Post date: Mar 11, 2014 3:33:43 AM
“Ka’asher tziva ahleha Mordechai v’es ma’amar Mordechai Esther asa ka’asher haiyisa v’amnah ito”
As Mordechai had commanded her, and the word of Mordechai Esther continued to obey just as when she was raised by him
(2:20)
When the megilah tells us about Esther never revealing her nationality to Achashveirosh, why does the megilah change from using the term “command” to the term “word” within the very same Pasuk?
When Mordechai told her not to disclose her nationality, she was his foster child (or wife). His word to her was a command. But once she was queen and it came time to actually comply with his command, she was Achashveirosh’s wife, so she wasn't bound by Mordechai’s word anymore. However, the Pasuk tells us that she fulfilled his word as if she was commanded (and compelled to do so). We see this from the final words of the Pasuk, “ka’asher haiyisa v’amnah ito,” just as when she was raised by him, meaning that she obeyed the order in the same manner, with the same compulsion.
[Zvi Fleisher @ shemayisrael.com]
“Eivel gadol”
Great mourning
(4:3)
What does the Pasuk mean by the word “great” in reference to the mourning that took place?
The Medrash Rabbah explains that, typically, the intensity of mourning becomes diminished with the passage of time. However, in this case, the Jews’ mourning became greater in intensity as the date of Haman’s evil plan approach.
[Zvi Fleisher @ shemayisrael.com]