Microsoft SC-300 Exam Dumps & Questions 2026
Microsoft SC-300 Exam Dumps & Questions 2026
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Question 1:
Your organization uses the Azure commercial cloud and needs to enable B2B collaboration with a partner organization in Azure Government. In your cross-tenant access settings, you enable the Microsoft Azure Government checkbox on the Microsoft cloud settings tab. Users from the partner tenant still cannot be invited. What should you do next?
A.Modify the default inbound access settings to allow B2B collaboration from all external organizations
B.Add the partner organization to the Organizational settings tab using their tenant ID
C.Enable the Trust multifactor authentication checkbox on the default inbound trust settings tab
D.Add the partner organization‘s domain to the allow list in the External collaboration settings
Answer: B
Explanation:
B. Add the partner organization to the Organizational settings tab using their tenant ID
Configuring collaboration across different Microsoft clouds (Sovereign Clouds) is a two-step process in Cross-Tenant Access Settings:
1. The "Bridge" (Microsoft Cloud Settings)
Checking the Microsoft Azure Government box on the Microsoft cloud settings tab enables the communication channel between your cloud and that specific sovereign cloud. However, this only makes collaboration possible—it does not grant permission to any specific tenant.
2. The "Door" (Organizational Settings)
To allow users from a specific partner organization in that cloud to be invited, you must explicitly add them under the Organizational settings tab by entering their Tenant ID or Domain.
After adding the organization, you can configure the inbound and outbound access policies specifically for that partner.
Without adding the specific organization, the global Inbound and Outbound rules (which typically default to Block across clouds) remain in effect, preventing the invitation from succeeding.
Incorrect:
A. Modify the default inbound access settings to allow B2B collaboration from all external organizations
This option is incorrect because, although it might technically allow the invitation, it introduces a significant security risk and violates the Principle of Least Privilege.
You should always prefer organization-specific access policies over broad, tenant-wide settings that affect all external organizations.
C. Enable the Trust multifactor authentication checkbox on the default inbound trust settings tab
This option is incorrect because Trust MFA allows your tenant to accept MFA claims from the partner's home tenant, preventing users from having to register MFA again.
While this improves the user experience, it does not resolve the underlying issue of the invitation being blocked. The invitation must first be permitted through Cross-Tenant Access Settings before trust settings become relevant.
D. Add the partner organization's domain to the allow list in the External collaboration settings
This option is incorrect because External collaboration settings (B2B) are Level 1 settings.
Although adding a domain to the allow list is useful when using a Restricted policy, it does not address the cross-cloud communication requirement.
In this scenario, the invitation fails at the Cross-Tenant Access Settings (Level 2) layer, which specifically governs communication between different Microsoft clouds.
Question 2:
You have Microsoft Entra Connect Sync deployed with password hash synchronization enabled. A user named User1 reports that their on-premises password change was not synchronized to Microsoft Entra ID. You need to diagnose the password hash synchronization issue for this specific user by using PowerShell on the Microsoft Entra Connect server. Which cmdlet should you run?
A.Get-ADSyncAADPasswordSyncConfiguration
B.Invoke-ADSyncDiagnostics
C.Set-ADSyncAADPasswordSyncConfiguration
D.Test-AzureADConnectHealthConnectivity
Answer: B
Explanation:
B. Invoke-ADSyncDiagnostics
To diagnose a password hash synchronization issue for a specific user using PowerShell on the Microsoft Entra Connect server, use the Invoke-ADSyncDiagnostics cmdlet.
This cmdlet is specifically designed to determine why password synchronization is failing for individual objects.
Microsoft documentation states that you can use the Invoke-ADSyncDiagnostics cmdlet to identify why a particular object is not synchronizing passwords. To target a single user, use the following syntax:
Import-Module ADSyncDiagnostics
Invoke-ADSyncDiagnostics -PasswordSync -ADConnectorName <ConnectorName> -DistinguishedName <UserDN>
The -PasswordSync parameter focuses the diagnostic on password hash synchronization. The command requires the Distinguished Name (DN) of the user object from the Active Directory connector space.
Incorrect:
A. Get-ADSyncAADPasswordSyncConfiguration
This cmdlet is used to verify whether password hash synchronization is enabled for the tenant and to retrieve the current configuration settings.
It checks global configuration settings, not the synchronization status of an individual user object.
C. Set-ADSyncAADPasswordSyncConfiguration
This cmdlet is used to modify the password synchronization configuration for the tenant.
It is intended for changing settings such as enabling or disabling password synchronization, rather than diagnosing issues for a specific user.
D. Test-AzureADConnectHealthConnectivity
This cmdlet is part of the Microsoft Entra Connect Health feature and is used to test connectivity between the server and the Azure AD Connect Health service.
It verifies network connectivity for monitoring purposes and does not diagnose password hash synchronization issues for an individual user.
Question 3:
You have an Azure subscription that contains a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was originally deployed without a managed identity. You need to enable a system-assigned managed identity on VM1. The solution must use the minimum required role for your account. Which Azure role should your account have?
A.Managed Identity Contributor
B.Contributor
C.Virtual Machine Contributor
D.Managed Identity Operator
Answer: C
Explanation:
C. Virtual Machine Contributor
To enable a system-assigned managed identity on an existing virtual machine (VM), you need permissions to manage the identity settings of the virtual machine resource itself.
The Virtual Machine Contributor role provides the minimum required permissions to create, update, and manage VM configurations, including enabling or disabling system-assigned managed identities.
Emphasizes the least-privilege principle. Although broader roles such as Contributor can also perform this action, Virtual Machine Contributor is the correct minimum role required.
Incorrect:
A. Managed Identity Contributor
This role allows management of user-assigned managed identities but does not grant permissions to configure system-assigned managed identities on virtual machines.
It cannot enable or disable managed identities directly on VM resources.
B. Contributor
While the Contributor role can perform this task, it grants broader permissions than necessary.
The exam focuses on identifying the minimum required role, making Virtual Machine Contributor the correct answer instead of Contributor.
D. Managed Identity Operator
This role allows assigning existing user-assigned managed identities to resources but does not allow enabling or disabling system-assigned managed identities.
Therefore, it is insufficient for this requirement.
Question 4:
You have two emergency access accounts in your Microsoft Entra tenant. You configure diagnostic settings to send Microsoft Entra sign-in logs to a Log Analytics workspace. You create a log search alert rule in Azure Monitor that uses the SignInLogs table to detect when any emergency access account signs in. You need to set the severity level for the alert rule. Which severity level does Microsoft recommend?
A.Critical (Sev 0)
B.Informational (Sev 3)
C.Error (Sev 1)
D.Warning (Sev 2)
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. Critical (Sev 0)
Microsoft's official best practices for managing emergency access (break-glass) accounts emphasize immediate visibility and the highest-priority response.
Why Sev 0?
Emergency access accounts bypass standard security controls (such as MFA and Conditional Access) to prevent tenant lockouts. As a result, any sign-in to an emergency account is considered a high-risk event. It typically indicates one of the following:
A major tenant-wide emergency requiring emergency access.
A potential catastrophic security breach involving unauthorized access.
Microsoft recommends configuring alerts for these accounts as Severity 0 (Critical) to ensure they trigger the highest level of automated response and immediate notification to the Security Operations Center (SOC). This ensures every use of an emergency access account is investigated immediately.
Incorrect:
B. Informational (Sev 3)
Informational alerts are intended for routine activities or non-critical configuration changes. Assigning this severity to an emergency account sign-in increases the risk that the alert will be overlooked or lost among less important notifications, making it inappropriate for such a high-risk event.
C. Error (Sev 1)
Severity 1 is typically used for significant issues requiring prompt attention but not necessarily indicating a critical security incident or tenant-wide emergency. Although serious, it does not reflect the immediate urgency associated with emergency access account usage.
D. Warning (Sev 2)
Severity 2 is intended for issues that could become critical if left unresolved. Since the use of a break-glass account is already considered a critical event at the moment it occurs, assigning a Warning severity understates the required level of response.
Question 5:
You have a Microsoft Entra tenant that contains a security group named Group1. Group1 is synced from on-premises Active Directory by using Microsoft Entra Connect Sync. You create an access review for Group1 and enable Auto apply results to resource. A reviewer denies access for User1. What is the result when the review completes?
A.User1 is blocked from signing in and then deleted from the tenant
B.User1 is removed from Group1 in Microsoft Entra ID only
C.User1‘s group membership is not changed by the review
D.User1 is removed from Group1 in Microsoft Entra ID and on-premises AD
Answer: C
Explanation:
C. User1’s group membership is not changed by the review
Group1 is a hybrid group synced from an on-premises Active Directory environment using Microsoft Entra Connect Sync. Because the authoritative source for this group is the on-premises AD, Microsoft Entra ID cannot directly modify or remove memberships for this group in the cloud. When an access review completes and "Auto apply" is triggered on a synced group, Entra ID attempts to remove the user but fails due to the write authority boundary. As a result, User1's membership remains unchanged. To actually remove the user, an administrator must manually remove them from the group in the on-premises Active Directory.
Incorrect:
A. User1 is blocked from signing in and then deleted from the tenant
Access reviews for groups evaluate whether a user should remain a member of that specific group; they do not delete the user account entirely from the tenant or block their overall sign-in capability. Furthermore, since this is a synced group, even the group removal action fails.
B. User1 is removed from Group1 in Microsoft Entra ID only
Entra ID cannot remove a user from a synced group locally in the cloud because the group membership is managed on-premises. If Entra ID were to drop the user locally, the next Entra Connect sync cycle would immediately add the user back to the cloud group to match the on-premises source of truth.
D. User1 is removed from Group1 in Microsoft Entra ID and on-premises AD
Microsoft Entra Connect Sync is primarily a one-way synchronization tool (from on-premises to the cloud). It does not feature a group writeback capability that allows cloud-based access reviews to automatically modify standard security group memberships back in the on-premises Active Directory.
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Question 6:
You have a Microsoft Entra tenant and a SaaS application named App1 that uses Microsoft Entra ID for single sign-on. App1 is onboarded to Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps for Conditional Access app control. Users on unmanaged devices must be able to access App1 but must be prevented from downloading files that contain sensitive content. Which type of policy should you create in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps?
A.An access policy
B.An activity policy
C.A file policy
D.A session policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
D. A session policy
The key requirement is to prevent downloads in real time based on content sensitivity.
When an application is onboarded to Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps (MDCA) using Conditional Access App Control, user traffic is routed through a reverse proxy, enabling real-time inspection and control of user sessions.
A session policy is the only policy type in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps that provides real-time monitoring and control of user activities during an active session.
Using the Control File Download filter within a session policy allows Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps to inspect a file at the moment a user attempts to download it. If the file contains sensitive content (based on DLP labels or Sensitive Information Types), the policy can:
Block the download.
Require the file to be protected or encrypted before the download is allowed.
This makes a session policy the correct solution for enforcing real-time download controls.
Incorrect:
A. An access policy
Access policies provide granular control over who can access an application, such as blocking access from specific countries or unmanaged devices.
However, they cannot inspect files or block specific user actions, such as downloading sensitive files after the user has already accessed the application.
B. An activity policy
Activity policies monitor and generate alerts for specific user behaviors, such as:
Mass downloads
Sign-ins from risky IP addresses
They are primarily used for monitoring, alerting, and automated governance actions, not for real-time inline blocking of individual file downloads.
C. A file policy
File policies operate on data at rest. They scan files already stored in cloud services such as SharePoint Online or OneDrive to identify compliance violations, sensitive data, or malware.
Since this scenario requires inspecting and controlling a file during the download process, a file policy cannot prevent the action in real time.
Question 7:
You have a Microsoft Entra tenant. You are creating a dynamic membership rule for a security group. You need the rule to include all users who do not have the department attribute populated. Which rule syntax should you use?
A.user.department -eq null
B.user.department -eq ‘null‘
C.user.department -ne ‘‘
D.user.department -not null
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. user.department -eq null
In Microsoft Entra dynamic group membership rules, the correct syntax to include users whose Department attribute is not populated is:
user.department -eq null
The keyword null is used without quotation marks to represent an empty or missing attribute value.
Emphasizes that dynamic membership rules must follow the supported syntax, and -eq null is the valid method for checking whether an attribute has no value.
Incorrect:
B. user.department -eq 'null'
'null' (in quotes) is treated as a literal string, not as the absence of a value.
It would only match users whose Department attribute is literally set to the text "null", which is not the intended scenario.
C. user.department -ne ''
-ne '' checks for values not equal to an empty string.
As a result, it matches users who have any department value, rather than users whose Department attribute is missing.
It produces the opposite of the required result.
D. user.department -not null
-not null is not valid syntax for Microsoft Entra dynamic membership rules.
The supported syntax for checking an empty attribute is:
user.department -eq null
Question 8:
You use Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps with Conditional Access app control. You need to create a session policy that prevents external users from printing documents and copying content within a SaaS application. Which session control type should you select when creating the session policy?
A.Control file upload (with inspection)
B.Block activities
C.Control file download (with inspection)
D.Monitor only
Answer: B
Explanation:
B. Block activities
To prevent external users from printing documents and copying content within a SaaS application using Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps (MDCA), you must create a session policy that uses the Block activities session control type.
Microsoft documentation states that when Block activities is selected as the session control type, you can use the Activity type filter to specify which user actions should be blocked. Supported activities include:
Printing
Clipboard actions such as Cut, Copy, and Paste
When Block activities is configured, all activities from the selected applications are monitored and recorded in the Activity log, while the specified activities (such as printing and copying) are blocked in real time.
Incorrect:
A. Control file upload (with inspection)
This session control type is designed specifically for monitoring and controlling file uploads.
It can inspect uploaded files and block or protect uploads based on defined policies, but it cannot block printing or clipboard actions such as copying content.
C. Control file download (with inspection)
This session control type focuses on file downloads.
It can inspect downloaded files and block or protect downloads based on file filters or sensitivity labels. However, it does not control printing or clipboard operations, which are the actions required in this scenario.
D. Monitor only
The Monitor only session control type records user activities but does not block any actions.
It allows printing and copying to continue while simply logging the activity. Since the requirement is to prevent these actions, this option does not meet the objective.
Question 9:
You have a Microsoft Entra tenant with Conditional Access App Control configured for Salesforce. You need to completely prevent access to Salesforce from unmanaged devices while users on managed devices retain full access. Which type of policy should you create in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps?
A.An OAuth app policy
B.A cloud discovery policy
C.A session policy
D.An access policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
D. An access policy
To completely prevent access to Salesforce from unmanaged devices while users on managed devices retain full access, you must create an access policy in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps.
The official Microsoft documentation specifies that to control a session based on a device‘s state (such as blocking access from unmanaged devices), you must create a Defender for Cloud Apps access policy. The documentation explicitly states: “To control a session using a device as a condition, you must also create a Defender for Cloud Apps access policy“.
Access policies in Defender for Cloud Apps work in conjunction with Conditional Access policies in Microsoft Entra ID to enforce access controls based on conditions such as device compliance or location. When a user attempts to access an app from an unmanaged device, the access policy determines whether to block or allow the access attempt. This is distinct from session policies, which control specific in-session activities (like file downloads) rather than blocking access outright.
Microsoft documentation confirms that access policies can “granularly block access for specific apps and users depending on several risk factors, for example, block them if they‘re using client certificates as a form of device management“. For Salesforce specifically, the documentation provides a scenario where “unmanaged devices“ are used as a condition to block downloadsthis same principle applies to blocking access entirely rather than just blocking downloads.
Incorrect:
Option A: An OAuth app policy
OAuth app policies are used to govern the permissions and consent requirements for OAuth applications that have been authorized to access your organization‘s data. These policies focus on application permissions and consent frameworks, not on controlling user access to applications based on device state. An OAuth app policy cannot block access to Salesforce from unmanaged devices because it does not evaluate device conditions during the user sign-in flow.
Option B: A cloud discovery policy
Cloud discovery policies, part of Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps‘ Shadow IT discovery capabilities, are used to monitor and analyze unsanctioned cloud app usage across your organization. These policies identify which cloud apps are being used by employees but do not enforce access controls on those apps. The primary purpose is discovery and visibility, not blocking access based on device conditions.
Option C: A session policy
Session policies control in-session activities (such as blocking file downloads, copy/paste, or print operations) after a user has already gained access to the application. While session policies can be layered on top of access policies for granular control, they cannot by themselves prevent initial access to Salesforce from unmanaged devices. The documentation clearly differentiates that access policies govern whether a user can reach the application at all, while session policies govern what they can do once inside. Therefore, a session policy alone would not achieve the requirement of completely preventing access.
Question 10:
You have a Microsoft Entra tenant. A Conditional Access policy is configured with sign-in risk set to high as a condition. A user named User1 triggers a high sign-in risk detection. You need User1 to self-remediate the sign-in risk without administrator intervention. What must User1 do?
A.Sign in from a trusted network location defined in Named Locations
B.Perform a secure password change from the My Account portal
C.Register a new authentication method and attempt the sign-in again
D.Successfully complete multifactor authentication
Answer: D
Explanation:
D. Successfully complete multifactor authentication
When a Conditional Access policy is configured with sign-in risk = High, Microsoft Entra ID Protection can allow self-remediation by requiring the user to complete multifactor authentication (MFA).
This ensures that the user proves their identity without administrator intervention.
Once MFA is successfully completed, the high-risk sign-in can be remediated, and the user is granted access.
Emphasizes that MFA is the primary self-service remediation method for sign-in risk conditions.
Incorrect:
A. Sign in from a trusted network location defined in Named Locations
Sign-in risk is based on risk detections (e.g., unfamiliar location, leaked credentials), not simply network location.
Signing in from a trusted location does not remediate a high sign-in risk.
B. Perform a secure password change from the My Account portal
Password change can remediate user risk (compromised account), but not sign-in risk.
The scenario specifically involves sign-in risk, so this option is not valid.
C. Register a new authentication method and attempt the sign-in again
Registering a new method does not remediate sign-in risk.
The Conditional Access policy requires MFA completion, not method registration.
For a full set of 1300 questions. Go to
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SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.