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Jesus saying, "Before Abraham" is in reference to his saying that he is greater than or has predominance over Abraham is in answer to the Sanhedrin's question, "Are you greater than our father Abraham?" He was not saying that he existed before Abraham as some modern translations suggest.

“In response to a heated debate over his identity, Jesus declares: “Before Abraham was, I am” (John 8:58). Essentially, Jesus declares himself a higher authority than the very patriarch of Israel. So radical is this statement that the Pharisees attempt to stone Jesus on the spot.” https://www.crosswalk.com/faith/bible-study/what-did-jesus-mean-by-before-abraham-was-i-am.html

I Am Based on the teachings of the Lubavitcher Rebbe Courtesy of MeaningfulLife.com 

Before Abraham was, I am - The Bible Study

[ARCHIVED] ...  I Am Before Abraham Was by slaveofone

Curious Conclusion – “I am” versus “ego eimi” versus “ho on” 

Does Jesus use of “I am” [ego eimi] mean he is God?

Before Abraham Was I Am – John 8:58

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The two words I am, appear together in the Hebrew Scriptures of the Old Testament only eight times (8 times), according to Strong's Concordance. Only three times (3 times) do these designate the Supreme Being (Ex. 3:14,14b; Jer. 50:31). In the other five O.T. references these two words (used together) refer to the following persons:

Job (Job 12:3)

David (Ps. 38:6)

Ethan (Ps. 88:4)

David (Ps. 102:6,6b)

This is in the Hebrew Scriptures. In the King James O.T. Scriptures the two words I am, appear together about 700 times. So what happened? Why the discrepancy? Just this. In the Biblical Hebrew the am evidently understood, but not vocalized. In English, of course, this leaves the sentence incomplete, and does not make a smooth flow of words as our language requires. Therefore, it was proper that the translators supply (add) the word am so as to have proper grammar in the English Scriptures. Please note: In Strong's Concordance added word do not have a number (New Strong's, Preface, page VI).

As is generally known, added words (those which have no Hebrew or Greek to back them are often written in italic letters for the express purpose of telling the reader these are added words. Usually this is the case, but not always. Many words have been added in the KJV which are not written in italic letters.

This is true of the word "am.". Hundreds of times it is written in italic letters to indicate it is an added word, but many times it is not written in italic letters, even though it is added. Why the King's men did not follow through uniformly is a puzzle.

It has been suggested that when the am is written in italic letters in the KJV, this is always a reference to the Supreme Being. This is not the case, of course, as the following lists will indicate.

Added Words In Scriptures: I Am

"AM" Is Added Not Written In Italics:

Gen. 18:12; 27:46; 32:10,10b; 43:14; 49:29; Ex. 3:8,19; 9:29; Lev. 10:13; Num. 11:14; 22:38; Deut. 1:9; 26:3; 31:27; Josh. 23:2; Jud. 4:19; 8:5; 18:4; Ruth 1:12; 1 Sam. 12:2; 19:20; 24:14; 1 Kgs. 8:20; 13:18,31; 18:12; 19:10,14; 22:38; 2 Kgs. 19:23; 1 Chr. 21:13; 2 Chr. 2:9; 6:10; 18:33; 35:23; Ezra 9:6; Job 7:3,20; 9:28; 10:7; 121:4; 12:4; 19:7,10,15,20; 21:6; 23:15; 30:9,19,29; 32:18; 33:9; 34:5; 40:4; and many more.

"AM" Is Added

Written In Italics: Gen. 15:1,7; 22:1,7,11; 23:4; 24:24,33; 25:30,32; 27:11,19,24,33; 41:44; 45:3,4; Ex. 4:10,10b; 6:30; Nu. 11:21; Deut. 31:2; Josh. 14:10,11; 17:14; 23:14; Jud. 5:6; 9:2; 13:11; 17:9; 19:18; Ruth 2:10; 3:9; 4:4; 1 Sam. 1:15,26; 4:16; 9:19; 12:20; 14:7; 17:58; 18:23; 22:12; 30:13; 2 Sam. 1:8,13; 2:20; 3:39; 7:18; 9:8; 11:5; 14:5,15; 19:22,35; 20:17,19; 1 Kgs. 3:7; 13:14; 14:16; 17:12; 18:8,36; 19:4; 22:4; 2 Kgs. 2:10; 3:7; and many more.

END ARTICLE

I AM = Ego Eimi

From the (Greek) New Testament

By Voy Wilks

In the New Testament Scriptures the words, "I am" (Greek = ego eimi) frequently appear in the text. These words are usually stated by the Savior in reference to himself. Why? Is this a reference to his divinity; his Deity; his oneness with Yahweh the Father? No. The reason "I am" usually refers to Yahshua, rather than someone else, is because Yahshua is quoted more often than any one else in the New Testament Scriptures. After all, the story is mostly about HIM, Yahshua the Savior - the Messiah.

But some sincere people will disagree. Some believe the Jews were always eager to stone Yahshua, especially when he spoke of the Deity, or when he said "I am." It is true there were times when the Jewish rulers wanted to stone Yahshua. However, it should be noted Yahshua said "I am," many times to both friend and foe, with no repercussion. Just as with you and me, "I am" was a necessary part of his everyday speech. This becomes evident when we consult the [list that follows].

Contrary to popular opinion, "I am" is not an indication of Yahshua's divinity, or deity-ship. "I am" sometimes refers to other persons (some good and some bad) in the same way it refers to Yahshua. A drunkard used these words in reference to himself (Jud. 19:18 Septuagint {Greek} Version). Does this indicate that he was divine; that he was Deity? And what about Cain, who murdered his brother? (Gen. 3:9 Septuagint {Greek} Version).

Some claim that "I AM" is the name of the Creator, the Supreme Being. Based on Exodus 3:4 they sometimes refer to Him as "The Great I AM." But this is a false notion. While the Creator has many titles, he has only ONE NAME. That name is YAHWEH. One study indicates that "name" is always in the singular when referring to the Supreme Being; "my name" 97 times, thy name" 109 times, and "his name" 108 times. *

As explained in Eerdman's New Bible Dictionary, by J. D. Douglas, Eerdman's Publishing Company; Grand Rapids, MI, "I am" is not a name. Instead, it DESCRIBES the name of the Supreme Being, that name being YAHWEH. In the Hebrew language "I am" gives the meaning, the substance of the name, as follows:

"Strictly speaking, Yahweh is the only name of G-d. In Genesis wherever the word "sem" (name) is associated with the divine being that name is Yahweh" (page 478).

"The revelation made to Moses at the burning bush is one of the most striking and convincing incidents in the bible story. After the opening words G-d introduces himself thus, 'I am the G-d (Elohim) of thy fathers (Ex. 3:6). This at once assumes that Moses would know the name of his father's G-d. ...

He [Moses] inquires, 'When ... the children of Israel ... shall say, what (mah) is his name? what shall I say to them?' (Ex. 3:13). The normal way to ask a name is to use the pronoun mi; to use mah invites an answer that goes further, and gives the meaning (what?), or substance of the name.

This helps to explain the reply namely, I AM THAT I AM' ('ehyeh 'aser ehyeh), and he said, 'Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you (Ex 3:14). By this Moses would not think that G-d was announcing a new name, nor is it called a name; it is just the inner meaning of the name Moses knew. We have here a play upon words; Yahweh is interpreted by 'ehyeh. M. Buber translates 'I will be as I will be,' and expounds it as a promise of G-d's power and enduring presence ... The full context of the name comes first, the name itself follows" (Ibid, page 476).

When the following Scriptures [LISTS] are consulted, it becomes clear that the words, "I am," do not in themselves indicate deity. A possible exception is Genesis 3:14. In other Scriptures, "I am" refers to Moses, Gideon, David, Saul, Paul, Peter, Cain, Pilate, a Roman soldier, and even a drunkard. Therefore it is a mistake to believe "I am" indicates Deity, even when Yahshua spoke these words (John 8:28,58; 18:5,6).

Click on the following hyperlinks to view "I am" Scripture [LISTS]

"I am" Scriptures List N.T.

"I am" Scriptures List O.T.

END ARTICLE

John 8:56 & 58

By Voy Wilks

The First & The Last

By Voy Wilks

Also see my web page "Articles By Voy Wilks".

Yahshua is obviously not "The Great I Am!" since Yahshua said "My Father is GREATER {referring to his and our Father Yahweh} than I {referring to himself - Note that the New International Standard Version (©2008), GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995), and the Weymouth New Testament says here "I am"} (Yahchanan [John] 14:28).

"Before Abraham Was, I Am."

The "I am" in John 8:58

Does the phrase "I am" prove Yahshua is Yahweh?

These words, spoken by our Savior in Jn.8:58, have led to much controversy and confusion. Some use this verse to prove the Messiah's pre-existence. Others use it to prove the trinity doctrine. And then there are those who use it to prove Yahshua is the great "I AM" of Ex.3:14.

The phrase "I am" is "ego eimi" in Greek. Since the Greek New Testament records Yahshua using "ego eimi" many times, Christian theologians term these sayings, "The I Am's of Jesus." It is believed that each of these occurrences implies Yahshua's identity as the "I AM" of Ex.3:14. Can this be true? Can our Savior, the Son of Yahweh, actually be the "I AM"?

Ex.3:14-15 reads, "And Elohim said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and He said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. And Elohim said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Yahweh, Elohim of your fathers, the Elohim of Abraham, the Elohim of Isaac, and the Elohim of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations." Therefore, the "I AM" is identified as "Yahweh."

And what does Yahweh say in Ps.2:7? "I will declare the decree: Yahweh hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee." Yahweh is the Father of Yahshua. Yahshua is the Son of Yahweh. Yahshua is not Yahweh and the Son is not the Father. Therefore, Yahshua (the Son of Yahweh) cannot be the I AM (Yahweh). That alone should be sufficient to discredit the belief that Yahshua was claiming to be the "I AM." But let's look into the matter a little farther.

In the Greek Septuagint (LXX), Ex 3:14 reads,

In Septuagint English it reads, "And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you."

In KJV English it reads, "And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you."

In John 8:58, "I am" is "" in Greek. As you can see, "" in Ex 3:14 is just the prelude to what the Almighty really wanted the Israelites to know, that is, that He was the "" or "the Being" or "the Existing One".

If Yahshua truly wanted to tell the Jews he was the great "I am" of Ex 3:14, he would have said, "Before Abraham was I am the Being" or "I am the Existing One".

It is believed that Jn.8:59 further supports the position that Yahshua is the "I AM." Why else would the Jews try to stone him? He obviously blasphemed in the eyes of the Jews, a stonable offense. Or did he? Is the mere utterance of "ego eimi" a blasphemy? Does the use of "ego eimi" automatically identify the speaker as Yahweh, the I AM?

Several individuals aside from Yahshua used "ego eimi" as well. In Lu.1:19, the angel Gabriel said, "Ego eimi Gabriel." In Jn.9:9, the blind man whose sight was restored by Yahshua said, "Ego eimi." In Acts 10:21, Peter said, "Behold, ego eimi (I am) he whom ye seek." Obviously, the mere use of "ego eimi" does not equate one to the "I Am" of Ex.3:14. But perhaps the Savior's use of it was somehow different. After all, he came down from heaven.

If, in fact, Yahshua spoke Greek to the Jews (which I doubt), he used the phrase "ego eimi" at least twenty times and yet, in only one instance did the Jews seek to stone him (Jn.8:58). Yahshua said, "I am the bread of life" to a large crowd in Jn.6:35 & 48, yet no one opposed him. In verse 41, the Jews murmured because he said, "I am (ego eimi) the bread which came down from heaven." But in verse 42, the Jews questioned only the phrase, "I came down from heaven" and ignored "ego eimi." The same is true of verses 51 & 52.

In Jn.8:12, 18, 24, & 28, Yahshua used "ego eimi" with Pharisees present (vs.13) and yet, no stoning. He, again, used it four times in Jn.10:7, 9, 11, & 14 with no stoning. Yahshua said to his disciples, "...that...ye may believe that I am (ego eimi)" in Jn.13:19 without them batting an eye.

An interesting account occurs in Jn.18 when the Jews came to arrest Yahshua in the Garden of Gethsemane. When the chief priests and Pharisees said they were seeking Yahshua of Nazareth, Yahshua said to them, "Ego eimi." At that they fell backward to the ground. It is not made clear why they fell to the ground, but what followed will make it clear that Yahshua was not claiming to be the "I AM."

After Yahshua's arrest, the Jews took him to Annas first (vs.13). Then they took him to Caiaphas (vs.24) and eventually to Pilate (vss.28,29). A parallel account is found in Mt.26:57-68. Notice, in particular, verse 59. The same men that had fallen backward to the ground were in attendance when the council sought false witnesses against Yahshua to put him to death. Verse 60 says they couldn't find any. Eventually two came forward. Interestingly, they didn't bear false witness about what Yahshua said in Jn.8:58, but about his reference to destroying the temple and building it again in three days. Where were all those witnesses from Jn.8:58?

The point about Mt.26 is, why would false witnesses be sought if they had true witnesses in attendance? The arresting officers heard Yahshua say "Ego eimi." They could have stoned him right there in the garden for blasphemy, but they didn't. They could have reported the supposed blasphemy to the council, but they didn't. Why not? Because it wasn't blasphemy, nor was it a stonable offense. He was merely identifying himself as Yahshua of Nazareth.

This brings us back to Jn.8:58. Why did the Jews seek to stone him on that occasion? The context of Jn.8 shows that Yahshua;

1) accused the Jews of "judging after the flesh" (vs.15).

2) said they would die in their sins (vss.21,24).

3) implied they were in bondage (vss.32,33).

4) said they were servants of sin (vs.34).

5) said they were out to kill him (vss. 37,40).

6) implied they were spiritually deaf (vs.43,47).

7) said their father was the devil (vs.44).

8) said they were not of Elohim (vs.47).

9) accused them of dishonoring him (vs.49).

10) accused them of not knowing Yahweh (vs.55).

11) accused them of lying (vs.55).

Aside from that, the Jews misunderstood Yahshua's words leading them to believe;

1) that he accused them of being born of fornication (vs.41).

2) Yahshua had a devil (vs.52).

3) that he was exalting himself above Abraham (vs.53). 4) that he saw Abraham (vs.56).

Yahshua's words in verse 58 were the culmination of an encounter that was so offensive to the Jews that they couldn't restrain themselves anymore. They simply couldn't take it anymore so they sought to stone him, not because of two simple words, "ego eimi," but because he was making himself out to be greater than their beloved father Abraham. They sought to stone him illegally.

So what does Jn.8:58 really mean? Although I do not believe we can be certain what Yahshua meant due to a variety of reasons, one being the absence of this passage as it appeared in John's original writing, I offer the following explanation.

Let's look at the context of Yahshua's statement. It begins in verse 51 with the thought of eternal life; "If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death." The Jews thought since Abraham and the prophets were dead, Yahshua must have a devil. The context is eternal life. Then in verse 56 Yahshua says Abraham "rejoiced to see my day." He did not say he saw Abraham as the Jews misunderstood. How did Abraham see Yahshua's day? Heb.11:13 says, "These all died in faith, not having received the promises, but having seen them afar off, and were persuaded of them, and embraced them, and confessed that they were strangers and pilgrims on the earth." He saw Yahshua's day by faith.

Yahshua then resumed the context of his initial conversation by saying, "Before Abraham was, I am." "Was" is from the Greek "ginomai" meaning, "to come into being, ... to arise." What Yahshua actually meant was, "Before Abraham comes into being (at his resurrection unto eternal life), I will." Confirmation of this understanding comes to us from Figures of Speech Used in the Bible by E.W. Bullinger, pgs. 521,522. Under the heading "Heterosis (Of Tenses)," subheading "The Present for the Future," he writes, "This is put when the design is to show that something will certainly come to pass and is spoken of as though it were already present." He then lists some examples such as Mt.3:10b, "therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is [shall be] hewn down;" and Mk.9:31a, "For he taught his disciples, and said unto them, The Son of man is [shall be] delivered into the hands of men, and they shall kill him; and after that he is killed, he shall rise the third day." Included among this list of examples of Heterosis is Jn.8:58. In other words, although properly written, "Before Abraham comes to be, I am," with "I am" in the simple present tense, the meaning points to the future, "Before Abraham comes to be, I will."

Some people believe this verse should be translated, "Before Abraham existed, I existed." However, neither Greek verb is in the perfect tense (past tense). "Was" is in the aorist tense and "am" is in the present tense. Let's look a little closer at "was." Concerning the aorist tense, A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament by Dana and Mantey says, "It has time relations only in the indicative, where it is past and hence augmented." The verb ginomai (was) is in the infinitive, not the indicative. Therefore, it should not be translated in the past tense. This same reference says of the infinitive, "The aorist infinitive denotes that which is eventual or particular, ..." Abraham will eventually resurrect which is why the Greek uses the aorist infinitive. The meaning is, "Before Abraham comes to be" not "Before Abraham was (or existed)."

In conclusion, Yahshua was not declaring that he is the great "I AM" of Ex.3:14. Yahshua was not declaring himself to be Yahweh. And Yahshua was not declaring his pre-existence. He is the Son of Yahweh and the Son of the great "I Am."

Author of the original Document is John Cordaro. Visit his Web-site at:

The everlasting Good News of Yahweh to read the Document.

This Edition contains Revisions and Additions made by A.O.Y.,Cascade

John 8: 58 "I AM"

You are not fifty years old," the Jews said to him, and you have seen Abraham! "I tell you the truth, Jesus answered, before Abraham was born, I am.

..."The Jews are asking Jesus how can he know Abraham if he is not even fifty years old. Jesus tells them that before Abraham was born, I am. What Jesus is saying is that he is the one spoken of in the prophetic writings, long before Abraham's time.

Let's look at the verse that started this whole misunderstanding so we can see what Jesus is referring to. John 8: 56 says:

"Abraham your father rejoiced to see my day; he saw it and was glad."

Compare this verse with Hebrews 11: 13 which is talking about Abraham and his descendants. It states:

"All these people were still living by faith when they died. They did not receive the things promised; they only saw it and welcomed it from a distance."

What Abraham saw was the fulfillment of God's promise that the savior would be his descendant (Genesis 12:3), and that line of descent started with their son Isaac. That is why it says "they saw it and welcomed it from a distance." The Jews misunderstood what Jesus meant at John 8: 56 and made it an issue of Jesus' age, at which Jesus tried to correct them once again by saying, "Before Abraham was born, I am" (The Messiah). Jesus is saying that before Abraham was even born, God had already planned him as the Messiah in His mind. 1 Peter 1: 20 says:

"He was foreknown before the foundation of the world."

Remember John 1: 1, "In the beginning was the word" (plan). Also, if you look at a Greek Bible, the two words for I am are the exact two words used for I am in John 8: 12 and John 8: 24. In John 8: 12 Jesus says:

"I am the light of the world."

In John 8: 24 Jesus says:

"For if you do not believe that I am (he), you will die in your sins."

John 8: 24 is the continuation of John 8:12. The first I am is obviously referring to Jesus being the light of the world. The second I am is referring to Jesus being the light of the world, the Son of God. These are the exact same words used in John 8:58, yet no one has taken them to mean that Jesus was claiming to be God. As a matter of fact, the KJV translates the Greek I am in John 8:24 as, "I am he." In John 4:26, again, the same exact two words are used as in John 8: 58. The Samaritan woman has just said to Jesus,

"I know that the Messiah is coming, the one called the Anointed; when he comes, he will tell us everything."

Jesus says to her, (the actual Greek translation)

"I am, the one speaking to thee."

He is who? The Messiah that is coming. The KJV and NIV translate this verse as "I that speak unto thee am he" and "I who speak to you am he." The I am here is referring to Jesus being the Messiah.

Mark 6:50 is about when Jesus walks on the water towards the disciples who are on a boat, and they think that they are seeing a ghost. The actual Greek reads, "Be of good cheer, I am; be ye not afraid. " The KJV and NIV translate this verse as,

"be of good cheer: It is I; be not afraid " and "Take courage! It is I. Don't be afraid." None of these I am are taken to mean that Jesus is God. As a matter of fact, they are translated in a variety of different ways, such as, "It is I" and "I am he." The beggar in John 9:9 when asked if he is the one who used to sit and beg answers them by saying the exact same words, "I am." Does that mean that the beggar is claiming to be God? Of course not!

So why do people claim that the John 8:58 I am is referring to the Exodus 3:14 I AM? Because of human tradition, trying to make Scripture fit their thought, instead of the other way around. It is the same exact I am as in the rest of these verses and the topic is obviously not Jesus' deity. If the John 8:58 I am refers to the Exodus 3:14 I AM, then the rest of the other I am should also. But they DON'T.

Another verse referenced is where Jesus is in the Garden, the solders say they are seeking Jesus, and he says "I am"... and they fall backward. Even the "oneness" camps use that verse to prove his deity with the father. But he said "I am" many times and no one fell over (Including J 8:58).

Who is Speaking in Revelation1:8?

Textual variants

Textus Receptus: Ἐγώ εἰμι τὸ Α καὶ τὸ Ω ἀρχὴ καὶ τέλος, λέγει ὁ κύριος ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος ὁ παντοκράτωρ

NA27: Ἐγώ εἰμι τὸ ἄλφα καὶ τὸ ὦ, λέγει κύριος ὁ θεός, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, ὁ παντοκράτωρ.

There is a difference between the Textus Receptus and NA27. I searched Constantine Tischendorf's critical apparatus on Revelation 1:8 to identify the significant textual variants and witnesses.

Notes:

• NA27 omits ἀρχὴ καὶ τέλος ("[the] beginning and [the] end"). Witnesses that include the phrase are:

Novum Testamentum graece. 1869-94 (C. v. Tischendorf, C. R. Gregory & E. Abbot, Ed.) (Re 1:8). Lipsiae: Giesecke & Devrient.

• NA27 has κύριος ὁ θεός ("Lord God") which is the equivalent of the Hebrew יְהוָה אֱלֹהִים. cp. LXX Gen. 2:15. Textus Receptus has ὁ κύριος ("the Lord") but omits ὁ θεός ("God"). Most witnesses appear to include ὁ θεός like the NA27:

Now, the answer to your question. Who is referred to as the Alpha and the Omega in Revelation 1:8?

Exegesis

Beginning with Rev. 1:4 (KJV),

John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace [be] unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne.

Notice in v. 4 that it refers to "Him who is, and who was, and who is to come." In the Greek, it is ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος. This is a very important clue to who is talking in v. 8.

Now, in Rev. 1:5 (KJV),

And from Jesus Christ, [who is] the faithful witness, [and] the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

Put vv. 4-5 together:

John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace [be] unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne; And from Jesus Christ, [who is] the faithful witness, [and] the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,

Observe that "He who was, and who is, and who is to come" is distinguished from "Jesus Christ, the faithful witness, the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth."

Therefore, "He who was, and who is, and who is to come" is God the Father, not Jesus Christ.

John Gill on Rev. 1:4:

But rather this is to be understood of the first Person, of God the Father; and the phrases are expressive both of his eternity, he being God from everlasting to everlasting; and of his immutability, he being now what he always was, and will be what he now is, and ever was, without any variableness, or shadow of turning: they are a periphrasis, and an explanation of the word "Jehovah", which includes all tenses, past, present, and to come.

Rev. 1:6 is John referring to Jesus who "made us kings and priests to God and his Father":

And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him [be] glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.

Rev. 1:7 is John describing Jesus coming upon the clouds of heaven (cp. Dan. 7:13-14):

Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they [also] which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.

Finally, in Rev. 1:8 (KJV):

I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

But, Rev. 1:8 (NA27):

"I am the Alpha and the Omega," said the Lord God, "who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."

Now, it really doesn't matter which translation you use. Rev. 1:4 already distinguished between "He who is, and who was, and who is to come" and "Jesus Christ." Thus, the person speaking is God the Father, not Jesus Christ.

Elsewhere in Revelation (e.g. Rev. 22:13), Jesus Christ is identified as the Alpha and the Omega, but not here in Rev. 1:8.

ALPHA AND OMEGA

The Question is: Who is talking at Revelation 1:8?

OR

"Alpha and Omega": To whom does this title belong?

In the Greek speaking world of the time, people new that "Alpha" (A) and "Omega" (Ω) are the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet. In Revelation God the Father speaks three times: 1:8; 21:5-8 and 22:12-15.

FIRST OCCURRENCE:

Revelation 1:8 (Darby):

"I am the Alpha and the Omega, saith the Lord God, he who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty."

Notice, that the one known as the "Alpha and the Omega" applies the title "Almighty" to Himself. A word search of the Darby translation on "BibleGateway " revealed 58 occurrences of the title "Almighty", all are applied to God the Father, none is applied to Jesus, and Jesus never applies this title to himself.

SO, IT IS GOD THE FATHER TALKING IN REVELATION 1:8.

Some verses on the use of the title "Almighty":

God applies the title "Almighty" to himself when making his promise to Abraham about his seed, Isaac.

Genesis 17:1 (Darby):

"And Abram was ninety-nine years old, when Jehovah appeared to Abram, and said to him, I [am] the Almighty God: walk before my face and be perfect." God blesses Jacob,

Genesis 48:3 (Darby):

"And Jacob said to Joseph, The Almighty God appeared to me at Luz in the land of Canaan and blessed me."

Exodus 6:3,"(DARBY):

" And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, as the Almighty God; but by my name Jehovah I was not made known to them."

SECOND OCCURRENCE:

Revelation 21:5-8 (DARBY):

"5 And he that sat on the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he says [to me], Write, for these words are true and faithful."

6 And he said to me, It is done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give to him that thirsts of the fountain of the water of life freely.

"7 He that overcomes shall inherit these things, and I will be to him God, and he shall be to me SON."

"8 But to the fearful and unbelieving, [and sinners], and those who make themselves abominable, and murderers, and fornicators, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, their part [is] in the lake which burns with fire and brimstone; which is the second death.

In the above verses God promises those that overcome (victorious), and remain faithful to the end, that He will give them the water of life, (John 4:14) and shall inherit these things, (Rev.2:11; 26-28; 3:12,21) and are to be "SONS" of the one known as "Alpha and Omega."

Jesus spoke of his disciples, as his " BROTHERS".

Matthew 12:50 (NASB) :

" For whoever does the will of My Father who is in heaven, he is My brother and sister and mother.”

Luke 8:21 (DARBY):

" But he answering said to them, My mother and my brethren are those who hear the word of God and do [it]."

IN VERSE SEVEN WE READ THAT GOD CALLS THE "BROTHERS" OF CHRIST HIS "SONS",SO IT IS GOD TALKING IN REVELATION 21:5-8.

Some applications of "Sons" and " brothers and sisters and mothers;"

2 Corinthians.6:18 (NASB):

“And I will be a father to you, And you shall be sons and daughters to Me,”Says the Lord Almighty."

Galatians 3:26. (NASB). Paul wrote:

"For you are all sons of God through faith in Christ Jesus." Galatians 4:6 (NASB)

" Because you are sons, God has sent forth the Spirit of His Son into our hearts, crying, “Abba! Father!"

THIRD OCCURRENCE:

Revelation 22:12-15 (Darby):

"12 Behold, I come quickly, and my reward with me, to render to everyone as his work shall be."

"13 I [am] the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end."

"14 Blessed are they that wash their robes, that they may have right to the tree of life, and that they should go in by the gates into the city."

"15 Without [are] the dogs, and the sorcerers, and the fornicators, and the murderers, and the idolaters, and every one that loves and makes a lie."

In the above verses God is "coming" to pass judgement and to reward everyone according to his deeds, and those that follow in the footsteps of Christ and stay faithful to the end, will have the right to the tree of life, that is live forever. (John 11:25-26)

Isaiah also prophesied that God is coming to execute judgment:

Isaiah 26:21 (DARBY):

" For behold, Jehovah" cometh" out of his place to visit the iniquity of the inhabitants of the earth upon them; and the earth shall disclose her blood and shall no longer cover her slain."

Although this may not be conclusive, the previous two occurrences are, and it follows reason, that it is God the Father who is also speaking in Revelation 22:12-15.

CONCLUSION:

God is talking in Revelation: 1:8; 21:5-8 and 22:12-15. and

The Title "Alpha and Omega" belongs to God the Father.

Since the one known as "Alpha and Omega" calls himself "Almighty" a title used exclusively in the Bible for God the Father, and the fact that God calls the "Brothers " of Christ His "Sons", it is God talking in Revelation : 1:8; 21:5-8 and 22:12-15.

The terms "Alpha and Omega", the "first and the last" and "the beginning and the end", used in reference to God, all mean the same thing - "That there is no God before him and that there will be no God after him."

Isaiah 44:6 (DARBY):

" Thus saith Jehovah, the King of Israel, and his Redeemer, Jehovah of hosts: I [am] the first, and I [am] the last, and beside me there is no God." (See also 48:12)

Other Links Of Interest

HE SAID

Some Misunderstood Verses of the Bible Now Put Back Into Their Contexts

"I and the Father are one"

And Other Verses Commonly Misunderstood to Mean That

Jesus is God

From A Muslim Point Of View

Also see my "Allah" web page.

"Before Abraham Was, I Am" (Jn. 8:58)

ON THE CHANGE OF NAMES*

{**Yonge's title, A Treatise on the Question Why Certain Names in the Holy Scripture Are Changed.}

It was, therefore, quite consistent with reason that no proper name could with propriety be assigned to him who is in truth the living God. Do you not see that to the prophet who is really desirous of making an honest inquiry after the truth, and who asks what answer he is to give to those who question him as to the name of him who has sent him, he says, "I am that I Am,"{6}{#ex 3:14.} which is equivalent to saying, "It is my nature to be, not to be described by name:" (12) but in order that the human race may not be wholly destitute of any appellation which they may give to the most excellent of beings, I allow you to use the word Lord as a name; the Lord God of three natures--of instruction, and of holiness, and of the practice of virtue; of which Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob are recorded as the symbols. For this, says he, is the everlasting name, as if it has been investigated and discerned in time as it exists in reference to us, and not in that time which was before all time; and it is also a memorial not placed beyond recollection or intelligence, and again it is addressed to persons who have been born, not to uncreated natures. (13) For these men have need of the complete use of the divine name who come to a created or mortal generation, in order that, if they cannot attain to the best thing, they may at least arrive at the best possible name, and arrange themselves in accordance with that; and the sacred oracle which is delivered as from the mouth of the Ruler of the universe, speaks of the proper name of God never having been revealed to any one, when God is represented as saying, "For I have not shown them my Name;"{7}{#ex 6:3.} for by a slight change in the figure of speech here used, the meaning of what is said would be something of this kind: "My proper name I have not revealed to them," but only that which is commonly used, though with some misapplication, because of the reasons above mentioned. (14) And, indeed, the living God is so completely indescribable, that even those powers which minister unto him do not announce his proper name to us. At all events, after the wrestling match in which the practicer of virtue wrestled for the sake of the acquisition of virtue, he says to the invisible Master, "Tell me thy Name;"{8}{#ge 32:29.} but he said, "Why askest thou me my name?" And he does not tell him his peculiar and proper name, for says he, it is sufficient for thee to be taught my ordinary explanations. But as for names which are the symbols of created things, do not seek to find them among immortal natures. SOURCE