I AM Matt 16:18

The Catholic idea, Peter is the rock the church is built upon, has some problems. One that has not been highlighted much is the 1st Person pronoun found in Matt 16:19 based upon the ABP translation interlinear.

1st person would mean it is talking about Christ instead of Peter.

The question is what copy of the Codex Vaticanus did he use, and was Vaticanus corrected.

Interlinears of the ABP uses the word 1473 which is 1st person. This could be a mistake or it could be true. OV in Greek is second person, but the APB interlinear does use 1473.

The ABP is from Codex Vaticanus yet it translates it 2nd person., the only other 4th century codex containing this verse is Codex Sinaiticus. All other manuscripts have it missing. There are some 5th century manuscripts that contain the 2nd person in Codex,

Matt 16:18 [Codex Ephraemi Syri Rescriptus (C04) (5th century)]

Καγω δε σοι λεγω· οτι συ ει Πετρος και επι ταυτη τη πετρα οικοδομησω μου την εκκλησιαν· και πυλαι αδου ου κατισχυσουσιν αυτης·

Matt 16:18 [Codex Bezae Cantabrigiensis (D05) (5th century)]53v

Καγω δε σοι λεγω· οτι συ ει Πετρος και επι ταυτην την πετραν οικοδομησω την εκκλησιαν μου· και πυλαι αδου ου κατισχυσουσιν αυτης

So, we have a choice between the 1st person words of ABP from Vaticanus,

The first person word "ego" is found in the KJV but not coded in the concordance so it can't be traced that way. Online concordances do allow it to be traced and the KJV always pronounces it 1st person. see

Matthew 8:9 (KJV_Strongs)

9 G1063For G2532 G1473I G1510am [G5748] G444a man G5259under G1849authority G2192, having [G5723] G4757soldiers G5259under G1683me G2532: and G3004I say [G5719] G5129to thisG4198man, Go [G5676] G2532, and G4198he goeth [G5736] G2532; and G243to another G2064, Come [G5736] G2532, and G2064he cometh [G5736] G2532; and G3450to my G1401servant G4160, Do[G5657] G5124this G2532, and G4160he doeth [G5719] it .

The word 1473 is found in the KJV and is never translated 2nd person, it is translated "I" in all cases. 31 times it appears in Matthew and inevery case is translated 1st person.

http://studybible.info/search/KJV_Strongs/G1473

The question being, why translate it 2nd person in the ABP, when it is 1st person in Vaticanus according to the ABP interlinear.. Modern versions coming from Vaticanus translate 1st person into 2nd person. It could be that the word could be 2nd person in some cases or with certain breath marks, but from what I have found it is often mis-translated 2nd person.

In the Old Testament it is often translated "Himself", as in David drawing his sword himself. If Consistent Matthew 16:18 could read when speaking to Peter, "Jesus said himself I am Peter."

Himself and I am are actually the same words.

So, there is a question as to how it should be translated.

The King James translates back into a 2nd person Greek pronoun. Of course, the KJV was translated from Latin and then back into Greek. Thus, it may be incorrect if the Latin was translated from changed manuscripts.. It has a 50/50 chance anyway. The latin may have been incorrect to reflect Catholic theory.

So, why would it matter? If first person the rock is Christ without any doubt. Consider the KJV 2nd person and the ABP 1st person (It is actually translated 2nd person like the KJV but is 1st person in Greek.)

KJV

ThatG3754 thouG4771 artG1488 Peter,G4074

The word thou is 2nd person in the corresponding manuscript. The word art matches person being 2nd person.

ABP

thatG3754 youG1473 areG1510.2.2 Peter,G*

Notice the two manuscripts use different greek words differeng in person. 4771 vs 1473 and 1488 vs 1510

Though ABP translating 2nd person "you" the Greek pronoun is actually 1st person and the word translated "are" matches being 1st person.

So it could and should be translated I Am, and also notice the word IT referencing the Church could be "Me". It is also 1st person and could reference Christ.

Did the translator of the ABP have acces to a different Vaticanus? I have actually seen a picture of Vaticanus with the 1st person pronoun. It has disappeared online it seems.

Mat 16:18 And IG2504 G1161 say unto you,G1473 G3004 thatG3754 IG1473 amG1510.2.2 Peter,G* andG2532 uponG1909 this,G3778 theG3588 rock,G4073 I will buildG3618 myG1473 G3588 assembly,G1577 andG2532 the gatesG4439 of HadesG86 shall notG3756 prevail againstG2729 it.G1473 (Could be me vs it)

Jesus could be saying I am the Petros of the church. "I am Petros" from Greek.

Jesus could be acknowledging what Peter said about Jesus in v17 is true, by acknowledging "I am" as you said.

Peter previously said Jesus is the Christ, the Son of the living God.

The 1st person pronouns should be reference to Jesus instead of Peter. "I am" acknowledges what Peter says of Jesus previously.

The word "am" in Greek means to exist as stated. It is translated AM predominately in the New Testament. 131 times of 146 it is translated AM.

εἰμί

eimi

i-mee'

First person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic): - am, have been, X it is I, was. See also G1488, G1498, G1511, G1527, G2258, G2071, G2070, G2075, G2076, G2771, G2468, G5600.

Total KJV occurrences: 146

Instead of "thou are Peter" it could be "I am" Peter. Peter could just be a continuation of personal address or Christ is saying I AM Petros. Either way, the 1st person I AM would be a reference to Christ.

"I am" can be followed by a personal address as when Peter said,

Luk_5:8 WhenG1161 SimonG4613 PeterG4074 sawG1492 it, he fell downG4363 at Jesus'G2424 knees,G1119 saying,G3004 DepartG1831 fromG575 me;G1700 forG3754 I amG1510 a sinfulG268 man,G435 O Lord.G2962

Jesus likewise could be saying "I Am" and addresses Peter.

Then Jesus says this is the Rock the Church is built upon. Not Peter, but the fact Jesus is God's Son. The confession Jesus makes that he is as Peter stated.

The Father reveals this to Peter, and then Jesus confirms by adding his testimony. "I am", it becomes a double witness, Jesus confirming openly what the Father revealed to Peter.

This isn't as awkward as one might suppose, and it is clear the words are 1st person in Vaticanus. Jesus uses 1st person in many places.

Luk 22:70 [3saidG2036 1AndG1161 2all],G3956 Then youG1473 G3767 areG1510.2.2 theG3588 sonG5207 G3588 of God?G2316 And heG3588 G1161 [2toG4314 3themG1473 1said],G5346 YouG1473 say it,G3004 forG3754 IG1473 am.G1510.2.1

First person is used when the speaker is speaking of himself. Vaticanus has Jesus speaking of himself by saying "I am".

Of course it has a 50/50 chance of being correct. There is no way for me to know at this time.

I have viewed Jesus as the Rock for multiple reasons, this just gives support to my beliefs.

This is similar to another verse and its use of the first person,

Mar 14:60 AndG2532 [3having risen upG450 1theG3588 2chief priest]G749 intoG1519 theG3588 midst,G3319 questionedG1905 G3588 Jesus,G* saying,G3004 Do you notG3756 answerG611 one thing ?G3762 What is it G5100 theseG3778 are bearing witness against you?G1473 G2649

Mar 14:61 And heG3588 G1161 kept silent,G4623 andG2532 not one thing G3762 did he answer.G611 AgainG3825 theG3588 chief priestG749 questionedG1905 him,G1473 andG2532 saysG3004 to him,G1473 Are youG1473 G1510.2.2 theG3588 Christ,G5547 theG3588 sonG5207 of theG3588 blessed?G2128

Mar 14:62 G3588 AndG1161 JesusG* said,G2036 IG1473 am,G1510.2.1 andG2532 you shall seeG3708 theG3588 sonG5207 G3588 of manG444 sittingG2521 onG1537 the rightG1188 of theG3588 power,G1411 andG2532 comingG2064 withG3326 theG3588 cloudsG3507 of theG3588 heaven.G3772

and as I mentioned above in Matthew 8:9.

Matthew 8:9 (KJV_Strongs)

The first person acknowledges the previous question or statement. Jesus quite obviously uses it this way in Mark 14:60..

Also, Catholics have pretty much used Vaticanus to change multiple Bible verses into their favor, but would be awkward if they rejected Vaticanus when using it for Matthew 16:18.

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