FCF - Technical Introduction to Cybersecurity 1.0 Self-Paced

Fortinet – Technical Introduction to Cybersecurity Exam Quiz Answers

Module 1: Cryptography and the Public Key Infrastructure Quiz answers

Question: Identify two symmetric algorithms. (Choose two.)

• AES

• DSA

• IDEA

• RSA

Question: During the encryption process, where symmetric and asymmetric cryptography are used, which key is used to encrypt the session (symmetric) key?

• The sender’s private key

• The receiver’s private key

• The sender’s public key

• The receiver’s public key

Question: Which cipher type is used by computers to encrypt data?

• Hashing

• Geyser

• Block-and-tackle

• Stream

Question: What ingredient is added during the BCRYPT key stretching process to increase entropy?

• Verification code

• A static known value

• Salt

• MAC

Question: Which statement best describes hashing?

• The process of converting plaintext to ciphertext

• The process of converting data of an arbitrary size to a unique value of a fixed size

• The art of writing or solving codes

• The process of generating a unique value that can be tied legally to an entity

Question: Which two entities are necessary components of a PKI? (Choose two.)

• Microsoft CAPI

• RA

• CA

• Firewall

Question: In a PKI, what is the ultimate source of trust?

• The registration authority

• The private key of the root CA

• PKI policy and procedures

• Local municipal laws in which the CA resides

Question: Which two features are characteristics of hashing? (Choose two.)

• Non-reversible process

• Random output value

• Obfuscation data process

• Fixed-length output value

Question: Which security requirement does encryption satisfy?

• Data integrity

• Authentication

• Non-repudiation

• Confidentiality

Question: Which statement best describes encryption?

• The art of writing or solving codes

• The process of converting an arbitrary-sized value to a fixed-size value

• The process of converting plaintext to ciphertext

• An entity disguised as something else

Question: Which two security requirements are satisfied by a digital signature? (Choose two.)

• Confidentiality

• Authorization

• Data integrity

• Authentication

Question: Which statement best describes cryptography?

• A method for ensuring network safety

• The study of writing or solving codes

• A secure session between a web browser and a web server

• The process of converting plaintext to ciphertext

Question: Identify three cipher method types. (Choose three.)

• Bletchley Park

• Transpositional

• One-time pad

• Substitution

• Abacus

Module 2: Secure Network Quiz answers

Question: Why should a user prefer a security protocol over a non secured one?

• It provides Quality of Service (QoS).

• it adds segmentation.

• It adds confidentiality.

• It provides lower latency.

Question: What was missing in the early sandbox generation? (Choose two.)

• An integration with other security devices

• Automation and artificial intelligence

• An isolated environment to test unknown files

• A zero-day attacks detection

Question: How can a security engineer secure switching and ports?

• By configuring an application layer gateway

• By configuring firewall policies

• By configuring Network Address Translation (NAT) filtering

• By configuring static or sticky Media Access Control (MAC) address entries in the Content Addressable Memory (CAM) table

Question: Why is Fortinet Security Fabric an example of centralized security network management? (Choose two.)

• It can operate only locally.

• It has a broad view of the security with an end to end visibility.

• It can communicate with other devices through Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) or fabric connectors.

• All tasks and configurations are manual.

Question: Which network is enclosed by the security perimeter?

• The Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)

• The trusted network

• The Local Area Network (LAN) only

• The Wide Area Network (WAN)

Question: how can a security architect better control and protect the east-west traffic in a DeMilitarized Zone (DMZ)?

• Through Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

• Through centralized security management

• Through micro-segmentation

• Through traffic shaping

Question: Why would a security architect segment a network? (Choose two.)

• To reduce the network congestions and broadcasts

• To limit the attacks to the specific segment without contaminating all the network

• To facilitate the management access through a connection to each device in the network

• To increase the scope of compliance to the complete network

Question: What are objectives of Software Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN)? (Choose two.)

• Lower latency

• Increase data protection

• Greater reliability

• Lower Quality of Service (QoS)

Question: Which principles are part of the Zero-Trust security model? (Choose two.)

• Assume that your network is breached

• Implement least privilege

• Reduce DeMilitarized Zone (DMZ) surface

• Trust only your Local Area Network (LAN)

Question: Why knowing the source IPs of an attack may not be relevant? (Choose two.)

• Source IPs can be forked.

• Attackers can use zero-day attacks.

• Source IPs can be spoofed.

• Attackers can use botnets.

Question: When implementing Zero-Trust security, which benefits do you expect? (Choose two.)

• A defined trusted zone

• Tighter restrictions to access resources

• Proofs of trust

• No micro-segmentation

Question: Which challenges brought the evolution from a network model with a single, dedicated service provider to Software Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN)? (Choose two.)

• Reliability

• Demand for more cloud applications and services

• Data protection

• Compliance requirements

Question: Which implementation should be done by a security architect to limit network threats in a network? (Choose two.)

• Zero trust

• Centralized network management

• Network segmentation

• Software Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN)

Question: What does Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) bring over MIME? (Choose two.)

• Integrity with remote access

• repudiation with private connection

• Confidentiality with encryption

• Authentication with digital signature

Question: Why may a security architect add a sandbox in a network? (Choose two.)

• To share threat intelligence with other security devices

• To stop known threats like a honeypot

• To provide authentication

• To detect zero day attacks

Question: When implementing a data fabric architecture, which benefits do you expect?  (Choose two.)

• The monitoring and data management is centrally governed.

• The attack surface is reduced.

• The different parts of the security network are linked.

• The authentication is enforced.

Question: What are two core capabilities of Secure Access Service Edge (SASE)? (Choose two.)

• Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

• Zero-Trust network access

• Traffic shaping

• Data loss prevention

Question: View the following exhibit:In this SD-WAN environment, what does the red line represent?

• An overlay network

• An underlay network

• A physical network

• A Wide Area Network (WAN)

Question: A security compliance audit must take place. Which implementation can simplify it?

• Centralized security management

• Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

• Application Programming Interface (API)

• Artificial Intelligence

Question: Which application could provide the list of open ports to a security engineer, so the unnecessary ones can be closed?

• Syslog

• Machine Learning

• Sandbox

• Network mapper (nmap)

Question: View the following exhibit: What will be at least checked by the firewall upon receiving the server reply packet?

• The packet five-tuple

• The firewall session table

• If the implicit firewall policy is set to allow

• Nothing when the packet is encrypted

Question: Which required capabilities are included in Secure Access Service Edge (SASE)? (Choose two.)

• Network-as-a-Service

• Software-as-a-Service

• Security-as-a-Service

• Platform-as-a-Service

Question: What are the benefits for a bank in taking a Next Generation FireWall (NGFW) to secure its network? (Choose two.)

• Further analysis can be performed with a sandbox.

• An artificial intelligence performs all the security checkpoints.

• Malicious content is checked through Deep Packet Inspection (DPI).

• Machine learning configures automatically micro-segmentation.

Question: A security architect would like to add in a network a device able to understand the application layers protocols. Which device should be added?

• A Next Generation FireWall (NGFW)

• A packet filter firewall

• A stateful firewall

• A stateless firewall

Question: How could the traffic be filtered at the security perimeter? (Choose two.)

• By performing traffic shaping

• By acting as an application layer gateway

• By logging the incoming traffic

• By performing packet filtering at transport layer

Question: A network architect must implement security in a network including Internet of Things (IoT), Bring your own Device (ByoD), and cloud-based workstations. Which model should the architect put in place?

• Packet filtering

• Security perimeter

• Network Address Translation (NAT) filtering

• Zero trust

Question: Why should a security engineer secure a switch? (Choose two.)

• The management access is only available through the default Virtual Local Area Networks (VLAN).

• The management access is only available through the default Media Access Control (MAC) address.

• By default, a switch is vulnerable to broadcast storms.

• By default, port authentication is not configured.

Question: What does Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) offer to remote off-net users compared to on-net?

• Different login credentials to access different systems

• Better software upgrades including security patches

• Real-time analysis of security alerts

• The same security policies no matter their location

Question: how can a security architect segment a network? (Choose two.)

• Through Virtual Local Area Networks (VLANs)

• Through Software Defined Wide Area Network (SD-WAN)

• Through a bastion host

• Through a jump box

Question: Which type of attack is handled only by the latest sandbox generation?

• AI-driven attacks

• Zero-day attacks

• Attacks exploiting known vulnerabilities

• Fraggle attacks

Question: Which protocols should a security engineer disable for management access? (Choose two.)

• Secure Shell protocol (SSH)

• HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

• HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

• Telnet

Question: A security architect must put in place the Zero-Trust model in a network. Which methods could the architect implement? (Choose two.)

• Traffic shaping

• Privilege access management

• The Kipling method

• The Kubernetes method

Question: View the following exhibit: How can a security architect secure the switch to reduce a Media Access Control (MAC) flooding attack performed by the device D?

• By grouping the devices in the same Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

• By limiting the number of MAC address entries per switch port

• By grouping the switch ports in the same VLAN

• By limiting the number of IP address entries per VLAN

Module 3: Authentication and Access Control Quiz answers

Question: Which is an example of a possession-based authentication method?

• Texting a one-time code through SMS

• Using your eye to pass a biometric lock

• Having your password written down in a secure location

• Carrying your laptop home

Question: Which two are aspects of the principle of least privilege? (Choose two.)

• Allowing easy, baseline access for all

• Allowing only what users and devices need

• Allowing access until proven otherwise

• Reducing error by minimizing access

Question: Which two are the responsibilities of an authentication governing body? (Choose two.)

• Creating disaster recovery policies

• User onboarding

• Reviewing the password strength policy

• User certification

Question: What type of access control allows the device or person performing the authentication the ability to allow or deny access?

• Lattice-based access control

• Discretionary access control

• Role-based access control

• Mandatory access control

Question: Which two should be selected to create secure multi-factor authentication to access a computer system? (Choose two.)

• Smart Card

• Voice identification

• Height sensor

• Password

Question: Which two are performed by the supplicant in 802.1x authentication? (Choose two.)

• Verifying identity

• Providing identity

• Connecting to a network

• Sending an accept message to the intermediary

Question: What does a NAC use to identify attached devices and allow access?

• Retinal pattern

• Device memory size

• Username

• Device profile

Question: Which one makes the allow or deny decision in the authentication process?

• Authentication server

• Supplicant

• Access point

• Intermediary

Question: Which protocol can perform SSO?

• TCP

• DNS

• CHAP

• Kerberos

Question: Which type of access control scheme does a NAC apply?

• Mandatory access control

• Attribute-based access control

• Lattice-based access control

• Discretionary access control

Question: In SSO authentication, which two entities know the unhashed credentials? (Choose two.)

• Service provider

• User

• Internet service provider

• Identify provider

Question: Which three can be used as attributes in attribute-based access control? (Choose three.)

• MAC address

• DHCP IP address

• Hours in a day

• Time of day

Module 4: Secure Remote Access Quiz answers

Question: Which statement best describes secure remote access?

• Secure remote access allows personal devices (BYOD) to connect to the computer network.

• Secure remote access securely connects two or more local area networks (LANs).

• Secure remote access transmits smart device information to an outside computer network.

• Secure remote access allows outside end entities to connect securely to a computer network.

Question: Which characteristic differentiates ZTNA from VPN?

• Encryption algorithms

• Security due to key lengths

• Data integrity checks

• The zero trust concept

Question: Which statement best describes the zero trust approach that is the basis for ZTNA design?

• Nothing can be trusted inside or outside the network.

• Remote devices and users cannot be trusted.

• Once devices are authenticated, they are always trusted.

• Internet-of-Things (IoTs) and BYOD must be authenticated before they are trusted.

Question: In SSL VPN, what is used to authenticate the web server to the browser?

• A one-time password

• Doman name identification

• IP address identification

• The web server’s digital certificate

Question: In which part of a packet is the readable message to the recipient written?

• Data (payload)

• ESP trailer

• AH header

• TCP header

Question: Which two security features can be implemented by IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)

• Corrupt packet blocking

• Malicious packet detection

• Packet encryption

• Packet authentication

Question: Which two traits differentiate SSL VPN from IPsec VPN? (Choose two).

• It establishes an encrypted session between two or more points.

• User identification permits more granular authorization.

• It protects against replay attacks.

• It secures the transport layer of the OSI model.

Question: Which characteristic differentiates SSL VPN from IPsec VPN and ZTNA?

• SSL VPN does not secure the transport layer in the OSI model.

• SSL VPN does not require specialized client software.

• SSL VPN does not use TCP.

• SSL VPN does not use digital certificates to secure sessions.

Module 5: Endpoint Security Quiz answers

Question: Which item would be considered part of the Internet of Things (IoT)?

• Company laptop computer

• Wi-Fi Baby Monitor

• Printer connected to a laptop through USB

• Database server

Question: What is the best tool to help counter polymorphic malware?

• Data loss prevention (DLP)

• Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

• BIOS secured with a password

• Web filtering

Question: What should you always do before allowing IoT and BYOD endpoints to connect to a secure network?

• Deny access to the secure network until the device is identified.

• Allow the device access to all networks to make it easier to integrate.

• Connect the device to the internal network to allow administrators to log in.

• Disable remote access to the device.

Question: What is the first step in securing IoT devices in a company or home?

• Segment all IoT devices on an isolated network.

• Purchase only approved laptops and servers.

• Register IoT devices in a database.

• Identify new and existing endpoints in your network.

Question: What are the two most common communication protocols used by IoT devices? (Choose two.)

• Wi-Fi

• Ethernet

• Bluetooth

• Token Ring

Question: What is usually performed by the endpoint detection and response (EDR) client and not by the endpoint protection platform (EPP) client?

• Software updates

• Antivirus scanning

• Automatic threat response

• Data loss prevention (DLP)

Question: What is the primary concern about endpoint detection and response (EDR)?

• Inability to protect against web-based threats

• Ease of installation and configuration compared to endpoint protection platforms

• Speed at which it detects and handles polymorphic malware threats

• Inability to scan removable media

Question: Which three things should you use on all connected devices, if available? (Choose three.)

• Full disk encryption (FDE)

• Manufacturer default password

• Auto-updates

• Endpoint protection platform client (EPP)

• BIOS

• Allow USB devices to copy files

Module 6: Secure Data and Applications Quiz answers

Question: Which two recommendations should you make to a chief security officer in order to block phishing attempts and their effects? (Choose two.)

• Audit the network.

• Install a web application firewall (WAF).

• Implement email content filters.

• Provide security awareness training to users.

Question: A security engineer would like to create a browsing group policy for application hardening. Which two features should the policy include? (Choose two.)

• Disable auto-update

• Enable password saving

• Enable pop-up blocker

• Clear cookies on exit

Question: Which characteristic could a digital signature lend to a document?

• Non-repudiation

• Storage

• Encryption

• Clarity

Question: Which tool could be denying access to the page?

• Real-time blackhole list (RBL)

• Web filter

• Pop-up blocker

• Search engine filter

Question: Which two security features are included only in the latest generation WAF? (Choose two.)

• Signature detection

• IP reputation

• Ports allow list

• Data loss prevention (DLP)

Question: In a school, which safeguards could a security architect implement to help protect children from inappropriate content?

• Web filter

• Sandbox

• Virtual private network (VPN)

• Real-time blackhole list (RBL)

Question: The best position for a WAF is in front of which network component?

• The wireless access points

• The web servers

• The mail servers

• The edge firewall

Question: Which two measures should a company take to prevent doxwares and leakwares? (Choose two.)

• Cloud storage

• Security awareness training

• Segmentation

• Data loss prevention (DLP)

Question: Which factors should a security engineer verify to ensure an organization’s data comply with data sovereignty laws and policies?

• The compliance of the organization’s in-use data.

• The laws of the nation where the data are collected.

• The risks involved in data destruction.

• The audit performed on data at rest.

Question: Which two tasks should a security engineer perform to protect private data for an organization? (Choose two.)

• Encrypt all the documents in the organization.

• Configure Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) on all the switches.

• Identify sensitive data and classify them.

• Identify authorized roles, users, and policies.

Question: Which product should a security architect use first to prevent zero-day attacks?

• Web application firewall (WAF)

• Network access control (NAC)

• Sandbox

• Firewall

Question: For which reason could a data center have a separate disaster recovery center?

• For perfectibility

• For confidentiality

• For integrity

• For high availability

Question: A security engineer must manage the devices of a large company. Which measures should they implement as part of application hardening?

• An underlay network

• A patch management system

• A switch audit

• Access only through virtual private networks (VPNs)

Question: Which component should a company implement to secure sensitive data in their internal servers?

• Real-time blackhole list (RBL)

• Web application firewall (WAF)

• Data loss prevention (DLP)

• Virtual private network (VPN)

Question: A chief security officer would like to prevent ransomware in their organization. Which two techniques should you recommend? (Choose two.)

• Use only third-party applications

• Encrypt all sensitive data

• Apply regular patch maintenances and auto-updates

• Provide security awareness training to users

Module 7: Cloud Security and Virtualization Quiz answers

Question: Why is it important to secure all virtual machines (VMs) on a hypervisor?

• To reduce resource usage for all VMs

• To prevent privilege escalation and VM escape

• To improve the performance of all VMs

• To simplify administration

Question: What is the advantage of using a cloud access security broker (CASB) to make application programming interface (API) connections to cloud providers?

• It increases throughput.

• It minimizes points of configuration.

• It prevents denial of service (DoS) attacks.

• It allows for instant updates of cloud applications.

Question: What is an example of Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)?

• Microsoft Office 365

• A VMWare player

• A virtual machine (VM)

• Netflix

Question: Which two security services can be performed as Security-as-a-Service (SECaaS)? (Choose two.)

• Local confidential data protection

• Security information and event management (SIEM)

• Hardware forensics

• Intrusion detection and prevention (IDP)

• User deployment

Question: Which type of proxy sits in front of the protected server and brokers connections before allowing traffic to pass to its destination?

• Reverse proxy

• Router proxy

• Forward proxy

• Broker proxy

Question: Which two roles are responsible for securing cloud applications? (Choose two.)

• Cloud provider

• Application end user

• End user local machine

• Application developer

Question: Which two actions should you take to secure your data in the cloud? (Choose two.)

• Secure access to data with authentication.

• Keep a local tape backup.

• Implement data loss prevention (DLP).

• Use only Hyper Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP) to transfer data.

• Always back up to a secure universal serial bus (USB) device.

Question: Which three security devices are hosted in the cloud? (Choose three.)

• An email gateway

• A file share server

• An antivirus scanner

• A firewall

• A web server

• A network accelerator

Question: Which two protocols can you use as a single sign-on (SSO) protocol for cloud applications? (Choose two.)

• Secure Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

• Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

• Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

• Open Authorization (OAuth)

• Hyper Text Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Question: What is a common threat to cloud environments?

• Shoulder surfing

• Malware on infected universal serial bus (USB) sticks

• Data loss

• Tailgating

Question: What is a multi-cloud environment?

• An environment that uses multiple operating systems in the cloud

• An environment that uses local and cloud-based virtual machines

• An environment that uses multiple virtual machines in the cloud

• An environment that has applications hosted on different cloud platforms and vendors

Question: Which security product allows visibility into a cloud environment and examines it for risk, threats, and compliance?

• Intrusion Detection

• Data Loss Prevention

• Cloud Native Protection

• Packet Capture and Sniffing

Question: Why do virtual machines (VMs) increase the potential attack surface?

• More computers increase the risk of compromise.

• More data used increases risk of corruption.

• More resources used increases power consumption.

• More network traffic increases bandwidth usage.

Question: What would you install in front of a protected cloud network to partition it from the internet?

• A cloud access security broker (CASB)

• A router

• A cloud native firewall

• A web gateway

• A security information and event management (SIEM) system

Question: What runs on a laptop, desktop, or server, and allows you to create a virtual machine (VM)?

• A hypervisor

• Random access memory (RAM)

• A virtual disk

• A basic input/output system (BIOS)