SVIMS 2012 Mch UROLOGY
1. the fine longitudinal smooth muscle fibers of ureter extending from ureteric orifices to internal urethral meatus
a. mercier bar
b. bell muscle
c verumontanum
d. internal sphincter
2. deep layer of trigone is formed by
a. longitudinal muscle of ureter
b. waldeyer sheath
c. outer longitudinal muscle of bladder
d. inner circular muscle of bladder
3. the structures seen at renal hilum from anterior to posterior
a. renal artery, renal pelvis, renal vein
b. renal artery, renal vein , renal pelvis
c. renal pelvis, renal vein, renal artery
d. renal pelvis, renal artery, renal vein
4. somatic innervation to the testis is provided by
a. ilioinguinal nerve
b. genital branch of genitofemoral nerve
c. perineal branch of pudendal nerve
d. none of the above
5. obstruction of calculus most common location
a. UPJ
b. UVJ
c. crossing of gonadal artery
d. at the crossing of iliac vessels
6. Tyson glands location?
a. external urethral meatus
b. internal urethral meatus
c. frenulum
d. membranous urethra
7. largest glandular zone in prostate
a. peripheral
b. central
c. transition
d. periurethral
8. gustov simon performed nephrectomy through which incision?
a. posterior
b. lumbar
c. thoraco abdominal
d. midline
9. meaning of “like a fall of leaf from tree”
a. gonorrhea
b. apoptosis
c. necrosis
d. ischemia
10. ‘glitter cells’ are
a. old leucocytes
b. oval fat macrophages
c. deformed RBC`S
d. freash leucocytes
11. best investigation to measure for GFR
a. Tc 99 DMSA
b. Tc 99 DTPA
c. Sr Creatinine
d. IVP
12. best investigation for visualisation of renal cortical scar
a. Tc 99 DMSA
b. Tc 99 DTPA
c. IVP
d. USG
13. first line investigation for a patient presenting with renal colic
a. USG
b. IVP
c. CT scan abdomen
d. MR urogram
14. 1F (french) equals to
a. 0.33mm in circumference
b. 3.3mm in circumference
c. 0.33mm in diameter
d. 3.3mm in diameter
15. a 44y old patient presented with right loin pain, fever with chills, on USG dilated collecting system, next step in the management includes
a. retrograde stenting
b. PCN
c. broad spectrum antbiotics
d. observation
16. at what age men will have more UTI than girls
a. <1yr
b. <2yr
c. after 15yrs
d. after 50yrs
17. in dysuric females significant bacteruria is defined as when colony count is more than
a. 100/ml
b. 1000/ml
c. 10000/ml
d. 100000/ml
18. largest epithelial cell in the body is present in
a. kidney
b. bladder
c. prostate
d. urethra
19. false regarding emphysematous pyelonephritis
a. caused by clostridium welchii
b. not seen in type1 diabetics.
c. H2 ,Co2 gases are formed
d. Obstruction is present in 25% of cases
20. following is not a factor in the etiology of XGP
a. nephrolithiasis
b. obstruction
c. infection
d. immunodeficiency
21. false about TB epididymitis
a. usually aquired through spread from vas diference
b. presents with acute scrotum
c. diagnosis is by culture of sinus discharge
d. not a primary site of genitor urinary tract TB
22. after ilio ingunal node dissection the area covered by
a. Adductor longus
b. Sartorius
c. Posterior thigh flap
d. Gracilis
23. distal urethral ca in males best managed by
a. partial penectomy
b. urethroscopic resection
c. radiotherapy
d. resection by laser
24. most common endocrine abnormality in infertility evaluation of males
a. decreased testosterone
b. increased FSH
c. decreased FSH
d. decreased testosterone and decreased FSH
25. a 35yr old patient presented to infertility clinic, on genital examination testis is normal, semen analysis shows azoospermia, on hormonal evaluation FSH levels are normal. next step in the evaluation includes,
a. vasography
b. TRUS
c. Testis biopsy
d. CFTR testing
26. good prognostic factor for vasovasostomy
a. small soft testis
b. presence of sperm granuloma
c. abscent scrotal straight vas
d. on aspiration thick, white, toothpaste like vassal fluid
27. complete absence of semen in ejaculate is called as
a. azoospermia
b. asthenospermia
c. aspermia
d. teratospermia
28. a patient presented with acidic semen ,low volume ejaculate, absent fructose, diagnosis
a. obstruction of vas
b. testicular atrophy
c. epididymal obstruction
d. EJDO
29. abscent vas is commonly associated with
a. abscent testis
b. renal agenesis
c. cryptorchidism
d. horseshoe kidney
30. first sign of puberty growth in males
a. appearance of pubic hair
b. breast enlargement
c. lengthening of penis
d. enlargement of testis
31. absolute contraindication for the use of PDEI
a. h/o coronary artery disease
b. h/o hypertension
c. present congestive heart failure
d. present use of nitrates
32. frontline investigation for vascular erectile dysfunction
a. duplex USG
b. combined intracavernous injection and stimulation
c. dynamic infusion cavernosography
d. pudendal artery angiography
33. high flow priapism is commonly caused by
a. trauma
b. sickle cell disease
c. antihypertensive drugs
d. idiopathic
34. egg plant deformity is seen in
a. pyronies disease
b. # penis
c. Rupture of urethra
d. Priapism
35. kidney size is decreased in all except
a. diabetes mellitus
b. renal artery stenosis
c. MCDK
d. Hypoplasia
36. how much % of normal GFR is regained after unilateral nephrectomy
a. 10 to 20%
b. 20 to 30%
c. 30 to 50%
d. 70 to 80%
37. a 7yr old child with stenosis at PUJ undergone open pyeloplasty . after 1yr he developed stricture at the same site. Now he is best managed by
a. endopyelotomy
b. laproscopic pyeloplasty
c. open pyeloplasty
d. nephrectomy
38. 1cm bulbar urethral stricture after truma best managed by
a. anastomotic urethroplasty
b. VIU
c. laser incision of the stricture
d. gradual dilatation
39. which of the following disease commonly recurres after renal transplantation
a. ADPKD
b. alport syndrome
c. primary oxaluria
d. renal dysplasia
40. RCC most commonly seen in
a. VHL syndrome
b. tuberous sclerosis
c. aquired renal cystic disease
d. birt hugh dube syndrome
41. Balkan nephropathy commonly causes
a. RCC
b. ureter tumors
c. bladder ca
d. prostate ca
42. nitric oxide precursor
a. arginine
b. citrulin
c. N2O
d. arachidonic acid
43. in pheochromocytoma ‘30% tumor’ applies to
a. adults.
b. children.
c. elderly
d. females
44. predominant muscurinic receptors mediating contraction of bladder
a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. M4
45. decreased compliance of the bladder seen in all except
a. neurogenic bladder
b. diabetes mellitus
c. BOO
d. PUV
46. a 36y old male came with recurrent voiding dysfunction.cystoscpy, clinical examination are normal ,no h/o fever, trauma, probable diagnosis is
a. bladder neck dysfunction
b. neurogenic bladder
c. ectopic ureter
d. fowler syndrome
47. Vincent curtsy sign is seen in
a. hypocontractile bladder
b. hyper contractile bladder.
c. hinman syndrome
d. prune belly syndrome
48. UMN/LMN lesions of bladder can be differentiated by
a. bethenichol test
b. ice water test
c. potassium sensitivity test
d. cystoscopy
49. normal voiding pressure in males
a. 10-20cm H20
b. 20-30cm H2O
c. 40-60cm H2O
d. 60-80cm H2O
50. CIC is first invented by
a. lapides
b. bradly
c. michell
d. demochowski
51. a female patient with h/o radiotherapy for carcinoma cervix is c/o incontinence with cough, the type of SUI she had
a. TYPE I
b. TYPE II
c TYPE III
d. TYPE IV
52. malignancy in bladder diverticulum doesn’t hav stage
a. T1
b. T2
c. T3
d. T4
53. intravesical BCG therapy is indicated in all exept
a. cis
b. multifocal ca
c. diffuse ca
d. invasive ca
54. most common cause of surgical ureteric injury
a. open abdominal hysterectomy
b. laproscopic hysterectomy
c. LSCS
d. vaginal hysterectomy
55. most common cause of VVF in developing countries
a. surgical injury
b. radiotherapy
c. malignancy
d. obstetric trauma
56. hyper parathyroidism causes which type of hypercalciuria
a. type1 absorptive
b. type2 absorptive
c. resorptive
d. renal leak
57. all of the following stones formed in acidic urine exept
a. ca oxalate
b. uric acid
c. cystine
d. phosphate
58. which of the following is not a indication of treatment of asymptomatic 4mm calyceal stone
a. pt with solitary kidney
b. women considering pregnancy
c. when the pt is a pilot
d. elderly pts
59. following stones difficult to fragment by ESWL except
a. uricacid
b. ca oxalate monohydrate
c. cystine
d. brushite
61. following lithotripsy has narrowest safety margin
a. EHL
b. LASER
c. Ballistic
d. Ultrasonic
62. infection stones commonly caused by all exept
a. Proteus
b. Serretia.
c. Klebsiella
d. Ecoli
63. after enterocystoplasty which of the following segment of bowel doesn’t cause metabolic acidosis
a. Stomach
b. Ileum
c. Jejunum
d. Sigmoid colon
64. best position for per rectal examination of prostate
a. supine
b. prone
c. left lateral
d. knee/elbow
65. 5-alpha reductase is not necessary for the development of
a. Acne
b. Hirsutism
c. BPH
d. Seminal vesicles
66. hormone neccessary for the development of external genitalia
a. DHT
b. Testosterone
c. LH
d. GnRH
67. which of the following is not a wolfian duct derivative
a. vas diference
b. epoopheron
c. prostatic utricle
d. gartner`s duct
68. which of the following not a indication of BPH surgery
a. PVR >150ml
b. Recurrent UTI
c. Bladder stones
d. Recurrent hematuria
69. during prostatectomy cavernosal nerves most likely to be damaged at
a. base
b. sides
c. apex
d. bladder neck
70. 5 bacteria / HPF equals to
a. 100/ml
b. 1000/ml
c. 10000/ml
d. 100000/ ml
71. how much % of early ca prostate patients have PSA values < 4ng/ml
a. 0
b. 15
c. 30
d. 60
72. after microsurgical inguinal dissection for varicocele the veins remained are
a. Pampiniform
b. Cremateric
c. Vasal
d. Testicular
73. a patient presented with LUTS, on examination there is 120g prostate and a 4cm bladder calculus. management of choice includes
a. open supra pubic prostatectomy
b. open retropubic prostatectomy
c. TURP
d. Perineal prostatectomy
74. false regarding ARPKD
a. due to mutation in chromosome 6
b. autosomal recessive mode of inheretence
c. presence of hepatic fibrosis
d. multiple cysts visualized on USG
75. most common malignancy arising from bladder diverticula
a. TCC
b. SCC
c. Adeno carcinoma
d. Sarcoma
76. a patient taking finasteride since 12months . now the PSA value is 7, what could be the PSA levels before starting this drug
a. 3.5
b. 14
c. 21
d. 49
77. horse shoe kidney most commonly associated with
a. Trisomy 18
b. Turner`s syndrome
c. MRHK syndrome
d. Tuberous sclerosis
78. most common histology of posterior urethral ca in females
a. SCC
b. TCC
c. Adeno ca
d. Verrucous ca
79. management of inguinal region in a patient with ca penis, T1G1 tumor and clinically negative nodes
a. ilioinguinal node dissection
b. modified inguinal node dissection
c. SLNB
d. Observation
80. verrucous ca of penis caused by which HPV types
a. 6, 11
b. 16, 18
c. 31, 33
d. 40, 45
81. FLOWER OF BOUQUET appearance on IVP is seen in
a. medullary cystic disease
b. multicystic dysplastic kidney
c. medullary sponge kidney
d. multilocular cyst
82. subcapsular hemorrhage with associated hypertension seen in
a. ASK-UPMARK kidney
b. LUMP kidney
c. `S` shape kidney
d. PAGE kidney
83. retrograde ejaculation commonly seen with
a. tamsulosin
b. terazocine
c. doxazocine
d. prazocine
84. on antenatal USG there is unilateral dilated system, management include
a. vesico-amniotic shunt
b. abortion
c. early CS
d. serial followup
85. false about PUV
a. type 1 is most common
b. type 2 most commonly causes obstruction
c. type 3 is due to incomplete dissolusion of urogenital membrane
d. type 4 is seen only in PB syndrome
86. false about VURD association
a. posterior urethral valves
b. vesico ureteral reflux
c. dysplastic kidney.
d. renal aplasia
87. all are components of PBS except
a. defective abdominal muscle
b. bilateral hydrouretero nephrosis
c. dilatation of bladder
d. presence of valves in posterior urethra
88. which of the following physical examination finding is important in patients with ambiguous genitalia
a. presence of hypospidias
b. length of penis
c. palpability of gonad
d. sacral dimple
89. hypospidiasis is rare in
a. male hermaphroditism.
b. CAH
c. pure gonadal dysgenisis
d. bilateral cryptorchidism
90. following suspected when there is transverse testicular ectopia
a. complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
b. peno scrotal disproportion
c. persistant mullarian ducts
d. 21 hydroxylase deficiency
91. chronic pyelonephitis is best diagnosed by
a. USG
b. IVP
c. CT scan abdomen
d. Tc 99 DMSA
92. androgen receptor gene located on
a. long arm of chromosome X
b. long arm of chromosomeY
c. short arm of chromosome X
d. short arm of chromosomeY
93. bulbo cavernous reflex can be elicited by all except
a. finger in the rectum
b. squeezing of glance
c. squeezing of clitoris
d. squeezing of scrotum
94. diagnosis of UTI is best made by
a. qualitative urine culture
b. quantitative urine culture
c. microscopic examination of urine for bacteria
d. clinical examination
95. bilateral renal agenesis, all are true except
a. incidence is more in males than females
b. complete ureteral atresia seen in 50% patients
c. abscent or hypoplastic bladder
d. abscent adrenal glands
96. most common type of megaureter
a. primary non obstructed
b. primary obstructed
c. secondary non obstructed
d. secondary obstructed
97. most common complication of TRUS biopsy
a. infection
b. bleeding per rectum
c. recto urethral fistula
d. hematospermia
[snip]. enterobacteraciae are
a. aerobic gram +ve
b. aerobic gram -ve
c. anaerobic gram +ve
d. anaerobic gram –ve
99. richest source of prostaglandins in the body
a. kidney
b. skeletal muscle
c. liver
d. seminal vesicles
100.following branch of renal artery is most variable in its origin
a. apical
b. middle
c. lower
d. posterior