Upper Respiratory Infections
Board Review Questions
A 28-year-old female presents for evaluation of nasal congestion, sneezing, watery eyes, and
postnasal drip. This has been an intermittent issue for her every spring and she would like to
manage it more effectively.
Which one of the following treatments has been shown to be the most effective and best tolerated
first-line therapy for this patient’s condition?
A) A leukotriene receptor antagonist
B) Intranasal corticosteroid monotherapy
C) Intranasal corticosteroids plus an oral antihistamine
D) Inhaled corticosteroids
E) Annual triamcinolone injections
ANSWER: B
This patient has seasonal allergic rhinitis. A joint guideline statement from the American Academy of
Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology/American College of Allergy, Asthma, and Immunology Joint Task
Force on Practice Parameters recommends that monotherapy with intranasal corticosteroids should be
prescribed initially in patients 12 years of age rather than combined treatment with oral antihistamines
because data has not shown an additional benefit to adding the antihistamine. Higher patient adherence and
tolerance and fewer side effects were seen with the monotherapy regimen. High-quality evidence indicates
that intranasal corticosteroids were more effective than leukotriene receptor antagonists. Inhaled
corticosteroids and triamcinolone injections are not appropriate first-line options for the treatment of
seasonal allergic rhinitis.
Ref: Hauk L: Treatment of seasonal allergic rhinitis: A guideline from the AAAAI/ACAAI Joint Task Force on Practice
Parameters. Am Fam Physician 2018;97(11):756-757.
A 2-year-old female is brought to the urgent care clinic because of a fever. On examination she
has a temperature of 39.7°C (103.5°F). Within a short period of time while at the clinic she
develops a barking cough and respiratory distress, and you note rapid deterioration of her
condition.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Bacterial tracheitis
B) Epiglottitis
C) Foreign body aspiration
D) Peritonsillar abscess
ANSWER: A
This patient has bacterial tracheitis, which includes a high fever, barking cough, respiratory distress, and
rapid deterioration. Epiglottitis has an acute onset of dysphagia, drooling, and high fever, along with
anxiety and a muffled cough, and typically occurs in children 3–10 years of age. Foreign body aspiration
is associated with an acute onset of choking and drooling. A peritonsillar abscess would cause a sore
throat, fever, and “hot potato” voice.
Ref: Kuo CY, Parikh SR: Bacterial tracheitis. Pediatrics in Review 2014;35(11):497-499. 2) Smith DK, McDermott AJ, Sullivan
JF: Croup: Diagnosis and management. Am Fam Physician 2018;97(9):575-580.
After a thorough history and examination you determine that a 30-year-old male has an upper
respiratory infection with a persistent cough. He is afebrile and is otherwise healthy.
The best treatment for symptomatic relief of his persistent cough would be intranasal
A) antibiotics
B) antihistamines
C) corticosteroids
D) ipratropium (Atrovent)
E) saline
ANSWER: D
Upper respiratory tract infections are the most common acute illness in the United States. Symptoms are
self-limited and can include nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, sore throat, cough, general malaise, and a
low-grade fever. According to a Cochrane review of 10 trials without a meta-analysis, antitussives and
expectorants are no more effective than placebo for cough. Intranasal ipratropium is the only medication
that improves persistent cough related to upper respiratory infection in adults. Intranasal antibiotics,
antihistamines, corticosteroids, and saline would not improve this patient’s cough.
Ref: DeGeorge KC, Ring DJ, Dalrymple SN: Treatment of the common cold. Am Fam Physician 2019;100(5):281-289.
A 55-year-old female with diabetes mellitus and hypertension sees you because of a 3-month
history of a persistent nonproductive cough. Two weeks after the cough began she presented to
a local urgent care center with additional symptoms of sinus pressure, rhinorrhea, and subjective
wheezing. A lung examination and chest radiograph performed at that visit were unremarkable.
She was diagnosed with acute bronchitis and prescribed benzonatate (Tessalon). Since then, her
sinus-related symptoms have abated, although her cough has not improved. Her current
medications include metformin (Glucophage), lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril), and
hydrochlorothiazide, all of which were initiated 6 months ago. She has no known allergies and
has never smoked. A physical examination today is unremarkable.
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her cough?
A) Chronic lung disease
B) Infection
C) Malignancy
D) A medication side effect
E) A psychogenic habit
ANSWER: D
Of the choices listed, an adverse effect of medication, specifically lisinopril, is the most likely cause of this
patient’s persistent cough. ACE inhibitors are among the most common causes of chronic cough, with an
estimated incidence of 5%–35% of patients. The onset of an ACE inhibitor–induced cough may occur
within hours to months after the first dose. A proper evaluation of patients presenting with a chronic
cough, which is defined in adults as a persistent cough lasting >8 weeks, begins with a careful history,
with attention to smoking status, environmental exposures, and medication use. Identifying ACE inhibitor
use is particularly important for a patient with hypertension and diabetes mellitus presenting with a
persistent dry cough. If ACE inhibitor use is identified, consideration should be given to a trial of
medication elimination, which is the only way to determine if the medication is the cause. If so, the cough
should resolve within days, although resolution may take up to 3 months to occur.
Chronic lung disease, although a common cause of cough, would be less likely in a patient of this age with
symptoms only for the past several months, particularly without a smoking history or associated dyspnea.
Similarly, the absence of a tobacco history or alarm symptoms such as unintended weight loss or
hemoptysis, coupled with a normal chest radiograph, makes malignancy less likely. Infection is also less
likely, given the absence of constitutional symptoms coupled with a normal physical examination and
recent normal chest imaging. Psychogenic cough is a rare cause of cough in adults and children, and would
be much less likely in this situation.
Ref: Michaudet C, Malaty J: Chronic cough: Evaluation and management. Am Fam Physician 2017;96(9):575–580.
A 69-year-old male sees you for a routine examination and asks about lung cancer screening.
He smoked one pack of cigarettes per day for about 35 years but quit 11 years ago.
According to the U.S. Preventive Services Task Force and the American College of Chest
Physicians, which one of the following should you recommend?
A) No screening
B) An annual history and examination focusing on lung symptoms
C) Annual chest radiography
D) Annual low-dose chest CT
ANSWER: D
The U.S. Preventive Services Task Force and the American College of Chest Physicians support screening
for lung cancer with annual low-dose CT in patients 50–80 years of age who have a 20-pack-year smoking
history and who currently smoke or have smoked within the past 15 years. There is no evidence to support
an annual history and physical examination or annual chest radiography as screening tools for lung cancer.
Ref: Armstrong C: Lung cancer screening recommendations from the ACCP. Am Fam Physician 2018;98(11):688-689. 2)
Mazzone PJ, Silvestri GA, Patel S, et al: Screening for lung cancer: CHEST guideline and expert panel report. Chest
2018;153(4):954-985. 3) Final Recommendation Statement: Lung Cancer: Screening. US Preventive Services Task Force,
2021.
A 2-year-old female is brought to your office by her mother because of a cough and fever. The
mother also tells you that the child has had a reduced appetite but she is drinking fluids
normally. The child was born at term and has previously been healthy.
On examination the child appears alert and happy. She has a temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F),
a pulse rate of 100 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 30/min, and an oxygen saturation of 98% on
room air. An HEENT examination reveals clear rhinorrhea. Auscultation of the lungs reveals
mild expiratory wheezing throughout with no crackles, and you note no signs of respiratory
distress such as retractions or use of accessory muscles of respiration.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate next step?
A) Reassurance only
B) A nasal swab for respiratory syncytial virus
C) A chest radiograph
D) Nebulized albuterol
E) Oral amoxicillin
ANSWER: A
This patient has symptoms typical for respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) bronchiolitis. Since the patient
shows no signs of distress and is well hydrated, no specific treatment is necessary. Neither testing for RSV
nor obtaining a chest radiograph would change management, and therefore would not be indicated.
Albuterol is ineffective for the wheezing associated with RSV since the mechanism of wheezing is not due
to bronchospasm. Antibiotics are not indicated without evidence of a secondary bacterial infection.
Ref: Smith DK, Seales S, Budzik C: Respiratory syncytial virus bronchiolitis in children. Am Fam Physician 2017;95(2):94-99.
The most common symptom of obstructive sleep apnea is
A) cough
B) excessive sleepiness
C) leg swelling
D) palpitations
E) weight gain
ANSWER: B
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is the repetitive partial or complete collapse of the upper airway during
sleep, resulting in episodic apnea or hypopnea lasting at least 10 seconds. OSA is common and affects 17%
of women and 34% of men. Risk factors include increased BMI, male sex, postmenopausal state in
women, enlarged upper airway soft tissue, and craniofacial abnormalities. The most common presenting
symptom is excessive sleepiness; patients may also present with fatigue and lack of energy. Cough, leg
swelling, palpitations, and weight gain are not among the most common presenting symptoms of OSA.
OSA increases the incidence of heart failure, type 2 diabetes, hypertension, coronary heart disease, stroke,
atrial fibrillation, and death. OSA severity is quantified using the apnea-hypopnea index. The diagnostic
test of choice is laboratory-based polysomnography. Treatments include behavioral measures (alcohol
avoidance, weight loss, exercise, and not sleeping in the supine position), medical devices (CPAP, oral
devices), and surgery.
Ref: Gottlieb DK, Punjabi NM: Diagnosis and management of obstructive sleep apnea: A review. JAMA
2020;323(14):1389-1400.
A 70-year-old male presents with a 2-year history of gradually progressive exertional dyspnea
associated with a dry cough and fatigue. A physical examination reveals bilateral basilar fine
inspiratory crackles on lung auscultation and acrocyanosis. A chest radiograph demonstrates
hazy opacities and reticular infiltrates of both lower lung fields. You suspect interstitial lung
disease.
Assuming that no underlying connective tissue disease is identified on serologic testing, which
one of the following additional studies could confirm a diagnosis of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
for this patient, potentially preventing the need for a subsequent lung biopsy?
A) Spirometry
B) High-resolution chest CT
C) Polysomnography
D) Echocardiography
E) Right heart catheterization
ANSWER: B
This patient’s presentation is typical for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), a chronic and progressive
subtype of fibrotic interstitial lung disease (ILD) with an unknown cause, which affects older men more
than other individuals. Many patients who are ultimately diagnosed with ILD initially receive a diagnosis
of COPD or heart failure. Some patients experience dyspnea and dry cough up to 5 years before ILD is
recognized. Although IPF is associated with a high mortality rate, recent advances have been made in drug
therapies that slow the rate of disease progression, so early recognition and diagnosis of this condition in
the primary care setting is key to improving patient outcomes.
Nearly all patients with IPF experience chronic exertional dyspnea. Other common symptoms include
chronic nonproductive cough and fatigue. Bilateral “Velcro-like” crackles are nearly universal. Other
common examination findings include digital clubbing, acrocyanosis, and resting hypoxemia. Chest
radiographs are often normal or show nonspecific findings early in the disease course. Common findings
later in the disease include bilateral reticular infiltrates in the lower lung zones, hazy opacities, and low
inspiratory lung volumes.
Once ILD is suspected, further evaluation is indicated to determine a more specific diagnosis, as
management and prognosis differ by type. Of the options listed, only high-resolution chest CT has the
potential to provide a specific diagnosis of IPF, which usually has a characteristic pattern of bilateral
reticulation and honeycombing in the lung periphery and in the lower lobes termed usual interstitial
pneumonia. Spirometry usually shows a restrictive pattern, although it may be normal in early disease or
with comorbid emphysema. The presence of restrictive physiology is not specific to IPF but is seen more
generally with other forms of ILD as well. Polysomnography may identify an associated sleep disorder,
such as obstructive sleep apnea, but does not factor into making the diagnosis of IPF. Echocardiography
and right heart catheterization may help to identify associated pulmonary hypertension, although neither
would provide a specific diagnosis of IPF.
Ref: Lederer DJ, Martinez FJ: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. N Engl J Med 2018;378(19):1811-1823. 2) Wijsenbeek M, Cottin
V: Spectrum of fibrotic lung diseases. N Engl J Med 2020;383(10):958-968.
A 60-year-old male comes to your office with a 1-year history of the gradual onset of mild
fatigue and dyspnea. There are no symptom triggers. He has a 20-pack-year history of cigarette
smoking but stopped at age 35. An examination is significant only for a BMI of 30 kg/m2. Office
spirometry reveals a decreased FVC and a normal FEV1/FVC ratio, and there are no changes
after bronchodilator administration.
Which one of the following would you recommend at this point?
A) The 6-minute walk test
B) Bronchoprovocation testing such as a methacholine challenge test
C) Full pulmonary function testing
D) Bronchoscopy
E) A ventilation-perfusion scan
Item 70
ANSWER: C
Family physicians are often required to manage dyspnea and evaluate common office spirometry results.
The American Thoracic Society recommends full pulmonary function testing when office spirometry
suggests a restrictive pattern, which is the case with this patient’s normal FEV1/FVC ratio and decreased
FVC. Full laboratory pulmonary function testing gives further information about gas exchange and lung
volumes, which allows a more definitive diagnosis.
The 6-minute walk test is used to evaluate treatment response for known cardiopulmonary disease.
Bronchoprovocation testing helps identify asthma triggered by allergens or exercise when office spirometry
is normal. Bronchoscopy is an invasive test that is not indicated at this point in the evaluation. A
ventilation-perfusion scan is not appropriate because pulmonary embolus is not strongly suspected.
Ref: Budhwar N, Syed Z: Chronic dyspnea: Diagnosis and evaluation. Am Fam Physician 2020;101(9):542-548. 2) Langan RC,
Goodbred AJ: Office spirometry: Indications and interpretation. Am Fam Physician 2020;101(6):362-368.
A 30-year-old female who is an established patient calls your office to request a test for
COVID-19. The patient spent several hours inside the home of another individual who just
received a positive COVID-19 test result. She states that her sense of taste seems diminished,
but she has no respiratory symptoms and otherwise feels well.
Which one of the following is the typical incubation period for COVID-19?
A) 1 day
B) 5 days
C) 14 days
D) 30 days
ANSWER: B
SARS-CoV-2 is a respiratory coronavirus that is responsible for COVID-19. Knowledge of the natural
history of the viral infection will inform testing strategies and many other aspects of counseling of patients.
The incubation period measures the time from exposure to symptom onset. The typical incubation period
for COVID-19 is approximately 4–5 days, though it can range from 1–14 days.
Ref: COVID-19: Interim clinical guidance for management of patients with confirmed coronavirus disease (COVID-19). Centers
for Disease Control and Prevention, updated 2021.
A 78-year-old male with terminal lung cancer and long-standing COPD is admitted to a regular
medical-surgical care unit pending transfer to the hospice unit within the next day. You are
called about worsening anxiety and dyspnea. The patient is alert and anxious. He has a blood
pressure of 150/94 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 96 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 24/min, and an
oxygen saturation of 93% on 2 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula.
Which one of the following would be most effective in this situation?
A) 40% oxygen by venti-mask
B) Dexamethasone
C) Hyoscyamine (Anaspaz)
D) Lorazepam (Ativan)
E) Morphine sulfate
ANSWER: E
Opiates are the most effective agents for treating dyspnea and the resultant anxiety in patients with terminal
cancer. Higher levels of oxygen are indicated if the patient’s oxygen saturation is <92% and with caution
in patients with COPD so as not to suppress respiratory drive. Dexamethasone, hyoscyamine, and
lorazepam have a frequent role in patients such as this one, but morphine sulfate or a similar fast-acting
opiate is the drug of choice (SOR B).
Ref: Albert RH: End-of-life care: Managing common symptoms. Am Fam Physician 2017;95(6):356-361.
A 34-year-old female with asthma sees you for routine follow-up. She tells you that she uses her
short-acting β-agonist (SABA) approximately twice a week.
Which one of the following management strategies would you recommend for prevention of
exacerbations?
A) Continued use of a SABA as needed
B) An inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)/long-acting β-agonist (LABA) as needed
C) A daily maintenance ICS/LABA
D) A daily maintenance ICS plus a SABA as needed
E) A daily maintenance ICS plus a daily leukotriene receptor antagonist
ANSWER: B
For patients with mild asthma, recent evidence has shown that an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)/long-acting
β-agonist (LABA), such as budesonide/formoterol, as needed was as effective at preventing exacerbations
as a daily maintenance ICS plus a short-acting β-agonist (SABA) at one-fifth of the total corticosteroid
dose. In addition, it was more effective at preventing exacerbations than continued use of a SABA alone
as needed. A daily maintenance ICS inhaler plus either a LABA or a leukotriene receptor antagonist are
management strategies for persistent asthma.
Ref: Bateman ED, Reddel HK, O’Byrne PM, et al: As-needed budesonide-formoterol versus maintenance budesonide in mild
asthma. N Engl J Med 2018;378(20):1877-1887. 2) Beasley R, Holliday M, Reddel HK, et al: Controlled trial of
budesonide-formoterol as needed for mild asthma. N Engl J Med 2019;380(21):2020-2030. 3) Grad R, Ebell MH: Top
POEMS of 2018 consistent with the principles of the Choosing Wisely campaign. Am Fam Physician 2019;100(5):290-294.
A 6-year-old female who recently moved to the United States from India requires a physical
examination prior to entering the public school system. Her immunizations are up to date,
including bacillus Calmette-Guérin vaccine at birth. Her family history is positive for her
paternal grandfather being treated for latent tuberculosis infection. Her past medical history and
a physical examination are otherwise unremarkable.
Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this time?
A) An interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA, QuantiFERON-TB Gold)
B) A nucleic acid amplification test
C) A tuberculin skin test, and follow-up in 72 hours
D) Three acid-fast bacilli sputum samples and N95 mask use
E) A chest radiograph
ANSWER: A
The American Thoracic Society, Infectious Diseases Society of America, and CDC recommend testing for
tuberculosis with an interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA) rather than a tuberculin skin test (TST) in
individuals >5 years of age who have received the bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine. Since BCG
immunization will not cause false positives with an IGRA but does with a TST, an IGRA is preferred.
IGRA also would be ideal when the likelihood of the patient returning for follow-up is low. In this case,
the patient has received the BCG vaccine and she is new to the office and may not return since there is not
an established primary care provider relationship, so a TST requiring a 48- to 72-hour follow-up visit may
not be a reliable testing method. Performing a nucleic acid amplification test or obtaining acid-fast bacilli
specimens would be premature as there is no indication of active tuberculosis infection at this time.
Ordering a chest radiograph for an asymptomatic child without a positive test is also premature and exposes
the child to unnecessary radiation.
Ref: Hauk L: Tuberculosis: Guidelines for diagnosis from the ATS, IDSA, and CDC. Am Fam Physician 2018;97(1):56-58.
A 71-year-old female with a history of well controlled hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and
osteoporosis presents with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and a productive cough. She lives at
home with her husband, who has not noted any confusion but says she has been weak and unable
to bathe herself.
On examination the patient has a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F), a blood pressure of 110/68
mm Hg, unlabored respirations at a rate of 22/min, and an oxygen saturation of 94% on room
air. You note that she has good air entry, there are no abnormal breath sounds, and there is no
egophony or increased fremitus. The cardiovascular examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory Findings
WBCs 14,000/mm3 (N 4500–11,000)
Hemoglobin 12.5 g/dL (N 14.0–17.5)
Platelets 250,000/mm3 (N 150,000–350,000)
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL (N 0.6–1.2)
BUN 14 mg/dL (N 8–23)
Posteroanterior and lateral chest radiographs show an infiltrate in the right middle lobe.
Which one of the following would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Azithromycin (Zithromax)
B) Amoxicillin plus metronidazole (Flagyl)
C) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) plus azithromycin
D) Azithromycin plus levofloxacin
E) Clindamycin (Cleocin) plus doxycycline
ANSWER: C
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is an infection of the lung parenchyma that is not acquired in a
hospital, long-term care facility, or other health care setting, and it is a significant cause of morbidity and
mortality in adults. This patient has CAP in the presence of a significant comorbidity (diabetes mellitus).
After CAP is diagnosed the first decision to make is whether hospitalization is needed. In all patients with
CAP, mortality and severity prediction scores should be used to determine inpatient versus outpatient care
(SOR A). This patient has a CURB-65 score of 1 (age 65 years), so she can be treated as an outpatient.
For outpatients with comorbidities, amoxicillin/clavulanate is a possible treatment option, but it should be
paired with a macrolide. Macrolides such as azithromycin are the treatment of choice for previously
healthy outpatients with no history of antibiotic use within the past 3 months. Azithromycin monotherapy,
amoxicillin plus metronidazole, azithromycin plus levofloxacin, or clindamycin plus doxycycline would
not be appropriate treatment strategies for this patient with a significant comorbidity.
Ref: Metlay JP, Waterer GW, Long AC, et al: Diagnosis and treatment of adults with community-acquired pneumonia. An
official clinical practice guideline of the American Thoracic Society and Infectious Diseases Society of America. Am J
Respir Crit Care Med 2019;200(7):e45-e67.
In a patient with persistent respiratory symptoms, which one of the following pulmonary function
abnormalities after bronchodilator administration is required for the diagnosis of COPD?
A) Low residual volume
B) Low total lung capacity
C) An FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70
D) An FEV1 <85% of predicted
E) A peak flow <90% of predicted
ANSWER: C
In addition to the presence of relevant factors and chronic respiratory symptoms, a postbronchodilator
FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 is required for the diagnosis of COPD. COPD is classified as mild (FEV1 >80%
of predicted), moderate (FEV1 50%–79% of predicted), severe (FEV1 30%–49% of predicted), or very
severe (FEV1 <30% of predicted). Further pulmonary function testing may support the diagnosis, but it
is not required. For instance, a high total lung capacity indicating hyperinflation, a high residual volume
indicating air trapping, and a low diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide indicating impaired gas exchange
all suggest emphysema.
Ref: Labaki WW, Rosenberg SR: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Ann Intern Med 2020;173(3):ITC17-ITC32.
A 68-year-old male with a history of COPD, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia presents with a
worsening cough and dyspnea with exertion over the past 3 months. His symptoms were
previously well controlled with tiotropium (Spiriva) daily and albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin) as
needed, and he has not had any COPD exacerbations in the past year until these symptoms
began. He has not had any change in sputum production. Recently he has been using his
albuterol inhaler several times a day to help relieve his shortness of breath with exertion.
A physical examination reveals a temperature of 37.0°C (98.6°F), a heart rate of 78 beats/min,
a respiratory rate of 16/min, a blood pressure of 144/82 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation of
95% on room air. A cardiac evaluation reveals a regular rate and rhythm and he has no
peripheral edema or cyanosis. His lungs are clear with no wheezes or crackles, and there is a
mild prolonged expiratory phase.
According to current GOLD guidelines, which one of the following would be the most
appropriate next step in the management of this patient’s symptoms?
A) Add azithromycin (Zithromax)
B) Add inhaled fluticasone (Flovent)
C) Add inhaled salmeterol (Serevent)
D) Add inhaled fluticasone/salmeterol (Advair)
E) Discontinue tiotropium and start inhaled fluticasone
ANSWER: C
COPD is currently the third leading cause of death in the United States and is commonly treated by
primary care providers. In patients on monotherapy with a long-acting bronchodilator such as a long-acting
muscarinic agonist (LAMA) or long-acting -agonist (LABA) who have continued dyspnea, the Global
Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease (GOLD) guidelines recommend escalating therapy to two
bronchodilators. This patient has persistent dyspnea and is being treated with a single agent, a LAMA, so
his regimen needs to be escalated to include a LABA such as salmeterol. Once the symptoms are stabilized,
treatment can be de-escalated to a single agent. For patients with frequent COPD exacerbations or with
a diagnosis of asthma and COPD, the guidelines recommend adding an inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) such
as fluticasone to a LABA, LAMA, or both. Triple therapy with a LABA, a LAMA, and an ICS is not
indicated at this time as the patient has not yet been treated with a combination of a LAMA and LABA and
has not had any recent exacerbations. The addition of azithromycin may be considered in patients who are
already on triple therapy with a LABA, a LAMA, and an ICS and still having exacerbations. Monotherapy
with an ICS is not indicated in COPD and has been shown to increase the risk of developing pneumonia.
Ref: Gentry S, Gentry B: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: Diagnosis and management. Am Fam Physician
2017;95(7):433-441. 2) Global Strategy for the Diagnosis, Management, and Prevention of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary
Disease. Global Initiative for Chronic Obstructive Lung Disease, 2019. 3) Nici L, Mammen MJ, Charbek E, et al:
Pharmacologic management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. An official American Thoracic Society clinical
practice guideline. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2020;201(9):e56-e69.
A 5-year-old female has acute, severe bacterial sinusitis. Which one of the following would be
most appropriate for this patient?
A) Amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin)
B) Cephalexin
C) Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
D) Doxycycline
E) Levofloxacin
ANSWER: A
Patients with acute bacterial sinusitis who do not improve while taking the usual dose of amoxicillin, who
have recently been treated with an antimicrobial (within the past 90 days), who have an illness that is
moderate or more severe, or who attend day care should be treated with high-dose amoxicillin/clavulanate
in two divided doses. Alternate therapies include cefdinir, cefuroxime, or cefpodoxime. A single dose of
ceftriaxone, 50 mg/kg daily, either intravenously or intramuscularly, can be used in children who are
vomiting. Once there is clinical improvement, usually within about 24 hours, an oral antibiotic can be
started. Cephalexin is not recommended for treating acute bacterial sinusitis because of inadequate
antimicrobial coverage of the major organisms. Clarithromycin is not recommended as empiric therapy
because of high rates of resistance in Streptococcus pneumoniae. The use of doxycycline is not appropriate
in children. Levofloxacin would be appropriate if the patient had a history of type I hypersensitivity to
penicillin.
Ref: DeMuri GP, Wald ER: Acute bacterial sinusitis in children. N Engl J Med 2012;367(12):1128-1134. 2) Chow AW,
Benninger MS, Brook I, et al: IDSA clinical practice guideline for acute bacterial rhinosinusitis in children and adults. Clin
Infect Dis 2012;54(8):e72-e112. 3) Kliegman RM, St Geme JW III, Blum NJ, et al (eds): Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics,
ed 21. Elsevier Saunders, 2020, pp 2188-2191.
A 64-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a 10-day history of increasing
shortness of breath and mild tachycardia. On examination she has an oxygen saturation of 75%
on room air.
Which one of the following additional findings would suggest a diagnosis of acute respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS)?
A) Improved oxygen saturation with supplemental oxygen
B) Improvement of her symptoms with diuretic therapy
C) Bilateral airspace opacities seen on a chest radiograph
D) A flattened diaphragm seen on a chest radiograph
E) A right lower lobe infiltrate seen on a chest radiograph
ANSWER: C
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) will often present similarly to pneumonia and heart failure
with dyspnea, hypoxemia, and tachypnea. ARDS typically does not respond to supplemental oxygen or
diuretic therapy. Patients decompensate quickly and usually require mechanical ventilation. Chest
radiographic findings include bilateral airspace opacities but not a localized infiltrate as with pneumonia,
venous congestion or cardiac enlargement as with heart failure, or a flattened diaphragm (associated with
COPD).
Ref: Saguil A, Fargo MV: Acute respiratory distress syndrome: Diagnosis and management. Am Fam Physician
2020;101(12):730-738.
A patient’s office spirometry results demonstrate an obstructive pattern. This would be seen with
which one of the following?
A) Asbestosis exposure
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
D) Nitrofurantoin exposure
E) Sarcoidosis
ANSWER: B
Office spirometry can be very helpful in the development of a differential diagnosis. The differential can
be narrowed with the use of office spirometry, as many conditions create either an obstructive or restrictive
pattern. Of the options listed, only cystic fibrosis can cause an obstructive pattern. Other causes of an
obstructive pattern include asthma, COPD, α1-antitrypsin deficiency, and bronchiectasis, among others.
Common diseases or conditions causing restrictive patterns include adverse reactions to nitrofurantoin,
methotrexate, and amiodarone. Chest wall conditions such as kyphosis, scoliosis, and morbid obesity can
also cause restrictive patterns. Interstitial lung disease, including idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis,
sarcoidosis, and asbestosis, also causes a restrictive pattern (SOR A).
Ref: Langan RC, Goodbred AJ: Office spirometry: Indications and interpretation. Am Fam Physician 2020;101(6):362-368.
In patients diagnosed with COPD, testing should be considered for which one of the following
underlying conditions?
A) α1-Antitrypsin deficiency
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Hemochromatosis
D) Williams syndrome
E) Wilson’s disease
ANSWER: A
Clinicians should consider measuring the α 1-antitrypsin level in all symptomatic COPD patients with fixed
airflow obstruction, particularly with a COPD onset as early as the fifth decade of life; a family history
of α 1-antitrypsin deficiency; and emphysema, bronchiectasis, liver disease, or panniculitis in the absence
of a recognized risk factor. Identifying this condition is particularly important because current smokers
should be urged to quit, given that they are at high risk for accelerated lung function decline, and also to
consider intravenous pooled human α 1-antitrypsin, which has been shown to reduce declines in lung
function and lung density measured on chest CT. In this patient, testing for cystic fibrosis,
hemochromatosis, Williams syndrome, or Wilson’s disease would not be indicated.
Ref: Labaki WW, Rosenberg SR: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Ann Intern Med 2020;173(3):ITC17-ITC32.
An 18-year-old female comes to the urgent care clinic because of worsening nausea and
vomiting, itching, and a dry cough that began about 30 minutes after she ate lunch at a nearby
restaurant. She tells you that she did not experience any choking while eating her lunch, and she
has not had any dysphagia, rash, or diarrhea. She takes no medications, and her past medical
history is significant only for a severe nut allergy. She says that she was feeling well before
today. An examination is notable only for a blood pressure of 88/60 mm Hg, mildly labored
breathing, and bilateral expiratory wheezes.
At this point you would administer
A) albuterol (Proventil, Ventolin)
B) diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
C) epinephrine
D) hydroxyzine (Vistaril)
E) methylprednisolone (Medrol)
ANSWER: C
Most anaphylactic reactions occur outside of the hospital setting, and early treatment decreases both
hospitalizations and mortality. This patient presents with respiratory, dermatologic, cardiovascular, and
gastrointestinal symptoms, which are common in anaphylaxis. Tree nut and peanut allergies are risk factors
for severe reactions. Early treatment with intramuscular epinephrine and attention to airway, breathing,
and circulation are the first steps for treatment. Adjunct medications can be considered after epinephrine,
but antihistamines have an onset of action of 1 hour and corticosteroids have an onset of action of 6
hours. Albuterol may be considered as an adjunct but its use does not address the urgent need to resolve
anaphylaxis symptoms first.
Ref: Pflipsen MC, Vega Colon KM: Anaphylaxis recognition and management. Am Fam Physician 2020;102(6):355-362.
The American Thoracic Society/Infectious Diseases Society of America guidelines recommend
which one of the following for the diagnosis and initial management of non-severe
community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
A) Use of a validated clinical prediction rule to determine the need for hospitalization
B) Urine antigen testing for Legionella
C) Blood and sputum cultures to guide therapy
D) Procalcitonin to determine the need for antibacterial therapy
E) Coverage for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
ANSWER: A
The American Thoracic Society (ATS) and the Infectious Diseases Society of America (IDSA) guideline
recommends use of a validated clinical prediction rule, preferably the Pneumonia Severity Index (PSI),
to determine the need for hospitalization in adults diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)
(strong recommendation). The yield of blood cultures is around 2% (outpatients) to 9% (inpatients) in
adults with non-severe CAP. A sputum culture and a Gram stain of respiratory secretions are
recommended in patients classified as having severe CAP, or in those with strong risk factors for
methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) or Pseudomonas aeruginosa . Randomized trials have
failed to show a benefit for urinary antigen testing for Streptococcus pneumoniae and Legionella.
ATS/IDSA guidelines recommend empiric antibiotic therapy for adults with clinically suspected and
radiographically confirmed CAP regardless of the initial serum procalcitonin level (strong
recommendation). Coverage for MRSA is not recommended in patients without risk factors for MRSA
pneumonia.
Ref: Kaysin A, Viera AJ: Community-acquired pneumonia in adults: Diagnosis and management. Am Fam Physician
2016;94(9):698-706. 2) Metlay JP, Waterer GW, Long AC, et al: Diagnosis and treatment of adults with
community-acquired pneumonia. An official clinical practice guideline of the American Thoracic Society and Infectious
Diseases Society of America. Am J Respir Crit Care Med 2019;200(7):e45-e67.
A 66-year-old male presents to your office with a 1-week history of dyspnea with minimal
exertion but no chest pain. He has had mild hemoptysis. An examination reveals a pulse rate of
100 beats/min but no other remarkable findings. A chest radiograph, CBC, and metabolic panel
are normal, but his D-dimer level is elevated at 750 ng/mL (N <500).
Which one of the following would be the next step in the evaluation?
A) A BNP level
B) CT pulmonary angiography
C) An EKG
D) Pulmonary arteriography
E) A ventilation-perfusion scan
ANSWER: B
Pulmonary embolus is reliably diagnosed with CT pulmonary angiography (CTA), but there is now a
simple diagnostic algorithm to reduce the reliance on CTA. The simplified recommendations for ordering
CTA are a D-dimer 1000 ng/mL, or a D-dimer that is >500 ng/mL and hemoptysis, signs of deep vein
thrombosis, or a suspicion that pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis.
A BNP level would be useful in detecting heart failure, and an EKG would be more helpful if ischemic
heart disease were suspected. Pulmonary arteriography is invasive and carries a higher risk. A
ventilation-perfusion scan has less risk but is not as accurate.
Ref: van der Hulle T, Cheung WY, Kooij S, et al: Simplified diagnostic management of suspected pulmonary embolism (the
YEARS study): A prospective, multicentre, cohort study. Lancet 2017;390(10091):289-297. 2) Slattengren AH, Prasad S,
Bury C, et al: PURL: A better approach to the diagnosis of PE. J Fam Pract 2019;68(6):286, 287, 295.
You receive a call from the home health nurse who is caring for a bedridden 57-year-old male
with progressive multiple sclerosis. She is concerned that he has a weak cough reflex and may
not be swallowing safely. She has not witnessed an aspiration event. He was hospitalized for
pneumonia 4 months ago.
While awaiting the results of a full swallow evaluation, which one of the following is the most
appropriate intervention to prevent recurrent pneumonia in this patient?
A) The use of chlorhexidine mouthwashes
B) A mechanical soft diet with thickened liquids
C) Swallowing exercises
D) Antibiotic therapy for 24 hours
E) Placement of a nasogastric tube
ANSWER: B
This patient is at risk for aspiration pneumonia due to his neurologic disease and impaired cough reflex.
A swallow evaluation is appropriate. A mechanical soft diet with thickened liquids is recommended rather
than pureed foods and thin liquids. Addressing oral hygiene has shown no clear benefit, and the use of
chlorhexidine mouthwashes is controversial due to the risk of toxicity if aspirated. The effect of swallowing
exercises requires more study at this time. Prophylactic antibiotic therapy can be considered in comatose
patients following emergency intubation but is not appropriate in this scenario. Antibiotic therapy is
appropriate for signs and symptoms of aspiration pneumonia with or without chest radiograph findings and
depending on illness severity. The effect of nasogastric tube placement in preventing aspiration is unclear.
Ref: Mandell LA, Niederman MS: Aspiration pneumonia. N Engl J Med 2019;380(7):651-663.
A 2-year-old male with a barking cough is brought to the urgent care clinic by his parents. He
is noted to have stridor when agitated and mild retractions. He has a normal level of
consciousness, good air entry, and no evidence of cyanosis.
Which one of the following treatment modalities would be most appropriate?
A) Dexamethasone
B) Heliox
C) Humidified air inhalation
D) Nebulized epinephrine
E) Oxygen
ANSWER: A
Based on the Westley Croup Score, this patient has mild croup. Corticosteroids should be used in the
treatment of croup regardless of the degree of severity. Dexamethasone is preferred because it can be given
in a single dose and administered either orally, parentally, or intravenously. Heliox is a helium and oxygen
mixture that theoretically decreases airflow resistance but there is no clear evidence to support its use at
this time. Humidified air inhalation has not been shown to have a clinical benefit in terms of croup scores
or hospital admissions. Nebulized epinephrine should be reserved for patients with moderate to severe
croup. Oxygen should be administered if there are signs of hypoxemia or severe respiratory distress.
Ref: Johnson DW: Croup. BMJ Clin Evid 2014;2014:0321. 2) Smith DK, McDermott AJ, Sullivan JF: Croup: Diagnosis and
management. Am Fam Physician 2018;97(9):575-580.
A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office in her second trimester with a 24-hour history
of fever, cough, and myalgias. A nasal swab is positive for influenza A. She has a temperature
of 38.6°C (101.5°F), a heart rate of 100 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 15/min, a blood
pressure of 100/64 mm Hg, and an oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. On examination the
patient is warm to the touch with mild cervical lymphadenopathy and moist mucous membranes.
Her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally without wheezes, crackles, or rhonchi. A
cardiovascular examination reveals a regular rate and rhythm without murmurs, rubs, or gallops.
An abdominal examination is normal.
Which one of the following would be the medication of choice for this patient?
A) Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza)
B) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
C) Peramivir (Rapivab)
D) Zanamivir (Relenza)
ANSWER: B
Antiviral medications are recommended for the treatment of influenza only within 48 hours of symptom
onset (SOR A). However, in high-risk patient populations and in severe cases of disease, antivirals should
be provided regardless of the duration of symptoms (SOR B). According to the CDC, oseltamivir remains
the drug of choice for the treatment of influenza during pregnancy because it has good safety data.
Baloxavir marboxil is indicated for patients >12 years of age but should be avoided during pregnancy.
There is less safety data for peramivir and zanamivir.
Ref: Cayley WE Jr: Vaccines for preventing influenza in healthy children, healthy adults, and older adults. Am Fam Physician
2019;100(3):143-146. 2) Armstrong C: Influenza vaccination: Updated recommendations from ACIP. Am Fam Physician
2019;100(8):505-507. 3) Gaitonde DY, Moore FC, Morgan MK: Influenza: Diagnosis and treatment. Am Fam Physician
2019;100(12):751-758. 4) Erlich DR: Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza) for influenza. Am Fam Physician
2019;100(12):776-777. 5) Influenza (flu): Recommendations for obstetric health care providers related to use of antiviral
medications in the treatment and prevention of influenza. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, reviewed 2020.
A 59-year-old male presents with difficulty breathing during exercise. He says that his symptoms
have gradually worsened over the past year and he has had to discontinue his morning walks.
He reports mild lower extremity edema and weight gain. He has a blood pressure of 115/79 mm
Hg, a heart rate of 88 beats/min, and an oxygen saturation of 92% on room air. A physical
examination is notable for mild jugular venous distention and 1+ bilateral lower extremity
edema. Examination of the heart reveals a normal rate and rhythm with an S3 heart sound. The
lungs are clear to auscultation. You order a CBC, a comprehensive metabolic panel, an EKG,
a chest radiograph, and echocardiography.
While awaiting the results you consider the differential diagnosis. Which one of the following
conditions is the most common cause of pulmonary hypertension?
A) Chronic thromboembolism
B) COPD
C) Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension
D) Left heart disease
E) Sleep-disordered breathing
ANSWER: D
This patient has signs and symptoms of pulmonary hypertension. Diagnostic tests, particularly
echocardiography, can confirm this diagnosis. It is important to determine the etiology since addressing
the underlying condition is the preferred treatment for most cases of non-severe pulmonary hypertension.
Left heart disease, including both preserved and reduced systolic function, is the most common cause of
pulmonary hypertension, while chronic thromboembolism, COPD, and sleep-disordered breathing are
other possible but less common causes. Idiopathic pulmonary arterial hypertension is a rare cause.
Ref: Rich JD, Rich S: Clinical diagnosis of pulmonary hypertension. Circulation 2014;130(20):1820-1830. 2) Rakel RE, Rakel
DP (eds): Textbook of Family Medicine, ed 9. Elsevier Saunders, 2016, p 264.
A 60-year-old male who is a bricklayer presents to your office in Florida with a fever, fatigue,
headaches, night sweats, cough, and intermittent dyspnea. He also has myalgias and arthralgias.
His symptoms started after he returned from a job in Arizona 2 weeks ago. He does not have
any other travel history or sick contacts. His vital signs and a physical examination are
unremarkable. A chest radiograph does not show any acute pathology. A CBC shows
eosinophilia and his erythrocyte sedimentation rate is mildly elevated.
Which one of the following is the most likely pathogen?
A) Aspergillus
B) Blastomyces
C) Coccidioides
D) Cryptococcus
E) Histoplasma
ANSWER: C
Inhaling airborne spores of the fungus Coccidioides immitis or Coccidioides posadasii causes primary
pulmonary coccidioidomycosis (valley fever). Traveling to or residing in areas endemic for Coccidioides
is required for the diagnosis, since no zoonotic contagion or person-to-person contagion occurs.
Coccidioides has been identified as the cause of 17%–29% of all cases of community-acquired pneumonia
in endemic areas. This patient traveled to an endemic area and engaged in dusty outdoor activities, which
puts him at a higher risk for infection, and he presents with common symptoms of primary pulmonary
coccidioidomycosis. A chest radiograph often appears normal on the initial evaluation. Eosinophilia should
raise suspicion for coccidioidomycosis but laboratory detection of Coccidioides is required for a definitive
diagnosis. In symptomatic patients who have a clinically significant disease or an elevated risk of
dissemination, antifungals are recommended for treatment. Although Aspergillus, Blastomyces,
Cryptococcus, and Histoplasma may cause similar symptoms, the test findings and travel history make
Coccidioides the most likely pathogen in this case.
Ref: Herrick KR, Trondle ME, Febles TT: Coccidioidomycosis (valley fever) in primary care. Am Fam Physician
2020;101(4):221-228.