custody must be established first.
For a full set of 668 questions. Go to
https://skillcertpro.com/product/certified-soc-analyst-csa-exam-questions/
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.