Yahshua: Did He Pre-exist?

DISCLAIMER: As mentioned on my other websites and pages, I do not espouse to all of the beliefs expressed on the reciprocal links I have provided here. My websites are a venture into the pros and cons of diverse aspects of religious beliefs. I leave it completely up to each individual to decide what is truth and what is not. I am also not responsible for any cost or donation purchases that are made through these links. These reciprocal links are purely for educational and research purposes only. Please view these links at your own discretion.

YAHSHUA: DID HE PRE-EXIST?

An Explanation Of Our Views

By Voy Wilks

10/23/90

Did the Messiah pre-exist in some form before he was conceived of Mary, the Jewish woman? Many people believe he did, while many believe he did not. Most if not all of these people seem to rely on the same source of information - the Bible, so why isn't there complete agreement, since all read from the same source? There are several reasons for non-conformity, some of which are as follows:

o Background. A person whose church teaches the pre-existence is not likely to question whether this is true or false. Instead, it is accepted as fact. This is true of most religious views. Generally, it is only those doctrines which seem to be "new" which are examined to determine if they are true or false.

o Bias. A preference for or against a doctrine can sometimes prevent a correct analysis of Scripture. This can be caused by a person's background, or by some other consideration. Example: Anti Semitism (hatred of the Jews) can prevent a correct understanding of which is the true day of worship

o Failure. Failure, for whatever reason, to understand the message in Scripture.

o Translation. There is the possibility, in some cases, that the religious views of the translators have influenced their translation.

There are a number of Scriptures which seem to promote the pre-existence of the Messiah. Surely the most powerful of these is Hebrews 1:2.

Hebrews 1:1 & 2

"In many and various ways Yahweh spoke of old to our fathers by the prophets; but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, through whom also he created the world" (RSV).

This indicates the heavenly Father is supreme.

(1) As most English versions read, he authorized the Son, Yahshua, to do the actual work in creating the heavens and the earth and all things in them.

(2) Many believe that Yahshua, in a pre-existent state, was Yahweh's spokesman; a Son spoke for him and did Yahweh's work for him, such as creating the world.

If either of the statements is true - if Yahshua spoke the world into existence - then certainly the Messiah existed before the world existed. Let us now examine Hebrews 1:1,2.

What is a spokesman? "One who speaks in the name and on behalf of another or others" (Readers Digest Great Encyclopedic Dictionary, 1975).

Reviewing Heb 1:1 we see that Yahshua was not Yahweh's spokesman. Instead, the prophets were his spokesmen. Yahweh "spoke to our fathers by the prophets." Therefore, even if Yahshua pre-existed, he was not the spokesman who contacted "our fathers." It was, evidently, only in "these last days" that Yahweh "spoke to us by his Son" (Heb 1:1; 1 Pet. 1:20).

Yahshua the Heir

"... but in these last days he has spoken to us by a Son, whom he appointed HEIR OF ALL THINGS, ..." (Heb. 1:2).

What does this say? Yahweh appointed his Son (Yahshua) to be his heir - to inherit "all things." Please keep in mind: A son does not inherit property which he, himself, has worked for. No. He owns that already. This indicates that Yahshua did not, after all, create the world, since he is the heir to his Father's property. Does this agree with other Scriptures? Indeed, yes. Please note the following evidence:

"Hear another parable. There was a householder who planted a vineyard, and set a hedge about it, and dug a winepress in it, and built a tower, and let it out to tenants, and went into a far country. When the season of fruit drew near.he sent his servants to the tenants, to get his fruit; and the tenants took his servants and beat one, killed another and stoned another. Again he sent other servants, more than the first; and they did the same to them. AFTERWARD, he SENT HIS SON to them, saying, they will respect my son. But when the tenants saw the son they said to themselves, This is the heir; come, let us kill him and have his INHERITANCE. And they took him and cast him out of the vineyard, and killed him. When therefore the owner of the vineyard comes, what will he do to those tenants?" (Mt 21:33-40 Mk. 12:1-7; Lk. 20:9-16).

The following points are clear:

o The Father (Yahweh) was the householder.

o The Father (Yahweh) planted the vineyard.

o The Father (Yahweh) set the hedge, built the tower, and dug the winepress.

o The Father (Yahweh) made the contract with the tenants; that is Israel (Isa. 5:1-7; Ps. 80:8-19).

o The Father (Yahweh) sent his servants (the prophets).

o The Father (Yahweh) sent his son (Yahshua).

o The son (Yahshua) was the heir of his Father's property (the vineyard with all its improvements).

o The Son (Yahshua) was cast out and killed.

Obviously, Yahshua is both the Son and the Heir; not the owner, nor the householder. True, this is a parable, but in order to teach the truth, a parable must agree with prevailing conditions. Other Scriptures - Other Scriptures which are not parables - agree with Hebrews 1:2 that Yahshua is the heir of Father Yahweh's property.

"For all who are led by the spirit of Yahweh are sons of Yahweh. ... and if children, then heirs, heirs of Yahweh and FELLOW HEIRS WITH the Messiah, ..." (Rom. 8:14,17).

"... for in Messiah Yahshua you are all sons of Yahweh, through faith. For as many as were baptized into the Messiah have put on the Messiah. ... And if you are the Messiah's, then you are Abraham's offspring, heirs according to the promise" (Gal. 3:26,27,29). So through Yahweh you are no longer a slave but a son and if a son then an heir" (Gal. 4:7).

We inherit the promise made to Abraham: the kingdom (the world, the vineyard), and everlasting life, because Yahshua is the chief heir. By baptism in his name we, and the ancients, become fellow heirs with the Messiah (Gal. 3:16-19; Titus 3:7; Heb 11:7-10; Acts 20:32; 7:5,6; Rom. 4:13; Eph. 1:3-23; 1 Peter 1:3,4; Rev. 21:5-7).

Remember the mother of James and John? She asked the Savior to grant that her two sons will set, one on Yahshua's right and one on his left in the Kingdom of Yahweh. Yahshua's reply: (the heavenly Father), being the Creator, is the owner of all, while Yahshua (his Son) is the heir.

"I will tell of the decrees of Yahweh: He said to me, 'You are my son, today I [Yahweh] have begotten you. Ask of me and I will make the nations your heritage, and the ends of the earth your possession" (Ps. 2:7-9; Heb. 5:5).

Again, this shows Yahweh as both Father and Creator and Yahshua as both Son and the Heir. Ephesians 1:3-23 also shows Yahweh to be the Creator, the Father, and the owner of the inheritance. One day Yahshua will receive this inheritance, and make us (the saints, (Jew and Gentile) joint heirs with himself. Again, the following quotation reveals Yahweh as the provider and owner of the inheritance. Yahshua extends to us a share as joint heirs.

"For every house is built by someone, but he that built all things is Yahweh" (Heb. 3:4 Bethel Edition).

These Scriptures are more than enough to confirm Yahweh as Creator and Yahshua his Son will one day inherit his Father's property - his Father's creation.

By Whom He Made The Worlds

"Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things,

BY WHOM also he made the worlds; ..." (Heb. 1:2 KJV). The RSV reads, "...through whom he created the world."

This very clearly states the world was created By the Son of Yahweh. This Son is Yahshua, of course. However, Scriptural evidence noted above indicates Yahweh did the creating, not Yahshua. Are we to believe the apostles and the Gospel writers wrote two ways, sometimes reporting that Yahweh is Creator, and at other times reporting that his Son is Creator? Indeed no.

More than 100 Scriptures state clearly that Yahweh is Creator and Maker of heaven and earth (Ex. 20:11). Some of these indicate that no other deity exists (Isa. 44:6). No other deity helped him in his creating acts (Neh. 9:6). Except for the angels, he was alone in the creation (Isa. 45:5-18). These are stated clearly - as clearly as Hebrews 1:2 states that Yahshua made the world."

What shall we do? Do we cancel (erase, throw out) more than 100 Scriptures so that we can accept Hebrews 1:2 instead? Since this Scripture does not in most English versions agree with the 100, we should carefully examine Hebrews 1:2 and, hopefully, discover why it does not agree.

*The Word "By"

Yahweh created the world "by" (through) the Son (Heb. 1:2 KJV). The Diaglott says Yahweh created the world "on account of" the Son. Anyone of the three ("by," "through," or "on account of") is, technically, a correct translation of the Greek word Di' or Dia. Dia is in the KJV translated several ways, but usually is translated as follows:

By - 243 times; through - 100 times; for - 106 times; because - 24 times;because of - 29 times; for the sake of - 32 times; etc.

The King's Men did not translate the WORD di' incorrectly in Heb. 1:2. By or through is a correct translation of the WORD, but ONLY IF THE MESSAGE in the sentence agrees, or allows it. But alas, in this case, the message of the sentence will not allow this translation.

Reason #1. Heb 1:2a reveals Yahshua to be the heir of what was created.

Reason #2. More than 100 Scriptures show it was Yahweh (not Yahshua) who created the heavens and the earth. Heb. 1:2 must agree with the 100 other Scriptures. For a list of these [ask for] our paper, "Who Is the Creator?"

For these reasons, the sentence in Heb. 1:2b must have

originally read like the Diaglott reads today, Yahweh "... in the last of these days spoke to us by a Son, whom he appointed heir of all things, ON ACCOUNT OF whom also he constituted the ages; ..."

Another acceptable translation would be, "... a Son, FOR whom he created the world."

Many times the King James Version, as well as more modern versions, translate dia as "for," "because of," "therefore" (meaning "for this reason"). For a more detailed layout of the word di' (dia), [see] for our [study], "Hebrews 1:2 - Berry."

This is not to say the King's Men purposely mistranslated, nor is this to say they were dishonest. Not at all. On the contrary, they no doubt delivered what they believed to be the correct translation of Heb. 1:2. We must realize, however, that all of the King's Men believed the doctrine of the Trinity (one is three, and three are one). Believing this, they saw no contradiction between this Scripture (as they translated it) and the 100 Scriptures which show that Yahweh the Father is truly and personally the Creator of the heavens and the earth.

There are at least two other Scriptures in which di' should have been translated for, or on account of. These are Col. 1:16-17 and John 1:10. Let us review these Scriptures, then return to our study in the book of Hebrews.

Colossians 1:16,17

"For by him [*Yahshua] were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, ... all things were created by him and for him" (Col. 1:16,17 KJV).

* Webmasters note: I believe that this also could be in reference to Father Yahweh and not to His son Yahshua. The same I believe can also apply in Yahchanan [John] 1:3.

Just as in Heb. 1:2, di' can be translated for, and on account of, as well as by or through. As indicated above, either way, is technically correct for this WORD. However, the MESSAGE in this text must decide which is the proper translation. The same is true of the Greek word en (= the English in).

Since Yahweh is the Creator (Heb. 3:4; Ex. 20:11; Mt. 21:33; Mk. 12:7; Lk. 20:14), and Yahshua is the heir, then Col. 1:16,17 SHOULD TELL THE SAME STORY. Dozens of Scriptures in both Testaments tell us plainly that Yahweh is the Creator, and there is no other El but him. He alone is the only true El, Eloah, Elohim, and Creator.

Yahshua and the New Testament writers proved everything by Old Testament Scriptures, therefore New Testament Scriptures should (and originally did) agree with Old Testament Scriptures. The New Testament Scriptures are based on the older ones. This being true, it seems that a more exact reading of Col. 1:16,17, and one which is agreeable to the Greek text, is as follows:

"For in [en = in, to, unto, as well as by] he were all things created, that are in [en] heaven, and that are on earth, ... all things were created on account of [di'] him and for him."

John 1:10

"He [the Light, Yahshua] was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not" (KJV).

As we have discovered above, to agree with other Scriptures, and with the context of the message, a more acceptable reading is as follows:

"He was in the world and the world was made for {di'} [on account of, because of] him, and the world knew him not."

Look back to the book of Hebrews.

Hebrews 1:8-10

"But unto the Son he sayeth, Thy throne, O G-d, is forever and ever; a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore G-d, even thy G-d, hath anointed thee with the oil of gladness above thy fellows. And thou, L-rd, in the beginning, hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the work of thy hands" (KJV).

As the KJV and the RSV read, this certainly indicates the Son (Yahshua) is the Creator of heaven and earth, which means he not only existed at the time of creation but was also Deity. Once again, however, the translators evidently did not grasp the true message because they were sold on the doctrine of the Trinity. This translation will not stand the test of other Scriptures. The Moffatt Translation reads as follows:

"He [Yahweh, verse 5] says of the Son, 'G-d [the Father, Yahweh] is thy throne for ever and ever, thy royal septre is the septre of equity: thou [the Son] hast loved justice and hated lawlessness, therefore G-d, the G-d, has consecrated thee with the oil of rejoicing beyond thy comrades' - and, 'Thou [Yahweh] didst found the earth at the beginning, O L-rd [Yahweh], and the heavens are the work of thy hands; ...'" (Heb. 1:8-10, Moffatt).

Two quotations from the Psalms are included in these verses.

"Your divine throne endures forever and ever. Your royal sceptre is a sceptre of equity; you love righteousness and hate wickedness. Therefore G-d, your G-d has anointed you with the oil of gladness above thy fellows; ..." (Ps. 45:6,7 RSV). It is interesting to read the footnote in the RSV: "Your throne is a throne of God, ..." (verse 6). Now for the other quotation.

"Of Old thou (Yahweh, Verses 1, 12, 18] didst lay the foundation of the earth and the heavens are the work of they hands. They [the heavens and the earth] will perish, but thou dost endure; they will all wear out like a garment. Thou changest them like raiment, and they pass away; but thou [Yahweh] art the same, and thy years have no end" (Ps. 102:25-27 RSV).

As indicated above [with brackets], these verses speak of Yahweh as Creator - not Yahshua. Yahshua's years did, indeed, come to an end. Not so those of the Father, Yahweh. His years never end. He lives forever; past; present, and future. Usually overlooked are the following points:

Hebrews Chapter Two

o The writer of the letter of Hebrews was not only concerned about the creation of the past. He also spoke "of the world to come" - the inheritance of the Saints which is yet future (Heb. 2:5).

o Man (mankind) was for a little while made a little lower than the angels (Heb. 2:6,7; Ps. 8:4-8). Yahshua too (the same as other men, was for a little while made lower than the angels (Heb. 2:9).

o Everything was originally put in subjection to mankind except the plan of salvation, which was only later developed through Yahshua, the Messiah (Heb. 2:8,9).

o Yahshua "tasted death" for everyone, thus witnessing the grace of Yahweh toward all men (Heb. 2:9).

o "For it was fitting that he [Yahweh], for whom and by whom all things exist, in bringing many sons to glory, should make [

Yahshua] the pioneer of their salvation perfect through suffering. For he [Yahshua] who sanctifies and those who are sanctified have all ONE ORIGIN. That is why he [Yahshua] is not ashamed to call them brethren, saying, I will proclaim thy name [Yahweh's name] to my brethren, in the midst of the congregation I will praise thee" (Heb. 2:10-12; Ps. 22:22 RSV).

Do I detect here a statement showing that Yahshua had the same origin as other men? I believe so. About half of the English versions read this way. The word "origin" is not in Greek but is implied evidently. This agrees with other statements made in the verses below.

o The children (mankind) share in flesh and blood. Yahshua is likewise of the same nature. This was so he could free his brethren who through fear of death were (are) in lifelong bondage (Heb. 2:14,15).

o It is not with angels that Yahweh is concerned, but with the descendants of Abraham, therefore he (Yahshua) had to be made like his brethren IN EVERY RESPECT so that he might become a merciful high priest (Heb. 2:16,17). Another Scripture speaking of Yahshua, reveals that the spiritual body does not come first (as in a pre-existence). No. The PHYSICAL body comes FIRST, and only later comes the SPIRITUAL body (1 Cor. 15:45,46).

o He was tempted in everything as we are (Heb. 2:18). If Yahshua had been Deity while on earth, he would have had no temptations.

Yahshua was even more faithful in Yahweh's house than Moses was. Every house has a builder. The builder of all things is Yahweh (Heb.3:1-6). To understand all of the book of Hebrews requires careful study.

The one who wrote it admits it is difficult to understand (Heb. 5:11).

Did Yahshua Pre-exist As An Angel?

"For to what angel did Yahweh say, 'Thou art my Son, today I have begotten thee?'" (Heb. 1:5).

The answer is obvious, never at any time, has Yahweh ever said to an angel, "You are my son." This is emphatically stated, not only here, but in verse 13 as well, "But to what angel has He [Yahweh] ever said, 'Sit at my right hand till I make thy enemies a stool for thy feet?'"

"For Yahweh never said to an angel, Thou art my Son; today I have begotten thee, ..." (Heb. 1:5, New English Bible).

Review

If Yahshua pre-existed, he would have been a spirit being. This creates a problem, however, as a spiritual being cannot die. It is an impossibility (Lk. 20:30-35; Deut. 32:40). Scriptures tell us Yahshua was flesh as we are flesh (2 Jn. 7). He had the

same origin as his brethren (Heb 2:12 RSV). He really and truly died - ceased to live (Heb. 2:14; Acts 2:23; Eph. 1:20).

This is powerful evidence that Yahshua did not pre-exist; that he did not live in a former life." To accept the pre-existence of Yahshua is to accept reincarnation; a superstition of the heathen which is unacceptable to our heavenly Father.

o Since Yahweh is the Creator and Yahshua is the heir of that which is created;

o Since the physical body comes first and only later the spiritual body;

o Since a Spiritual body cannot die;

o Since Yahshua was never an angel;

o Since Yahshua has the same origin as his brethren;

o Since Yahshua was subject to death;

It seems reasonable to believe that Yahshua pre-existed neither

oo Before the foundation of the world, nor

oo Before his conception within Mary.

He did exist in Yahweh's glorious PLAN from before the foundation of the world (Eph. 1:5,9-11; John 17:24 RSV).

* NOTE:

THAT LITTLE WORD “DIA”

“BY Yeshua were all things created,” is what “Three Creation Scriptures”

(Colossians 1:16, Ephesians 3:9, Hebrews 1:2) seem to be saying.

BY is translated from the Greek dia (#1223) which according to Strong’s Dictionary

is a primitive preposition denoting the channel of an act. Dia may be translated as “after, always,

among, at to avoid, BECAUSE OF, briefly, BY, FOR, from, in, by reason of, that,

though.”

One way to decide which word to use for dia is to examine the context of the scripture

in which it is used. Why was BY chosen by the translators of some versions instead of FOR?

Trinitarian translators would have their reasons; others would have their reasons. Context

must decide which is correct.

[PDF] SOURCE

Also see:

Does Isaiah 9:6 Call Yahshua "God"?

Before Abraham was, I am

John 8:58 is one of the most misused verses of the Bible. Because Jesus in that verse says “Before Abraham was, I am,” two implications, one unnecessary, and the other false, are drawn from that verse. The unnecessary implication is that since Jesus existed before Abraham that means he existed always. This is a preconceived notion that people force into the text. “Before Abraham” does not mean “always”. Melchizedek in the Bible is shown to have existed before Abraham (Hebrews 7:3). Does that mean that Melchezidek is God? Obviously, we cannot take a created being as God.

The false implication is that Jesus by saying “I am” was uttering God’s name which God declared to Moses in Exodus 3:14-15.

The Bible is confusing on this point because it gives three versions of God’s calling Moses, and the three versions do not agree with each other. The best that can be said is that the name of God announced there is Yahweh. Compare the three versions below:

1. The Yahwist version (Exod 6:28 – 7:7) says nothing about the name of God being revealed because for the Yahwist editors the name Yahweh was already known among the Israelites. They say that this name was being used since the time of Enosh, the grandson of Adam (Genesis 4:26).

2. The priestly version (Exod 6:2-13) contradicts this by saying that this name was not known before (Exod 6:2). God’s command to Moses here is

So say to the Israelites, “I am Yahweh . . .” (Exod 6:6),

and Moses repeated this to them (6:9).

3. But in the Elohist version (Exod 3:13-22) God’s instruction to Moses is different:

This is what you are to say to the Israelites. “I am has sent me to you” (Exod 3:15).

It would appear from this that God’s name is “I am,” but it is clear upon a careful study that in this passage the Elohist scribes substituted “I am” for “Yahweh” in the same instruction given in (Exod 6:6).

Even if God really did announce his name to be “I am” as in Exodus, chapter 3, verse 15, this still does not prove that Jesus applied the name “I am” to himself. Jesus never said his name is “I am”. He is quoted as saying “Before Abraham was I am” (John 8:58). If “I am” is Jesus’ name, then we should be able to replace the “I am” in this passage with “Jesus,” since these are both names of Jesus. The passage would then read as follows: “Before Abraham was, Jesus.” This, of course, makes no sense because the idea that Jesus called himself “I am” is not there in the text, but it is someone’s own interpretation forced into the text. Notice that we would have no difficulty replacing the “I am” in Exodus 3:15 with either “God” or “Yahweh”, as follows:

This is what you are to say to the Israelites. “God has sent me to you” (Exod 3:15).

This is what you are to say to the Israelites. “Yahweh has sent me to you” (Exod 3:15).

Another point worth paying attention to is this: the writer of the fourth gospel never believed Jesus to be God. This proves that Jesus never said he is God. Otherwise, how could it be possible that the author of the fourth gospel never knew it? He believed that the Father is the only true God and that Jesus is the Christ and messenger of God (see John 17:3).

Furthermore, a distinction which is present in the Greek version of the Bible is lost from the English versions. In the Septuagint Greek version of the Old Testament, the phrase translated “I am” is “ho on” in the Greek. If the author of the fourth Gospel wanted to show his readers that Jesus repeated the phrase, he would no doubt have quoted Jesus as saying, “Before Abraham was, on.” But he did not. Instead, he quoted Jesus as saying, “Before Abraham was, ego eimi.” Readers of his Greek manuscript, then, would have seen that Jesus’ statement in John 8:58 is different from God’s statement in Exodus 3:15. And this, of course, is what the author of the fourth Gospel intended.

Furthermore, the Syriac Peshitta version of the Bible, one of the old versions of the Bible, reads in John 8:58, “Before Abraham was, I was.” Was this changed from what the author wrote? How can we know? Suppose this was the original phrase, then those who rest their case on the common rendering will be disappointed on the Day of Judgement. Why not rest our case on a much more plain verse of the Bible — one in which Jesus clearly differentiates between himself and God? Take this one for example, where Jesus says to his enemies:

You are determined to kill me, a man who has told you the truth that I heard from God” (John 8:31).

Who is Jesus then? A man who told the truth which he heard from God. In other words, he was a messenger of God. When a clear statement like this is issued from the lips of Jesus, why wrangle with the passages that are not so clear, and try to twist them to mean the opposite of what Jesus has been saying in other clear verses all along?

Anyone who wishes to convince himself/herself that Jesus is God should look for clear evidence in the Bible to show that Jesus is God. But the clear evidence is to the contrary. The Bible teaches again and again that Jesus is not God, but a Servant of God (e.g. Matthew 12:18).

In the very next chapter of John, chapter 9, v.35, Jesus declares that he is the son of man (RSV). And anyone who knows the Bible as the Israelites to whom Jesus spoke will know that a son of man cannot be God. The Bible declares that God is neither a man nor a son of man (Numbers 23:19).

How can he be called clean that is born of a woman? Behold even the moon, and it shineth not; yea, the stars are not pure in his sight. How much less man, that is a worm? and the son of man, which is a worm? (Job 25:4-6)

SOURCE [ARCHIVED} http://www3.sympatico.ca/shabir.ally/new_page_27.htm

I AM [Archived] Angelfire

The Trinity Delusion or The Preexistence of Jesus Delusion Micah 5:2

Yeshua Messiah – The “Firstborn” http://www.hope-of-israel.org/firstborn.html

Pre-Existence and the Messiah! http://www.hope-of-israel.org/prechrist.html

Pre-Existence in the Hebrew Mind http://www.hope-of-israel.org/hebrew.html

12 Proofs the Messiah DID NOT Pre-exist! http://www.hope-of-israel.org/12Proof2.html

Who, Really, Was the Father of the Messiah? http://www.hope-of-israel.org/joseph

Just Who or What Is the "Antichrist"? http://hope-of-israel.org/whoanti.html

When Did God’s Son come into Existence? THE BACKGROUND TO THE IDEA OF PRE-EXISTENCE by Ray Faircloth

[PDF] Did Jesus Preexist as “the Angel of the LORD”? by Servetus the Evangelical

Jesus Appeared in Another Form? ~ What does this mean?

"Is Yahshua "The Light?"
By J. Dean

Is Yahshua Messiah the "Light" of which was spoken in the Gospel of John, or is this created "light" a reference to God's plan to save man through a Messiah, or did he "pre-exist" as GOD from the VERY BEGINNING in Genesis? If Yahshua is NOT the "Light" than WHAT IS?

Yahweh DOES NOT RECON TIME THE SAME WAY WE DO! Our days are measured by "the evening and the morning" which are dependant upon the rotation of the earth, or more specifically marked by the rising and setting of the sun. HOWEVER, if you read Genesis 1: 14 -19 you see that the sun, the moon, and the stars were NOT CREATED UNTIL THE FOURTH DAY.

GENESIS 1: 14-19

"14 And Yahweh said, let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for signs, and for seasons, and for days, and years:

15 And let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth: and it was so.

16 And Yahweh made two great lights; the greater light to rule the day, and the lesser light to rule the night: he made the stars also.

17 And Yahweh set them in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth.

18 And to rule over the day and over the night, and to divide the light from the darkness: and Yahweh saw that good.

19 and the evening and the morning were the fourth day."

If the sun and moon weren't created until the fourth day, how were "the evening and the morning" measured on the FIRST THREE DAYS. The answer is obvious. They were measured by some other means! Yahweh measures days and evenings using some other calculator, and, if we are to believe the letter of Peter, "a day is with Yahweh as a thousand years!" Yet, as we see, Yahweh FIRST names the DAY and NIGHT in verse 5 of Genesis 1:

GENESIS 1: 5

"And Yahweh called the light Day, and the darkness he called Night. And the evening and the morning were the FIRST DAY."

So what light is Yahweh calling "day?"

GENESIS 1: 3-4

"3 And Yahweh said, Let there be light: and there was light.

4 And Yahweh saw the light that was good and Yahweh divided the light from the darkness."

This Light that was created first was the light by which the evening and the morning were being measured, but what IS this light? If we are to believe the Gospel of John, this LIGHT is the RIGHTEOUSNESS we receive of YAHWEH through comprehension of the TRUTH! THE LIGHT of SPIRITUAL REVELATION!

John 1: 1-10

"1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Yahweh, and the Word is Yahweh.

2 The same was in the beginning with Yahweh.

3 All things were made by Him; and without Him was not any thing made that was made,

4 In him was life; and the life was the LIGHT OF MEN.

5 And the LIGHT SHINED in darkness; and the darkness abode it not.

6 There was a man sent from Yahweh, whose name is John.

7 The same came a witness, to bear witness of the Light, that all through him might believe.

8 He was not that Light, but came to bear witness of the Light.

9 The true Light, which lights every man that comes into the world."

That the LIGHT is the CLEAR LIGHT OF TRUTH which shines on all men, however NOT ALL MEN ABIDE THAT TRUTH!

Some have tried to make MUCH MORE OF THESE VERSES than ought to be made, saying that Yahshua IS that light and that he existed in the beginning, and is IN FACT YAHWEH! NOTHING IN THESE VERSES REMOTELY SUGGESTS THAT on their own. NOT UNTIL THE THOUGHT is PUT THERE or SUGGESTED by someone do you read these verses that way!

The way some have TRANSLATED Verses 1 through 9, it SEEMS to say that YAHSHUA is IN FACT the WORD that was WITH GOD in the BEGINNING AND WAS GOD, especially when it says in verse 3 that "all things were made by him;"

Many think it's saying that the Word is a PERSON, and all things were made by HIM," they cross reference this with "Yahweh SAID," let there be light! PEOPLE, there IS NO EVIDENCE that verse 3 is saying THE WORD was HIM that created the world! NONE! This is a TEACHING MADE OF STRAW! Verse 3 can JUST AS EASILY be taken to mean that "all things were made by Yahweh!" FURTHERMORE, WITHOUT MORE SCRIPTURAL EVIDENCE to back them up they are WAY OFF IN LEFT FIELD thinking that THE WORD IS NOW BEING DESCRIBED AS A SEPARATE PERSON! The ONLY phrase they have to cling to is in verse 1 when it says "the Word was WITH God." Yet, this does NOT necessarily MEAN that Yahweh and the Word are the SEPARATE YET THE SAME PERSON!

It doesn't HAVE to mean that the WORD is a PERSON at all! It could JUST AS EASILY mean that before creation the ONLY one who spoke a WORD is Yahweh, in fact at the beginning there was only ONE WORD, the word of YAHWEH! So as it was in the beginning so is it today, there is ONLY ONE WORD OF TRUTH, Yahweh's WORD!

Much of the MISTRANSLATION of the FIRST CHAPTER of JOHN'S GOSPEL can be attributed SIMPLY to the WAY THEY WERE BROKEN UP IN VERSES by the translators! For example, look at verses 2 and 3! When you put them together, unbroken you see that John is here talking about YAHWEH as the CREATOR, and not TALKING ABOUT THE WORD as a CREATOR!

"The same (the word) was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; (GOD) and without him (GOD) was not any thing made that was made."

For this reason, whenever you see a ONE LINE VERSE in the BIBLE, you should be suspicious as to why they chose to take ONE SENTENCE, or ONE PHRASE, and set it apart from the others in a separate verse! This is one of the secrets to catching the "BIAS" that is STRUNG througout modern translations! Let's look at another example!

John 1: 10- 14

"10 He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not,

11 He came unto his own, and his own received him not.

12 But as many as received him, to them gave he the power to become the sons of Yahweh, to them that believe on his name:

13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man but of Yahweh.

14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelled among us, ( and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth."

Let's take these verses one at a time.

VERSE 10: It says that "he was in the world," however if you read again verses 1 through 9 there are two HE'S mentioned. There's HE that is Yahweh, there's HE that was John. THAT'S IT! So in verse 10 it says "HE" meaning "YAHWEH" was in the world and the world "KNEW HIM NOT." Yahweh had been in this world from the DAYS OF THE GARDEN! He walked with ADAM and EVE there, and he SPOKE WITH ABRAHAM, ISAAC, and JACOB, and with MOSES, and with DAVID and SOLOMON, and with the PROPHETS, and had been IN THE WORLD all along but the WORLD KNEW HIM NOT, only a select chosen few!
Keep in mind that John is here starting at the beginning, he's speaking of times before Yahshua was born. He hasn't told of the birth of Messiah yet in the story! This is critical to understanding the first chapter! When John speaks of "he," John is speaking of Yahweh only!
Yahshua isn't even in the picture yet! The only way you can insert the person of Yahshua into the story so far, is if you already have a preconceived notion of the trinity, and that Yahshua existed with God and as God from the beginning. You must already believe this, before you read the chapter, in order to make the first part of the chapter to be talking about Messiah! As we can see, the translators didn't have to change a word of the text to "taint" it with their doctrines.
Simply by breaking them up into verse in the right way is all that is needed.
If you put aside those preconceived notions and read the chapter without them you begin to see that the one mentioned here is Yahweh alone, He who created the world. By himself! Speaking the only word of truth, and creating the world!
- VERSE 11: The "HE" in this verse is also talking about Yahweh. He came unto his own people, over and over again, as recorded in the Tanakh.
- VERSE 12: Again the "him" at the beginning of this verse is Yahweh. Where it says "as many as received him," it's saying "as many as received Yahweh," to them gave he "power to become the sons of God." This sets the stage for the writer to begin talking about Messiah, it's a "lead in." Verse 12 is saying that to as many as received Yahweh were given a gift, the Holy Spirit, who would make them sons of God! Verse 12 is still talking about Yahweh (God) when it says "he and him." In the tail end of verse 12 it says "even to them that believe on his name." Who's name? Yahweh's name.
It is unfortunate where the translators chose to break and start a new verse here, for, with verse 12 ending where it does, one might think that it is referring to the power, which is the Holy Spirit, when it says "which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh." Yet, it is not talking about the power, when it says "which came" nor is it talking about Yahshua there either, as we will soon see.
Just ask yourself, how can you say of a man who was born in flesh and blood body, "who was born, not of blood?" The flesh and blood man must then be "born of Spirit." Messiah had some sort of blood, unless he just appeared on earth magically. If he was born in a flesh and blood body, he was born "of blood."
If you realize that the original text was NOT WRITTEN in verses, you understand that, even though verse 12 begins talking about YAHWEH, it ENDS talking about "them that believe on Yahweh's name!" US! In other words WE are "them that were born not of the will of man, but of Yahweh," when we believe upon his name! "No man comes to the Father lest the Father draw him," and "flesh and blood cannot reveal the SON to man, only the Father in heaven." So, therefore, when we believe upon HIS NAME, we are "born of the Father."
VERSE 13: "Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of Yahweh."
The word "were" is used and not "was!" It's talking about more than one person being born "not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh!" Some who interpret this to be a reference to the power which comes by Yahshua are wrong, Read verses 12 and 13, eliminate the break in verses added by the translators, and put the verses together and you begin to understand what it really said!
LET'S RE-READ VERSES 12 and 13, and put them together to understand what I'm getting at here!
"But as many as received him (Yahweh) to them gave he power to become the sons of Yahweh, (the power which comes by Yahshua) even to them that believe on his name, which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God (Believers)."
Verses 12 and 13 DEFINATELY take on NEW MEANING when read together. It says simply that as many as receive Yahweh are given the power to become the sons of God, AND when they believe on Yahweh, they are "born of Yahweh."
VERSE 14: This verse simply says that the Word became FLESH and dwelt among us! If you understand what the FIRST PART of the chapter says, you now understand that the WORD is NOT a PERSON! The Word is the TRUTH, and since Yahshua YIELDED HIMSELF to the Word of Truth, he became a LIVING EXAMPLE of that truth, so that it can be said "THE WORD WAS MADE FLESH!"

So you see, there's no HIDDEN MYSTERY ABOUT THE DUALITY or the TRIALITY OF GOD buried in this chapter. YOU HAVE TO MAKE IT SO! There are NO OTHER VERSES in scripture that back up an interpretation of THE WORD as a person, or that makes Yahshua the SAME person as Yahweh. Such a belief in a TRIUNE GOD are based PURELY UPON preconceived NOTIONS (and not upon the scriptures). Those preconceived ideas, when INSERTED INTO SCRIPTURE, TAINT THE interpretation of the chapter. AS I have shown, the CHAPTER DOES NOT HAVE to be interpreted that way, and in fact, logically CANNOT BE TAKEN THAT WAY, without discarding the ENTIRE scriptural record, which testifies that there is but ONE GOD and no other!

The Light created in verse 5 of Genesis, THE WORD OF TRUTH, is the SPIRITUAL LIGHT BY WHICH YAHWEH measures the evening and the morning, and NOT the physical Light of EVENING AND MORNING! That Spiritual Light being "The Plan of Salvation," as established in the "Mind of Yahweh" at the foundation (beginning) of creation. This has VERY FAR REACHING implications! If you make YAHSHUA the LIGHT, and try to say that HE IS ONE AND THE SAME AS YAHWEH, you find yourself in a TOTAL QUANDARY because the LIGHT in the beginning WAS CREATED when Yahweh said "LET THERE BE LIGHT!" Thus, if YAHSHUA HIMSELF IS THE LIGHT, as they contest, they then destroy their own beliefs by making him a PART OF THE CREATION instead of THE CREATOR! They are just SIMPLY ALL MIXED UP ABOUT THIS, there can be no doubt!

Shalom J. Dean

Shalom for now

J. Dean

Page updated

Google Sites

Report abuse