Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam Questions 2026
Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Exam Questions 2026
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Question 1:
What is the Scrum Master‘s role during the daily stand-up?
A. Congratulate the team when they do a good job.
B. Listen to the team for any faced impediments.
C. Ask each team member what they accomplished since the last daily standup.
D. This meeting is for team members only, the Scrum Master should not attend.
Answer: B
Explanation:
During the daily standup, the scrum master listens to the team members for any faced impediments and provides support in case of need. Its recommended that the standup meeting is facilitated by any team member rather than the project manager to ensure it does not turn into a status meeting. Ideally, it is a time for the team to self-organize and make commitments to each other
Question 2:
Shortly after acquiring the resources, the project manager discovers that the team members are politically very engaged; almost all of their meetings end with a political dispute between team members. The project manager has decided to put an end to this before it deteriorates team members relationships, by prohibiting any political discussions. Where should the project manager note this rule?
A. Team charter
B. Project charter
C. Resource charter
D. Resource management plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
The team charter is the right document to include rules and guidelines on how the team members should interact with each other. By adding the rule to the team charter, team members will have to adhere to it and refrain from discussing politics at work.
Option B: The project charter includes a brief description of the project and its requirements. The resource charter is a made-up term.
Option D: The Resource management plan, on the other hand, covers staffing acquisition, timetable, training needs, recognition and rewards, release criteria, compliance, and safety.
Question 3:
What is the major difference between lessons learned and retrospectives?
A. Lessons learned are conducted more frequently
B. Retrospectives focus on completed projects only
C. Retrospectives occur regularly and frequently
D. Lessons learned occur weekly
Answer: C
Explanation:
The key difference between lessons learned and retrospectives lies in their frequency and focus:
Lessons Learned:
Conducted at the end of a project or phase.
Focus on identifying what went well and what could be improved in future projects.
Often documented in a formal report.
Retrospectives:
Held regularly, typically at the end of each iteration or sprint in Agile methodologies.
Focus on continuous improvement and learning from the team‘s experiences.
Often conducted in an informal, collaborative manner.
Question 4:
What is the key advantage of using document analysis in requirements gathering?
A. It saves time for stakeholders during in-person elicitation activities
B. It provides interactive collaboration
C. It helps to engage multiple stakeholders simultaneously
D. It is the most accurate form of elicitation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Document analysis involves reviewing existing documents, such as reports, procedures, and business process models, to gather information about the current system or process. This approach is beneficial because:
Time-efficient: It saves time by avoiding the need for extensive interviews or workshops with stakeholders.
Detailed information: Documents often contain detailed information that may not be easily captured through other methods.
Historical perspective: It provides insights into the evolution of the system or process over time.
Incorrect Options:
B. It provides interactive collaboration: Document analysis is primarily a passive activity that involves reviewing existing documents.
C. It helps to engage multiple stakeholders simultaneously: While document analysis can be shared with multiple stakeholders, it doesn‘t actively engage them in the analysis process.
D. It is the most accurate form of elicitation: While document analysis can provide valuable information, it‘s important to supplement it with other techniques, such as interviews and workshops, to ensure a comprehensive understanding of requirements.
Question 5:
A Scrum team can use the burnup and burndown charts to get an overview of a sprints work development. Both charts are primarily used for:
A. Identifying technical issues
B. Tracking progress
C. Project retrospective
D. Sprint planning
Answer: B
Explanation:
The burnup and burndown charts are created to identify the amount of workload achieved and how much remains to be completed (PMBOK 7th edition, page 188). In a burndown chart, the line goes downwards, while in a burnup chart, the line goes upwards, which in both cases illustrates the teams progress. When burndown or burnup charts reveal issues related to sprint progress, which can be due to both technical or non-technical reasons, a self-organizing team should take corrective actions. In their next retrospective meeting, the team needs to reflect on what happened and how to better handle issues in the future.
For a full set of 915 questions. Go to
https://skillcertpro.com/product/certified-associate-in-project-management-capm-practice-tests/
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.
Question 6:
Which of the following is a risk response strategy that involves passing the impact of a risk to a third party?
A. Risk mitigation
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk transference
D. Risk escalation
Answer: C
Explanation:
Risk transference involves shifting the risk to a third party, such as an insurance company or a vendor. This strategy is used when the risk cannot be mitigated or avoided and the potential impact is significant.
Incorrect Options:
A. Risk mitigation: This involves taking steps to reduce the probability or impact of a risk.
B. Risk avoidance: This involves taking actions to eliminate the risk altogether.
D. Risk escalation: This involves reporting the risk to a higher authority for further decision-making.
Question 7:
What is the purpose of conducting a phase-gate review in a project?
A. To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements specific to each phase
B. To assess the alignment of project risks with strategic objectives
C. To allocate additional resources
D. To evaluate deliverables before proceeding to the next phase
Answer: D
Explanation:
A phase-gate review is a formal process used to assess the progress of a project at the end of each phase. Its main purpose is to:
Evaluate deliverables: Ensure that the project deliverables meet the specified quality standards and requirements.
Assess project performance: Review the project‘s progress against the project plan.
Identify risks and issues: Identify any potential risks or issues that may impact the project.
Make decisions: Decide whether to proceed to the next phase, terminate the project, or make necessary adjustments.
Question 8:
Which of the following is not typically included in a product roadmap?
A. Success criteria
B. Market forces
C. Procurement strategy
D. Product releases
Answer: C
Explanation:
A product roadmap is a high-level plan that outlines the vision, strategy, and timeline for a product‘s development and delivery. It typically includes:
Product vision: The long-term goal for the product.
Key features and functionalities: The core capabilities that the product will offer.
Release schedule: The planned release dates for different versions of the product.
Prioritized features: The order in which features will be developed and released.
Market trends: The external factors that may impact the product‘s development and market position.
Procurement strategy is a specific plan for acquiring goods or services. While it may be relevant to the overall project management, it‘s not typically included in a product roadmap, as the focus of a product roadmap is on the product itself, not the procurement process.
Question 9:
What is a risk register used for?
A. Defining how risks will be planned
B. Documenting risks and actions for managing them
C. Recording closed risks
D. Documenting losses caused by risks
Answer: B
Explanation:
A risk register is a document used to record, track, and manage project risks. It typically includes:
Risk identification: A list of potential risks that could impact the project.
Risk assessment: An evaluation of the likelihood and impact of each risk.
Risk response planning: Strategies for mitigating, transferring, avoiding, or accepting risks.
Risk monitoring and control: Tracking the status of risks and taking corrective action as needed.
By maintaining a risk register, project teams can proactively identify, assess, and manage risks to minimize their impact on the project‘s success.
Incorrect Options:
A. Defining how risks will be planned: This is part of the risk management planning process, which involves developing a risk management plan.
C. Recording closed risks: While the risk register may include information about closed risks, it‘s not its primary purpose.
D. Documenting losses caused by risks: This is more relevant to financial reporting and post-project analysis.
Question 10:
What is the business analyst‘s responsibility in adaptive approaches like scrum?
A. Ensure that only the product owner analyzes requirements.
B. Ensure that the entire team is responsible for eliciting and analyzing requirements.
C. Focus solely on managing product documentation.
D. Collaborate closely with the project sponsor.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In Agile methodologies like Scrum, the entire team is responsible for understanding and refining requirements. The business analyst plays a crucial role in facilitating this process by:
Collaborating with the product owner: Working closely with the product owner to understand the product vision and prioritize the backlog.
Facilitating requirements gathering: Organizing workshops, interviews, and other techniques to elicit requirements from stakeholders.
Writing user stories: Creating clear and concise user stories that describe the desired functionality.
Refining the product backlog: Continuously refining the product backlog to ensure that it‘s prioritized and well-understood.
Collaborating with the development team: Working with developers to ensure that requirements are implemented correctly.
For a full set of 915 questions. Go to
https://skillcertpro.com/product/certified-associate-in-project-management-capm-practice-tests/
SkillCertPro offers detailed explanations to each question which helps to understand the concepts better.
It is recommended to score above 85% in SkillCertPro exams before attempting a real exam.
SkillCertPro updates exam questions every 2 weeks.
You will get life time access and life time free updates
SkillCertPro assures 100% pass guarantee in first attempt.