Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect SC-100 Exam Dumps 2025
Microsoft Cybersecurity Architect SC-100 Exam Dumps 2025
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Question 1:
You have legacy operational technology (OT) devices and IoT devices.
You need to recommend best practices for applying Zero Trust principles to the OT and IoT devices based on the Microsoft Cybersecurity Reference Architectures (MCRA). The solution must minimize the risk of disrupting business operations.
Which two security methodologies should you include in the recommendation? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A.active scanning
B. threat monitoring
C. software patching
D. passive traffic monitoring
Answer: C and D
Explanation:
The two best security methodologies to apply to OT and IoT devices based on MCRA, while minimizing disruption to business operations, are:
Passive traffic monitoring:
This involves monitoring network traffic without interfering with device operations.
It helps identify anomalies, unauthorized access attempts, and potential security breaches.
It can be implemented using network traffic analysis tools or network security appliances.
Software patching:
Keeping devices up-to-date with the latest security patches is crucial to address vulnerabilities.
A well-planned patching strategy, including testing and staging, can minimize disruptions to operations.
Consider using automated patching tools to streamline the process.
Active scanning and threat monitoring, while important for security, might introduce additional risk to OT and IoT devices due to the potential for disruptions. It’s essential to carefully assess the impact of these techniques on device operations and choose the most appropriate approach.
Question 2:
You have an Azure AD tenant that syncs with an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. Client computers run Windows and are hybrid joined to Azure AD.
You are designing a strategy to protect endpoints against ransomware. The strategy follows Microsoft Security Best Practices.
You plan to remove all the domain accounts from the Administrators groups on the Windows computers.
You need to recommend a solution that will provide users with administrative access to the Windows computers only when access is required.
The solution must minimize the lateral movement of ransomware attacks if an administrator account on a computer is compromised.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS)
B. Azure AD Identity Protection
C. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
D. Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs)
Answer: C
Explanation:
The recommended solution to provide users with administrative access to Windows computers only when necessary and minimize lateral movement of ransomware attacks is:
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
Here’s why:
Just-in-Time (JIT) Access: PIM allows you to grant administrative privileges to users only when they need them, reducing the exposure window for attacks.
Least Privilege Principle: By limiting administrative access to specific users and timeframes, you adhere to the principle of least privilege, minimizing the risk of unauthorized access.
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC): PIM enables you to define fine-grained roles and permissions, allowing you to control exactly what actions users can perform.
Monitoring and Auditing: PIM provides detailed logs of all privileged access activities, enabling you to monitor for suspicious behavior and investigate incidents.
While LAPS can be useful for managing local administrator passwords, PIM offers a more comprehensive and centralized approach to managing privileged access. Azure AD Identity Protection and PAWs are valuable security tools, but they are not directly addressing the specific requirement of providing just-in-time administrative access to Windows computers.
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/itops-talk-blog/step-by-step-guide-how-to-configure-microsoft-local/ba-p/2806185
Question 3:
Your company has an Azure subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Cloud.
The company signs a contract with the United States government.
You need to review the current subscription for NIST 800-53 compliance.
What should you do first?
A. From Defender for Cloud, enable Defender for Cloud plans.
B. From Defender for Cloud, review the Azure security baseline for audit report.
C. From Defender for Cloud, add a regulatory compliance standard.
D. From Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps, create an access policy for cloud applications.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. From Defender for Cloud, add a regulatory compliance standard.
To assess your Azure subscription’s compliance with NIST 800-53, you need to first add this standard to your Azure environment. This will enable Defender for Cloud to assess your resources against the specific controls and requirements outlined in the standard.
Why other options are incorrect:
A. From Defender for Cloud, enable Defender for Cloud plans: Enabling Defender for Cloud plans will enhance the security posture of your environment, but it doesn’t directly address NIST 800-53 compliance assessment.
B. From Defender for Cloud, review the Azure security baseline for audit report: The Azure security baseline provides a set of recommendations to improve the security posture of your Azure resources, but it’s not specific to NIST 800-53.
D. From Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps, create an access policy for cloud applications: This option is related to managing access to cloud applications, not assessing compliance with NIST 800-53.
Question 4:
Your company has an Azure subscription that has enhanced security enabled for Microsoft Defender for Cloud.
The company signs a contract with the United States government.
You need to review the current subscription for NIST 800-53 compliance.
What should you do first?
A.From Defender for Cloud, enable Defender for Cloud plans.
B. From Azure Policy, assign a built-in initiative that has a scope of the subscription.
C. From Defender for Cloud, review the secure score recommendations.
D. From Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps, create an access policy for cloud applications
Answer: B
Explanation:
To review the current subscription for NIST 800-53 compliance, you should:
B. From Azure Policy, assign a built-in initiative that has a scope of the subscription.
Azure Policy built-in initiative: Azure Policy provides built-in initiatives that map to NIST 800-53 controls. By assigning a built-in initiative with a scope of the subscription, you can assess compliance with NIST 800-53 standards and identify areas that need improvement.
Incorrect Options:
A. From Defender for Cloud, enable Defender for Cloud plans: While Defender for Cloud provides security recommendations, it does not specifically address NIST 800-53 compliance.
C. From Defender for Cloud, review the secure score recommendations: Reviewing secure score recommendations helps improve security posture but does not directly address compliance with NIST 800-53.
D. From Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps, create an access policy for cloud applications: This option focuses on securing cloud applications but does not address NIST 800-53 compliance.
Question 5:
Your company is developing an invoicing application that will use Azure AD B2C. The application will be deployed as an App Service web app. You need to recommend a solution to the application development team to secure the application from identity-related attacks.
Which two configurations should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure AD Conditional Access integration with user flows and custom policies
B. smart account lockout in Azure AD B2C
C. access packages in Identity Governance
D. custom resource owner password credentials (ROPC) flows in Azure AD B2C
Answer: A and B
Explanation:
A. Azure AD Conditional Access integration with user flows and custom policies:
This allows you to implement granular access controls based on various conditions, such as user location, device type, and risk level.
By integrating Conditional Access with user flows and custom policies, you can customize the authentication and authorization process to meet your specific security requirements.
B. smart account lockout in Azure AD B2C:
This feature helps protect against brute-force attacks by locking out accounts after a certain number of failed login attempts.
This can significantly reduce the risk of unauthorized access.
Why other options are incorrect:
C. access packages in Identity Governance:
Access packages are primarily used for managing access to specific resources within an organization. They are not directly applicable to securing an external-facing application like an invoicing app.
D. custom resource owner password credentials (ROPC) flows in Azure AD B2C:
ROPC flows are typically used for confidential client applications like backend services. They are not suitable for public-facing web applications like an invoicing app.
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SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
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Question 6:
You are designing a new Azure environment based on the security best practices of the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure. The environment will contain one subscription for shared infrastructure components and three separate subscriptions for applications.
You need to recommend a deployment solution that includes network security groups (NSGs), Azure Firewall, Azure Key Vault, and Azure Bastion.
The solution must minimize deployment effort and follow security best practices of the Microsoft Cloud Adoption Framework for Azure.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. the Azure landing zone accelerator
B. the Azure Well-Architected Framework
C. Azure Security Benchmark v3
D. Azure Advisor
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. the Azure landing zone accelerator.
The Azure landing zone accelerator is a pre-configured deployment solution that follows Microsoft’s best practices for building secure and scalable cloud environments. It includes pre-defined network topologies, security configurations, and resource groups to help you quickly and efficiently deploy your Azure environment.
By using the Azure landing zone accelerator, you can:
Minimize deployment effort: The accelerator provides pre-configured templates and scripts that can be used to automate the deployment of your infrastructure.
Follow security best practices: The accelerator incorporates Microsoft’s recommended security practices, including the use of NSGs, Azure Firewall, Azure Key Vault, and Azure Bastion.
Establish a strong security foundation: The accelerator helps you establish a solid security foundation for your Azure environment, reducing the risk of security breaches.
Why other options are incorrect:
B. the Azure Well-Architected Framework: The Well-Architected Framework is a set of best practices for designing and operating cloud solutions. While it provides valuable guidance, it doesn’t offer a pre-configured deployment solution like the landing zone accelerator.
C. Azure Security Benchmark v3: This is a set of security recommendations that can be used to assess and improve the security posture of your Azure environment. However, it doesn’t provide a pre-configured deployment solution.
D. Azure Advisor: Azure Advisor provides personalized recommendations to improve the performance, security, and cost-effectiveness of your Azure resources. While it can help you identify potential security issues, it doesn’t offer a pre-configured deployment solution.
Question 7:
Your company plans to apply the Zero Trust Rapid Modernization Plan (RaMP) to its IT environment.
You need to recommend the top three modernization areas to prioritize as part of the plan.
Which three areas should you recommend based on RaMP? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. data, compliance, and governance
B. infrastructure and development
C. modern security operations
D. user access and productivity
E. operational technology (OT) and IoT
Answer: A, C and D
Explanation:
The top three modernization areas to prioritize as part of the Zero Trust RaMP are:
User access and productivity: This is a foundational aspect of Zero Trust, focusing on verifying trust for all access requests (identities, devices, applications, and networks). Modernizing user access includes implementing strong authentication methods, enforcing least privilege access controls, and continuously monitoring user activity.
Data, compliance, and governance: Protecting sensitive data is paramount in a Zero Trust environment. This area involves implementing data classification, encryption, and access controls to ensure data confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Additionally, it’s crucial to align with relevant compliance regulations and establish robust data governance practices.
Modern security operations: Effective security operations are essential for detecting and responding to threats in a timely manner. This includes modernizing security information and event management (SIEM) systems, automating threat detection and response processes, and developing incident response plans.
These three areas provide a strong foundation for implementing Zero Trust principles and enhancing the overall security posture of your organization.
Reference:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/zero-trust-ramp-overview
Question 8:
Your company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription.
Users use Microsoft Teams, Exchange Online, SharePoint Online, and OneDrive for sharing and collaborating.
The company identifies protected health information (PHI) within stored documents and communications.
What should you recommend using to prevent the PHI from being shared outside the company?
A.Sensitivity label policies.
B. Data loss prevention (DLP) policies.
C. Insider risk management policies.
D. Retention policies.
Answer: B
Explanation:
DLP policies in Microsoft 365 allow you to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive information, such as PHI, within your organization. You can create DLP policies that identify PHI within stored documents and communications and then set rules to prevent the PHI from being shared outside the company. For example, you can create a DLP policy that blocks emails containing PHI from being sent to external recipients, or that prevents documents containing PHI from being shared outside the organization.
Reference:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/create-test-tune-dlp-policy?view=o365-worldwide
Question 9:
You have an Azure subscription that contains several storage accounts. The storage accounts are accessed by legacy applications that are authenticated by using access keys.
You need to recommend a solution to prevent new applications from obtaining the access keys of the storage accounts. The solution must minimize the impact on the legacy applications.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Set the AllowSharedKeyAccess property to false.
B. Apply read-only locks on the storage accounts.
C. Set the AllowBlobPublicAccess property to false.
D. Configure automated key rotation.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best recommendation to prevent new applications from obtaining access keys for your storage accounts, while minimizing impact on legacy applications, is to:
Set the AllowSharedKeyAccess property to false.
Here’s why:
Disables Shared Key Access: This setting prevents any new application from using access keys to access the storage accounts.
Legacy Apps Unaffected: Existing applications that are already using access keys will continue to function normally.
The other options are less suitable:
Read-only Locks: These wouldn’t prevent access key retrieval, they would just limit write operations.
AllowBlobPublicAccess: This property controls public access to blobs, not access keys.
Automated Key Rotation: While important for security, it doesn’t directly address preventing new applications from obtaining keys.
Setting AllowSharedKeyAccess to false is a non-invasive way to ensure future security without disrupting current functionality. Over time, you can migrate legacy applications to use more secure authentication methods like Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
Reference:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-resource-manager/management/lock-resources?tabs=json
Question 10:
You are evaluating an Azure environment for compliance.
You need to design an Azure Policy implementation that can be used to evaluate compliance without changing any resources.
Which effect should you use in Azure Policy?
A. Deny
B. Modify
C. Append
D. Disabled
Answer: D
Explanation:
Before looking to manage new or updated resources with your new policy definition, it‘s best to see how it evaluates a limited subset of existing resources, such as a test resource group. Use the enforcement mode Disabled (DoNotEnforce) on your policy assignment to prevent the effect from triggering or activity log entries from being created.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/concepts/effects#disabled
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/concepts/evaluate-impact
For a full set of 567 questions. Go to
https://skillcertpro.com/product/microsoft-sc-100-exam-questions/
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.