MFA , MEDICARE ,EFA EXIT EXAM QUESTIOS
1. What is not a sign of shock?
A. Pale, clammy skin
B. Increased pulse rate
C. Nausea
D. Wide eyes and open mouth ANSWER
2. What position should the head be in during a nosebleed?
A. Head forward ANSWER
B. Head level
C. Head backwards
D. Head tilted to side
3. Bandages are used for
A. Applying directly to a wound to soak up blood
B. To hold dressings in place, apply pressure and control bleeding ANSWER
C. Ease pain
D. Small cuts only
4. Adult CPR guidelines include male adolescents who present with chest or
underarm hair and female adolescents with any breast development.
A.True ANSWER
B.False
5. During 2 rescuer CPR on an adult how many cycles of CPR do you perform
before switching roles?
A. 5 cycles ANSWER
B. 2 cycles
C. 30: 2 cycles
D. 4 cycles
6. Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when
A. You have to move or transport the victim.
B. You can do so without hurting the victim.
C. You have splinting materials available
D. Both a and b ANSWER
7. Lividity refers to:
a. Stiffening of the joints post mortem.
b. Cooling of the body post mortem.
c. Settling of blood in the body due to gravity. ANSWER
d. The beginning signs of decomposition.
8. The emergency responder is one link in
the chain of services known as the:
a. Emergency Patient Care (EPC)
system.
b. Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
system. ANSWER
c. Professional Emergency Care (PEC)
system.
d. Community Medical Care (CMC)
system.
9. An industrial worker sustains a severe
laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure
to the wound fails to control the bleeding.
The correct arterial pressure point to
control the bleeding is the:
a. Carotid.
b. Radial.
c. Femoral.
d. Brachial. ANSWER
11. To treat a nosebleed, hold pressure on the bridge of the nose and have the
person:
A. Lean slightly back
B. Lean slightly forward ANSWER
C. Apply a heat pack to the nose
D. Lie flat on the floor
12. You can best control the swelling and pain
of an ankle sprain by:
a. Tight bandages and a heating pad.
b. Rest, immbolization, application of cold,
and elevation. ANSWER
c. Rigid splints and bandages
d. Compression, elevation and application
of heat.
13. In cases of behavioural disorders, the
responder should:
a. Always use restraints.
b. Give the patient a choice in the treatment ANSWER
c. Play along with auditory or visual
hallucinations.
d. Force the patient to make decisions.
14. A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up
blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most
likely wrong?
a) He is having a seizure.
b) He has internal bleeding. ANSWER
c) He is having a heart attack.
d) He is having a diabetic emergency.
15. If you suspect someone is going into SHOCK you should NOT give them,
a. REASSURANCE
B. COMFORT
C. WATER - ANSWER
D. A BLANKET
16. When performing chest compressions on an adult, we press the chest:
a. 2-3cm ANSWER
b. 2.5 – 3.5 cm
c. 4-5 cm
1) Your check of the scene suggests that a victim has suffered an electrical
shock. The first thing to do is:
a) Cover all burns with a dry loose dressing.
b) Ask a bystander to help you move the victim.
c) Place the victim on one side with the head down.
d) Make sure the power is turned off. *
2) A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be
coughing up blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and
fast. What is most likely wrong?
a) He is having a seizure.
b) He has internal bleeding. *
c) He is having a heart attack.
d) He is having a diabetic emergency.
3) You are caring for a victim with a burned hand. Put the hand in cool
water if:
a) The burns are very deep
b) There are burns with open blisters.
c) The burns are minor with no open blisters.
d) You should put the hand in cool water for all of the above. *
4) In general a splint should be:
a) Loose, so that the victim can still move the injured limb.
b) Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation. *
c) Tied with cravats over the injured area.
d) None of the above.
5) A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is
breathing fast and seems pail and restless. He is probably:
a) Having a stroke.
b) Having a heart attack.
c) In shock. *
d) Choking.
6) You suspect that a person has been poisoned. She is conscious. Your
first call should be to:
a) The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number. *
b) The victim’s physician.
c) The hospital emergency department.
d) The local pharmacy.
7) Which would you do when caring for a seizure victim?
a) Remove nearby objects that might cause injury. *
b) Place a small object, such as a rolled up piece of cloth, between the
victims teeth.
c) Try to hold the person still.
d) All of the above.
8) Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when:
a) You have to move or transport the victim.
b) You can do so without hurting the victim.
c) You have splinting materials available.
d) Both a and b*
9) For which of the following burn victims should you immediately call your
local emergency phone number?
a) A 40 year old man who has burned his hand with hot coffee.
b) A 68 year old woman who has a blistered grease burn on her hands and
arms. *
c) A 26 year old woman who has a sunburn on her shoulders.
d) All of the above.
10) A 15 year old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face. After
sending someone to call for an ambulance, you would:
a) Cover the burned area.
b) Have the victim stay calm until ambulance arrives.
c) Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance
arrives. *
d) Immediately drive the victim to the hospital.
11) Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing?
a) To prevent infection. *
b) To cool burned area.
c) To keep the burned area warm.
d) Both a and c
12) You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen
and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would:
a) Roll the victim onto his stomach keeping the head and back in a straight
line.
b) Roll the victim onto one side.
c) Position victim onto one side.
d) Attempt to keep the victim from moving. *
13) A victim has a large piece of glass sticking out of her leg. You should:
a) Leave the glass in her leg and control the bleeding.
b) Call your local emergency phone number.
c) Remove the glass and then control the bleeding.
d) Both a and b*
14) What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been
seriously burned?
a) Checking the scene for safety. *
b) Checking the victims breathing and pulse.
c) Calling your local emergency phone number.
d) Cooling the burned area.
15) A woman has fallen and turned her ankle. She says she heard
something snap. She looks pale and is sweating. What should you do?
a) Have the victim walk on the injured ankle.
b) Care for the injury as if it were serious. *
c) Apply heat and elevate the injury.
d) Apply a dressing and loosely bandage.
16) Which of the following should be done for a person experiencing a heat
related illness.
a) Keep the victim warm.
b) Force the victim to drink fluids.
c) Apply cool wet cloths. *
d) Place the victim in warm water.
17) You feel a sudden sharp pain in the bottom of your left foot. You look at
the bottom of your left shoe and see a tack sticking in your shoe. What type
of wound do you probably have?
a) Avulsion
b) Bruise
c) Scrape
d) Puncture*
18) Which should be part of your care for a severely bleeding open wound?
a) Allow the wound to bleed in order to minimize infection.
b) Apply direct pressure and elevate the injured area. (if no broken bones) *
c) Use a tourniquet to stop all blood flow.
d) Both b and c
19) What should you do if you think a victim has serious internal bleeding?
a) Apply heat to the injured area.
b) Call your local emergency phone number for help. *
c) Place the victim in a sitting position.
d) Give fluids to replace blood loss.
20) Which of the following behaviors reduces your risk for injury?
a) Always wearing a safety belt when riding in automobiles.
b) Limiting intake of alcohol.
c) Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol.
d) Both a and b*
21) Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds.
a) Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing. *
b) Apply pressure at the pressure point.
c) Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood soaked bandages.
d) Elevate the wound.
22) How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for
open, bleeding wounds?
a) Wash your hands immediately after giving care.
b) Avoid direct contact with blood.
c) Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap.
d) All of the above. *
23) You have tried to control a victim's bleeding with direct pressure and
elevation, but the bleeding doesn’t stop. Where would you apply pressure to
slow the flow of blood to a wound on the forearm?
a) Outside the arm midway between the shoulder and the elbow.
b) On the inside of the elbow.
c) Inside the arm between the shoulder and the elbow. *
d) Any of the above will slow the flow of blood.
24) Dressing and bandages are used to:
a) Reduce the victim's pain.
b) Reduce internal bleeding.
c) Help control bleeding and prevent infection. *
d) Make it easier to take the victim to the hospital.
25) Most injuries are due to situations that:
a) You have no control over or could not have been prevented.
b) You have some control over or could have been prevented. *
c) Involve five or more people.
d) Involve water sports.
26) Where is the carotid artery located?
a) Inside the wrist just above the hand.
b) On the neck to the right or left of the wind pipe. *
c) Behind the knee cap.
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.
27) On an infant, where would you check the pulse?
a) Inside the wrist just above the hand.
b) On the neck to the right or left side of the wind pipe.
c) Behind the knee cap.
d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder. *
28) For an infant who is choking, you would perform:
a) The Hiemlick maneuver.
b) CPR
c) Back blows and chest thrusts. *
d) Hold the infant upside down and strike between the shoulder blades.
29) Breathing emergencies may be caused from:
a) Asthma
b) Hyperventilation
c) Allergic reaction
d) Injury to a muscle or bone in the chest
e) All of the above*
30) A person who is unconscious, not breathing, has a weak pulse, needs:
a) CPR
b) Hiemlick maneuver.
c) Rescue breathing. *
d) Back blows and chest thrusts.
31) When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult
____ chest thrusts. For an infant you would give ____ back blows and ____
chest thrusts.
a) 3,3,3
b) 5,3,3
c) 5,5,5*
d) 3,5,5
32) Which is not a symptom of heart attack.
a) Chest pain.
b) Red, hot or dry skin. *
c) Pale or bluish in color.
d) Profuse sweating.
33) When performing adult CPR you give:
a) 2 slow breaths & 30 chest compressions. *
b) 1 slow breath & 10 chest compressions.
c) 5 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions.
d) 3 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions.
34) When performing CPR on a child you give:
a) 4 slow breaths & 20 chest compressions.
b) 1 slow breath & 5 chest compressions. *
c) 2 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions.
d) 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions.
35) A wound where there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels
under the skin is called:
a) A scrape
b) A cut
c) A bruise*
d) An avulsion
36) When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first?
a) Elevate the injury.
b) Apply direct pressure. *
c) Apply a loose dressing.
d) Apply a tourniquet.
37) Bandages are used for:
a) Applying directly to a wound to soak up blood.
b) To hold dressings in place, apply pressure and control bleeding. *
c) Ease pain.
d) Small cuts only.
38) Dressings and pads:
a) Should be removed when blood soaked. New ones should be applied.
b) Are used to help control bleeding and keep germs out. *
c) Are not included in a first aid kit.
d) Should be applied to a sucking chest wound.
39) Elastic bandages are used:
a) To control bleeding
b) Control swelling and support injuries such as sprains or strains. *
c) To allow circulation to a severed limb.
d) When applying a splint.
40) When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand, you
should:
a) Remove the object, flush with cool water, and transport to hospital.
b) Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it. *
c) Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury.
d) None of the above.
41) When caring for a victim with a bloody nose you would not:
a) Apply an ice pack to the bridge of the nose.
b) Apply pressure to upper lip just beneath nose.
c) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward while pinching the
nostrils together.
d) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backward while pinching the
nostrils together. *
42) A student on your bus has been hit in the mouth and a tooth was
knocked out you should:
a) Control the bleeding and have student bite down on a rolled sterile
dressing in the space left by the tooth.
b) Save the tooth by placing it in milk or water.
c) Wrap the tooth in a dry tissue and give to student to take to dentist.
d) Both a and b*
43) Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding?
a) Rapid weak pulse.
b) Skin that feels cool or moist, or looks pale or bluish.
c) Excessive thirst.
d) Tender, swollen, bruised, or hard areas of his body, such as the abdomen.
e) All of the above. *
44) Wounds that would require stitches are:
a) Over an inch long.
b) Bleeding from an artery or uncontrolled bleeding.
c) Human or animal bites.
d) All of the above. *
45) Which is not a symptom of shock:
a) Strong thirst, nausea, or vomiting.
b) Rapid breathing or rapid pulse.
c) Restless or irritability.
d) Chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty. *
46) A first degree burn:
a) Involves only the top layer of skin. *
b) Is red and blistered.
c) Destroys all layers of skin.
d) Is the most serious of burns.
47) When caring for a victim who has a large burn on their forearm, you:
a) Use large amounts of cool water to cool the burn. *
b) Use ice or ice water to cool the burn.
c) Remove any cloth that has stuck to the burn and apply burn cream.
d) All of the above.
48) When caring for someone who has suffered an electrical burn, you would
not:
a) Check breathing and pulse.
b) Check for possible fractures.
c) Cool the burned area. *
d) Treat for shock.
49) You should suspect that a victim has head and spine injuries for:
a) An incident involving a lightning strike.
b) A person found unconscious for unknown reasons.
c) A fall from the height greater than the victims height.
d) All of the above. *
50) You may suspect that a student has been poisoned if they:
a) Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrhea.
b) Have chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty.
c) Burns around the lips, tongue, or on the skin.
d) All of the above. *
51) When caring for a student who is allergic to bees and has just been
stung, you should:
a) Give them an injection with their Epi-pen.
b) Apply a heat pack to ease pain.
c) Apply a cold pack. *
d) Both a and c
52) Signals of an allergic reaction to a bee sting are:
a) Feeling of tightness in the chest and throat.
b) Swelling of the face neck and tongue.
c) Rash, dizziness, or confusion
d) All of the above. *
53) When caring for a student who is suffering from heat cramps.
a) Apply cold packs.
b) Give cool water or sports drink. *
c) Have student keep walking slowly to work the cramp out.
d) Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation.
54) What symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion:
a) Cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin. *
b) Rapid weak pulse.
c) Rapid, shallow breathing.
d) All of the above.
55) Heat stroke:
a) Causes very high body temperature.
b) Hot red or dry skin.
c) Rapid weak pulse, shallow breathing.
d) All of the above. *
56) When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should
not:
a) Soak effected part in warm water 100 to 105 degrees.
b) Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm. *
c) Handle area gently.
d) Avoid breaking blisters.
57) Hypothermia:
a) Is not life threatening.
b) Victims must be heated up as fast as possible.
c) Is caused by exposure to temperatures below freezing.
d) Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70 degrees. *
58) Snake bites can be very serious. When caring for a snake bite victim,
which should you not do?
a) Wash wounds.
b) Apply ice. *
c) Keep bitten part still and below the heart.
d) Get professional medical care within 30 minutes.
59) When performing infant CPR or rescue breathing, what kind of breaths
should you give to avoid forcing air into the infant’s stomach?
a) Hard and fast.
b) Smooth and fast.
c) Slowly and gently. *
d) Long and hard.
60) Your role in making the EMS system work effectively includes four steps.
a) Elevate, Identify, decide, execute.
b) Check, call, care, protect.
c) Recognize, decide, call, provide. *
d) None of the above.
61) When should you give rescue breathing?
a) Conscious choking victim.
b) Unconscious choking victim.
c) Unconscious, no pulse, not breathing.
d) Unconscious, not breathing, but has a pulse. *
62) What would you do if a victim had a body part torn or cut off?
a) Wrap severed body part in sterile gauze.
b) Place in a plastic bag.
c) Put the plastic bag on ice and take it to the hospital with victim.
d) All of the above. *
63) What would you do for a victim who has internal bleeding?
a) Keep the victim quiet and lying down. *
b) Bend knees to make them comfortable.
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.
64) To care for a victim with a sucking chest wound, you would?
a) Cover the wound completely with a sterile gauze pad.
b) Cover the wound with a dressing that doesn’t allow air to pass through.
c) Apply ice pack to the wound. *
d) Both a and c
65) Internal bleeding can be caused by:
a) Injury
b) Illness
c) Medication
d) All of the above. *
66) When caring for a choking infant, what position is the infant held in?
a) Upside down by the ankles and shoulders.
b) Face up on a flat surface.
c) Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body. *
d) Face down on your knee, with head lower than the body.
67) Soft tissue wounds should be cared for by:
a) Heat and elastic bandages.
b) Ice and elevation.
c) Apply direct pressure on the area to cut down on bleeding under skin.
d) Both b and c*
68) What do you do for a chemical burn?
a) Flush with water, dry, and cover.
b) Flush with large amounts of water and cover.
c) Flush with large amounts of warm water until help arrives.
d) Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives. *
69) What is the most common reason an infant’s heart stops?
a) Allergies
b) Injury
c) Breathing problems. *
d) SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)
70) When can you move a victim?
a) When you need to care for another victim.
b) When the victim is in danger. *
c) When it would be easier to care for the victim.
d) All of the above.
71) What do you do for a victim who has a bleeding injury to the mouth and
you are sure that there is no head, neck, or spine injury.
a) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly forward. *
b) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly backward.
c) Have the victim lie down on their side.
d) None of the above.
72) What is more serious?
a) Heat Stroke*
b) Heat Exhaustion
c) Heat Cramps
d) Heat Rash
73) To encourage people to help others in emergency situations, most states
have enacted laws, which protect you, as a rescuer, from being sued. This
is called:
a) The Good-Will Law
b) The First Aid No-Fault Law
c) The Good Samaritan Law*
d) There is no such law
74) Signals of head and spine injuries are:
a) Blood or other fluids in the ears or nose.
b) Unusual bumps or depressions on the head or over the spine.
c) Has seizures, severe headaches, or slurred speech.
d) Both a and b
e) All of the above. *
75) Shock is a condition where:
a) The respiratory system fails to deliver air to the lungs.
b) The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to the heart.
c) The circulatory system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body.*
d) All of the above.
1. The acronym SAMPLE stand for signs and
symptoms, allergies, medications, past
history, ________ and events.
a. Location of pain.
b. Last bowel movement.
c. Last meal.
d. Latest related injury.
2. Which one of the following is not a system
of the body:
a. Respiratory.
b. Musculoskeletal.
c. Endocrine.
d. Follicular.
3. Increased respiratory difficulty
accompanied by a weak ineffective
cough, wheezing, high-pitched
crowing noises and cyanosis are
signs of:
a. Mild airway obstruction
b. C.O.P.D.
c. Severe airway obstruction.
d. Complete airway obstruction.
4. The most important step in managing
shock is to:
a. Keep the patient warm.
b. Give CPR as soon as possible.
c. Give first aid for the illness or injury.
d. Elevate the lower extremities.
Instructions
Complete questions 1 through 50 for each of the following multiple choice questions (1 mark
each). Circle the letter (a, b, c, d) indicating your answer. If you change your answer before handing
in your paper, circle your new choice, place an "X" over your previous choice and initial the change.
Select the single BEST answer to each of the following questions.
CORE SESSIONS
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March 2007
5. A small percentage of casualties with
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
have hypoxic drive. These patients
breathe because of a:
a. High oxygen level.
b. Low oxygen level.
c. High carbon dioxide level.
d. Low carbon dioxide level.
6. The emergency responder is one link in
the chain of services known as the:
a. Emergency Patient Care (EPC)
system.
b. Emergency Medical Services (EMS)
system.
c. Professional Emergency Care (PEC)
system.
d. Community Medical Care (CMC)
system.
7. The acronym used to assist the
emergency responder assessing the
patient's level of responsiveness is:
a. SAMPLE.
b. EMCA.
c. OPQRST.
d. AVPU.
8. An industrial worker sustains a severe
laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure
to the wound fails to control the bleeding.
The correct arterial pressure point to
control the bleeding is the:
a. Carotid.
b. Radial.
c. Femoral.
d. Brachial.
9. Pressing on a fingernail-bed to observe the
return of normal colour is done to check
for:
a. Normal blood circulation to that part.
b. The presence of fractured fingers.
c. Pain in the area.
d. A lack of oxygen in the blood.
10. Your primary survey of a casualty involved in
a serious car collision shows only that he is
confused. Later you find his pulse rate at
140 and weak, his skin cold and clammy and
his breathing irregular and gasping. These
signs, along with the mechanism of injury,
indicate:
a. An oncoming faint.
b. Emotional stress.
c. Internal bleeding.
d. Onset of diabetic coma.
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March 2007
11. For which one of the following infectious
diseases is a vaccine presently available:
a. Herpes.
b. AIDS.
c. Mononucleosis.
d. Hepatitis B.
12. Based on current research, which of the
following statements about the AIDS virus
is correct?
a. It can be found in blood and semen.
b. It can be transmitted by sharing eating
utensils.
c. It can be transmitted by shaking hands.
d. It can be found in perspiration.
14. During the primary assessment of a
responsive adult patient, you detect a
breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute.
You would categorize this as:
a. Above normal.
b. Below normal.
c. Normal.
d. Indeterminate.
15. A blood-soaked dressing on the arm
indicates that bleeding has not yet been
controlled. You should now:
a. Remove the dressing and check the
wound.
b. Apply pressure to the femoral artery.
c. Place a clean dressing on top and
apply more pressure.
d. Apply a tourniquet.
16. The type of shock that is caused by a
severe infection is called:
a. Septic.
b. Psychogenic.
c. Cardiogenic.
d. Hemorrhagic.
13. In a hazmat situation airway management
and immobilzation are carried out in the:
a. hot zone
b. warm zone
c. cold zone
d. neutral zone
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March 2007
17. Which one of the following is considered
a breach of duty:
a. failure to obtain consent.
b. failure to wear your name tag.
c. inappropriate use of lights and siren.
d. insubordination.
18. Immediately before a seizure, the patient
experiences an unpleasant odour. This
phase is referred to as:
a. Clonic.
b. Aura.
c. Tonic.
d. Postical.
19. The emergency responder should
assume a head/spinal injury in any
unwitnessed situation where the patient
is:
a. Alert.
b. Responsive to pain.
c. Not breathing.
d. Unresponsive.
20. The secondary assessment of the patient
consists of a head to toe examination and a
check of the:
a. Pressure points.
b. Procedures for administering CPR.
c. Manual stabilization of the head.
d. Vital signs.
21. You are taking blood pressure by palpation.
A radial pulse indicates a blood pressure of
at least:
a. 110 mmHg
b. 100 mmHg
c. 90 mmHg
d. 80 mmHg
22. You are called for an asthma attack,
treatments may include all except:
a. Metered dose inhaler
b. Bronchodilators
c. Nitroglycerin
d. Inhaled steroids
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March 2007
24. Which one of the following conditions may
mimic the signs of acute alcohol
intoxication?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Congestive heart failure.
c. Absence seizures.
d. Anaphylactic shock.
25. Which one of the following breathing
diseases is included in C.O.P.D.:
a. Croup.
b. Hyperventilation
c. Emphysema.
d. Dyspnea
26. A condition where air builds up in the
pleural space, collapses the lung and
puts pressure on the heart is called:
a. Closed pneumothorax
b. Tension pneumothorax
c. Hemothorax
d. Open pneumothorax
27. Oxygen humidification is recommended if
you are administering oxygen for longer
than:
a. 15 minutes.
b. 30 minutes.
c. 60 minutes.
d. 90 minutes.
28. You find a male patient with obvious
difficulty breathing. He is using his neck
muscles, and is cyanotic. There are red
blotches on his chest, and his neck is
swelling. You suspect :
a. Anaphylaxis.
b. Bronchitis.
c. Emphysema.
d. Asthma.
23. In topographic anatomy, the term "lateral"
means:
a. Nearer the midline of the body.
b. Away from the midline of the body.
c. Nearer the head.
d. Away from the head.
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March 2007
29. When you are giving mouth-to-nose AR,
you should:
a. Hold the casualty's mouth closed.
b. Pinch the nostrils closed before
blowing air into the casualty.
c. Tilt the head back less than for the
mouth-to-mouth method of AR.
d. Keep the mouth and nose closed
between breaths.
32. A rapid body survey should take no longer
than:
a. 30 seconds
b. 45 seconds
c. 60 seconds
d. 90 seconds
34. ASA should be offered to the patient with
chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin:
a. Before the first dose of nitro
b. After the first dose of nitro
c. After the second dose of nitro
d. After the third dose of nitro
30. During one-rescuer CPR for adults, the
ratio of compressions to ventilations
should be:
a. 5:1
b. 15:2
c. 30:2
d. 35:2
33. To correctly size an oropharyngeal airway
place the flange at the corner of the mouth
with the tip reaching:
a. The angle of the patient's jaw
b. The top of the patient's ear
c. The patient's earlobe
d. Two fingerswidth from the flange.
31. A guideline for normal systolic blood
pressure in an adult male would be:
a. 50 plus the man's age up to 150 mm.
Hg.
b. 65 plus the man's age up to 120 mm.
Hg.
c. 80 plus the man's age up to 130 mm.
Hg.
d. 100 plus the man's age up to 150
mm. Hg.
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March 2007
35. When suctioning a non-breathing adult
casualty, a first aider should:
a. Apply suction as soon as the suction tip
touches the mouth.
b. Insert the suction tip deep into the
larynx.
c. Suction for no more than 15 seconds.
d. Insert the tip with the curved side
towards the tongue.
38. A flail chest results when :
a. Three ribs are broken on each side of
the chest.
b. Part of the spine becomes separated
from the ribs.
c. The breastbone is broken in three
places.
d. Several ribs are broken in more than
one place.
36. Which of the following devices provides the
highest percentage of O2 delivery?
a. Nasal cannula.
b. Plastic face mask.
c. Partial rebreathing mask.
d. Non-rebreathing mask.
40. OPQRST is used to assess:
a. Pain
b. Level of consciousness
c. Vision
d. Hearing
37. You suspect a patient's pain is due to a
myocardial infarction rather than angina
because the pain:
a. Is under the sternum.
b. Radiates to the neck, jaw and arms.
c. Is not relieved by rest or medication.
d. Lasts for about 3 minutes.
39. Status epilepticus refers to:
a. Normal seizure pattern in epilepsy.
b. Seizures caused by a high fever.
c. Continuous seizure activity.
d. Seizures lasting longer than 2
minutes.
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March 2007
43. Manual support of the head and neck of
the patient with suspected spinal injury
can be released:
a. Once the breathing has been
checked.
b. When a hard collar has been applied.
c. If the patient is unconscious.
d. When the patient is fully immobilized
to a backboard.
46. A conscious casualty who has suffered a
stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his
airway open and help him breathe, you
should:
a. Turn him into the recovery position with
his unaffected side down.
b. Place him in a semisitting position.
c. Turn him into the recovery position with
his unaffected side up.
d. Place him on his back.
42. When aligning the head in the eyes-front
neutral position, watch for:
a. Pulse, movement, sensation.
b. Crepitus, pain, resistance.
c. Pain, circulation, retention.
d. Tingling, numbness, paralysis.
41. The recommended oxygen flow rate for
nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is:
a. 1-6 litres/min.
b. 6-8 litres/min.
c. 8-12 litres/min.
d. 10-15 litres/min.
44. To prepare a completely amputated part
of the body for transportation to hospital
with the casualty, you should:
a. Place it in a clean plastic bag filled
with cold water.
b. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and
keep it cool.
c. Wash it off and place it into a bag of
crushed ice.
d. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and
keep it at body temperature.
45. Hypovolemic shock results from:
a. The body's reaction to a foreign
protein.
b. An overdose of insulin.
c. Toxins produced by a severe
infection.
d. Decreased volume of the blood.
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March 2007
50. Shock is best defined as:
a. Inadequate circulation to the body’s
tissues
b. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the
lungs
c. Inadequate elimination of waste
products from the body.
d. Inadequate amount of insulin.
48. To determine whether a c-spine injury has
occurred, you should think about the
Mechanism of Injury. This can best be
described as:
a. The force that causes the injury and the
way it acts on the body.
b. The circumstances after the injury.
c. The weather conditions at the time of
the incident.
d. The area of the body that is injured
49. The correct ratio of compressions to
ventilations for two -rescuer CPR on a
child is:
a. 5:1
b. 15:2
c. 5:2
d. 15:1
47. A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder
onto a concrete floor. You first action
should be.
a. Take a SAMPLE history.
b. Perform a secondary survey.
c. Take charge and perform a scene
survey.
d. Asess the rate and quality of breathing.
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March 2007
51. The most critical factor in defibrillation is:
a. The time from collapse to
defibrillation.
b. The skill of the AED responder.
c. The patient’s previous cardiac
history.
d. The type of defibrillator used.
52. The AED will shock a patient:
a. With a sinus rhythm.
b. In asystole.
c. In ventricular fibrillation.
d. With pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
14 AED
55. When using an AED on a patient who is wearing
a pacemaker, place the electrode pads:
a. Directly on pacemaker.
b. Two inches away from pacemaker.
c. Within one inch of the pacemaker.
d. At least one inch away from pacemaker.
53. In the hypothermic patient you should limit the
number of shocks to a maximum of:
a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
54. When transporting a patient, a shock should be
administered:
a. Only in a vehicle that is properly
grounded.
b. Whenever the machine indicates shock
necessary.
c. When the vehicle is stopped.
d. When the vehicle is travelling at less than
20 km per hour.
14
ELECTIVE SESSIONS
Instructions
Complete only the multiple choice questions that correspond to the electives of your program. (1
mark each). Circle the letter (a, b, c, d) indicating your answer. If you change your answer before
handing in your paper, circle your new choice, place an "X" over your previous choice and initial the
change.
Select the single BEST answer to each of the following questions.
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13
March 2007
58. In determining the amount of body
surface burned, the area of the palm of
the hand represents ____ % of the body
surface.
a. One
b. Two
c. Five
d. Nine
Burns
57. Burns that involve all layers of the skin
are:
a. Superficial.
b. Partial thickness.
c. Full thickness.
d. First degree.
59. The most immediate serious
complication associated with burns is:
a. Shock
b. Infection
c. Scarring
d. Hypothermia
61. An abrasion is:
a. A deep break in the skin involving
significant bleeding.
b. Partial or complete loss of a body part.
c. The result of a sharp object driven
through soft tissue.
d. A scrape or rubbing away of the
epidermis.
60. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator
when it bursts into flames. The caualty has
a hoarse voice, he is blistered around the
mouth and nose and both arms are
reddened. You should classify this burn as:
a. Critical
b. Superficial
c. Moderate
d. Minor
Wound Management
56. You have shocked a casualty and there are
signs of circulation. You should:
a. Remove the AED from the scene.
b. Leave the AED attached to the casualty.
c. Disconnect the cables from the AED.
d. Remove the pads from the chest.
15
16
15
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14
March 2007
62. A soft tissue injury resulting from the
impact of a blunt object is called:
a. A laceration.
b. An avulsion.
c. A contusion.
d. A concussion.
65. Tetanus is a condition:
a. That involves specific infection in the
lower jaw.
b. That only occurs in the third world.
c. That is caused by a virus
d. That can be prevented by
immunization.
67. Which action is part of first aid for a
nosebleed?
a. Place an ice-pack on the back of the
neck.
b. Plug the nose with gauze.
c. Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft
parts of the nose.
d. Lean the casualty backwards in a
sitting postion.
64. Responders involved in wound management
should consider:
a. Wounds should be thoroughly flushed to
prevent infection.
b. All open wounds are contaminated to
some degree.
c. The risk of infection continues until the
wound is dressed and bandaged.
d. Gloves should be worn if you suspect
the patient may be ill.
63. The acronym SHARP refers to:
a. The assessment of the severity of a
wound injury.
b. Signs and symptoms used to determine
the need to transport.
c. The depth of a penetrating wound and
potential damage.
d. Signs of infection as assessed in wound
injuries.
66. Which one of the following factors
increases the risk of life -threatening
injury:
a. High velocity.
b. Low velocity.
c. High density.
d. Low energy.
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March 2007
69. The body loses heat in a variety of ways
including:
a. radiation, conduction, evaporation
and respiration.
b. radiation, refrigeration, evaporation
and conduction.
c. conduction, convection, evaporation
and refrigeration.
d. submersion, convection, radiation
and respiration.
71. You have been called for an 81 year old
unconscious male patient. He is in his living
room. Despite the hot day, he is overly
dressed. He is flushed and dry, extremely
hot to touch. You suspect:
a. Heat exhaustion.
b. Stroke.
c. Hyperglycemia.
d. Heatstroke.
14
70. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand
with deep frostbite you should ensure
that:
a. The patient sees a doctor no later
than 48 hrs after thawing
b. There is no danger of refreezing
c. Adequate pain relief medication is
available
d. Capillary refill takes no longer than
15 seconds
72. Body mechanics refers to:
a. Positioning and movement of the body
b. Number of rescuers needed to move a
patient
c. A type of rescue carry
d. A special device to lift heavy loads
Lifting and Carrying
Heat and Cold Illness and Injury
68. To prevent further contamination and
infection of a wound, you should cleanse the
surrounding skin by:
a. Swabbing in circular motions around the
wound.
b. Wiping lightly over the edges of the
wound.
c. Swabbing from one side of the wound to
the other.
d. Wiping away from the edges of the
wound.
17
18
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16
March 2007
75. Crepitus is:
a.. Poor distal circulation
b. A grating sound caused by bone ends
rubbing together
c. A type of splint
d. A type of fracture
Musculoskeletal - Upper Limbs
76. After discovering a possible fracture you
should assess which of the following before
and after splinting:
a. Sensation, morbidity, protrusion.
b. Capillary refill, pulse, sensation.
c. Pulse, motor function, sensation.
d. Crepitus, resistance, pain.
77. A worker has had his hand caught in a car
door. You suspect several fractured bones
in the hand. The hand should be splinted:
a. Flat against the splint.
b. In a tight fist position.
c. With the fingers taped together.
d. In the position of function.
78. In the case of suspected fracture of the
clavicle, emergency responders should use:
a. An arm sling supported with broad
bandages.
b. A St. John tubular sling tied on the
injured side.
c. A St. John tubular sling tied on the
uninjured side.
d. Rigid splints to support the arm and
support the shoulder.
73. You are alone and must remove a casualty
with a suspected spinal injury from a very
hazardous situation. You should
a. Grab his wrists and drag him lengthwise.
b. Keep his body rigid, support his head and
neck and roll him away from the scene.
c. Tie his legs together and drag him feet
first.
d. Grasp his clothing under his shoulders,
support his head and neck, and drag him
lengthwise.
74. To safely perform a chair carry you need
a. 2 rescuers
b. 3 rescuers
c. 4 rescuers
d. 5 rescuers
19
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17
March 2007
79. Force on a joint may cause bone ends to
come out of their proper position. This type
of injury is called a:
a. Sprain
b. Fracture
c. Dislocation
d. Strain
80. After an extremity fracture has been
immobilized, the responder should check for
circulation:
a. In the injured limb only.
b. Distal to the injury.
c. Proximal to the injury.
d. At the site of the fracture.
Musculoskeletal - Lower Limbs
81. The longest, strongest bone in the body is
the:
a. Humerus.
b. Fibula.
c. Tibia.
d. Femur.
83. You can best control the swelling and pain
of an ankle sprain by:
a. Tight bandages and a heating pad.
b. Rest, immbolization, application of cold,
and elevation.
c. Rigid splints and bandages
d. Compression, elevation and application
of heat.
82. Effective immobilization of the tibia includes
immobilization of the:
a. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.
b. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
c. Femur and ankle.
d. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle.
20
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18
March 2007
Head/spinal/pelvic Injury
84. If the patient has an open fracture
responders should :
a. Attempt to push bones back into the
wound.
b. Use bulky dressings to pad around the
protruding bones ends.
c. Apply pressure directly over the
fracture to control bleeding.
d. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture
site.
85. A traction splint could be used for which of the
following injuries:
a. A fractured pelvis.
b. An injured knee joint.
c. A dislocated hip.
d. A mid-shaft femur fracture.
86. A concussion is best described as:
a. Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord.
b. Tearing of brain tissue.
c. Pooling of blood in the brain.
d. Temporary loss of brain function
88. When immobilizing a patient on a spine
board, which part of the body is the first
to be strapped?
a. Chest
b. Pelvis
c. Legs
d. Head
87. You are examining the head of an infant who
has been involved in a car crash. You need
to be aware of:
a. Soft spots in the infant’s skull.
b. Infant’s pupils react differently than
adults.
c. Whether or not the infant can cry
forcefully.
d. The startle reflex.
2121
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March 2007
90. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three
basic functions. They are:
a. Eye, verbal and motor responses.
b. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary
movement.
c. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye
response.
d. Respiration rate, eye response,
voluntary movement.
92. “Raccoon eyes” indicates:
a. Possible eye injury
b. Possible fracture of the jaw
c. Possible scalp laceration
d. Possible head injury
91. Which one of the following changes in vital
signs is characteristic of brain injury:
a. Increase in pulse rate.
b. Constant respiratory rate.
c. increase in blood pressure.
d. Decrease in blood pressure.
89. Contusions are:
a. Usually controlled with direct
pressure
b. Very serious for the patient due to
increased pressure in the brain.
c. Usually associated with scalp
lacerations
d. Almost always seen in children.
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March 2007
93. You are called to the scene of a motorcycle
crash. The rider is dazed and walking
around. You should:
a. Suspect spinal injury and manage
accordingly.
b. Not worry about spinal injury because
the person is mobile.
c. Advise the person to lie down in case of
fainting.
d. Determine the chief complaint and
provide first aid for it.
98. Contact dermatitis occurs when:
a. The skin comes in contact with a
poisonous substance.
b. A poison enters the eye of a contact
lens wearer.
c. Hot gases are inhaled.
d. A poison is injected under the skin.
94. When managing a possible spinal injury:
a. The cervical immobilization device is
applied by the police.
b. Transport the patient in the position of
greatest comfort.
c. Apply a cervical immobilization device
before assessing the patient.
d. Responders must provide initial
stabilization by supporting the head and
ensuring neutral alignment
95. A helmet must be removed from a patient:
a. If there are no airway or breathing
problems.
b. If the patient will be immobilized to a
long spinal immobilizaton device.
c. When the helmet has a face mask that
interferes with the responder’s ability
to assist with ventilations
d. It is a full- face helmet.
Poisons, Bites and Stings
96. When dealing with pelvic injuries you must
always consider the possibility of:
a. Ruptured bladder.
b. Ruptured spleen.
c. Spinal injuries.
d. Rib fractures.
97. To properly measure a cervical collar, you:
a. Measure the distance from the ear lobe
to the shoulder.
b. Measure the distance from the corner
of the mouth to the ear lobe.
c. Measure the distance from the
cheekbone to the shoulder blade.
d. Measure the distance from the
trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw
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March 2007
101. The external layer of the skin is called::
a. Cutaneous tissue.
b. Dermis.
c. Adipose tissue.
d. Epidermis.
100. A child has swallowed an unknown
poisonous substance. You should:
a. Dilute the poison with several
glasses of cool water.
b. Call your local Poison Control Centre
and follow directions.
c. Give a solution of mild liquid dish
detergent and water.
d. Use activated charcoal.
99. Carbon monoxide:
a. May result from fires or automobile
exhaust.
b. Has a very distinct odour
c. Is not life-threatening.
d. Requires the administration of low
concentration O2.
Anatomy and Physiology
102. Muscles are attached to the bones by:
a. Ligaments.
b. Meninges.
c. Cartilage.
d. Tendons.
103. The appendix is located in which quadrant of
the abdomen:
a. Lower right.
b. Upper right.
c. Upper left.
d. Lower left.
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March 2007
105. A skeletal injury to the lower back could result
from direct trauma to the:
a. Cervical vertebrae.
b. Thoracic vertebrae.
c. Lumbar vertebrae.
d. Coccygeal vertebrae.
107. Which one of the following is a function
of the skin?
a. Regulation of oxygen levels.
b. Production of proteins.
c. Regulation of body temperature.
d. Removal of carbon dioxide.
106. The pulse point located in the upper
portion of the thigh is called the:
a. Popliteal.
b. Femoral.
c. Brachial.
d. Temporal.
104. The white exterior portion of the eye is called
the:
a. Pupil.
b. Sclera.
c. Cornea.
d. Iris.
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March 2007
Behavioural Emergencies
110. When communicating with patients:
a. Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact.
b. Stay as close to the patient as possible.
c. Use medical terminology to enhance
credibility.
d. Hide facts if the situation is serious.
111. In cases of behavioural disorders, the
responder should:
a. Always use restraints.
b. Give the patient a choice in the treatment
c. Play along with auditory or visual
hallucinations.
d. Force the patient to make decisions.
112. The best way to prevent a Critical Incident
Stress situation from becoming worse is:
a. Ignore it.
b. Be familiar with the signs and symptoms.
c. Ensure early use of proper medication.
d. Force the responder to talk about the
situation.
109. Insulin is produced in the:
a. Spleen.
b. Liver.
c. Pancreas.
d. Gall bladder.
108. Urine is expelled from the body through
the:
a. Kidneys.
b. Bladder.
c. Ureters.
d. Urethra.
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March 2007
117. Irrigate eyes with:
a. Diluted vinegar.
b. Saline solution.
c. An appropriate chemical antidote.
d. Sodium bicarbonate.
115. Signs and symptoms of intense light burns
to the eyes include:
a. Bleeding from the conjunctiva.
b. Gritty feeling in the eyes.
c. Lacerations to the globe.
d. Discolouration of the orbits.
113. Remove a contact lense only if:
a. There is a chemical burn to the eye.
b. The eyeball is injured.
c. Transport time is short.
d. The casualty is wearing hard lenses.
116. Eye injuries that include lacerations:
a. Should be covered with clean, moist
dressings.
b. Iindicate possible skull fracture.
c. Usually involve a great deal of
bleeding.
d. Require moderate pressure on the
eye to control bleeding.
Eye Injuries
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114. You discover a particle embedded in the
casualty’s cornea. You should:
a. Remove the particle with a moist corner
of a facial tissue or clean cloth.
b. Flush the eye with water for 10 minutes.
c. Use a splinter forcep to remove the
particle.
d. Cover the eye and transport the casualty
to medical help.
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March 2007
118. Signs and symptoms of acute abdomen
include:
a. Excessive hunger or thirst.
b. Hypertension and brachycardia.
c. Distension with rebound tenderness.
d. Fever with deep, shallow breathing.
Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary
119. Signs that a hernia is serious include:
a. Pain and tenderness at site.
b. Pale, ashen skin colour at site.
c. Hernia can be pushed back into body.
d. Hernia is above the diaphragm.
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120. Which one of the following is not crucial in
cases of abdominal distress:
a. Establish the cause of the pain.
b. Give oxygen by non-rebreather mask.
c. Be prepared to deal with vomiting.
d. Monitor the patient for signs of
hypovolemic shock.
121. In the case of abdominal evisceration, the
emergency responder should:
a. Irrigate the wound before dressing it.
b. Give oxygen by nasal canula.
c. Dress the wound with a moist, sterile
dressing
d. Gently reposition the organs in the
abdominal cavity.
122. "Referred pain":
a. Occurs when the sensation of pain is
delayed.
b. Results when the two nervous systems
come into contact.
c. Is the symptomatic description of pain by the
patient.
d. Is the description of pain as recorded on the
patient care report.
123. Trauma to male and female genitalia:
a. Often involves significant bleeding.
b. Is not usually painful because of protected
nerve endings.
c. Usually results in sterility.
d. Often results in post-traumatic infection.
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March 2007
126. Typically in a triage system:
a. Those whose survival requires
immediate care are classified level 3.
b. Those with minor injuries but
suffering extreme pain are classified
level 1.
c. Those in cardiac arrest or not
breathing are classified level 2.
d. Those who will survive if care is
somewhat delayed are classified
level 2.
127. The most knowledgable responder in the
first ambulance is generally assigned to
role of:
a. Incident manager.
b. Triage officer.
c. Staging officer.
d. Communications officer.
124 The priorities of MCIs include all but one
of the following.
a. Overestimating the resources that may
be required.
b. Comprehensive care of all patients.
c. Planning for the positioning of all
vehicles.
d. Arranging for advanced level care
providers at the scene.
125. At the scene of a MCI:
a. All patients are assessed quickly and
triaged.
b. Only conscious patients are assessed.
c. Patients without a detectable pulse are
given the highest priority.
d. All patients are transported
immediately.
Multiple Casualty Incident (MCI)
128. Of the following casualties, which would you
care for first? The casualty who is:
a. In shock without apparent injuries, but
conscious.
b. Unconscious and lying on his back.
c. Bleeding from the forehead, but
conscious.
d. Unconscious and lying on his stomach.
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March 2007
Communications
130. Constant monitoring of the patient in a
drug- related emergency is important
because:
a. The patient will likely try to take more
of the drug.
b. These patients are more likely to sue.
c. The patient’s condition may change
quickly.
d. The patient is more likely to become
violent.
131. The most accurate source of time for
reporting purposes is:
a. The responder’s watch.
b. The dispatch unit.
c. The local radio station.
d. The patient’s watch.
132 An essential element of a responder’s
verbal report includes:
a. The name of the patient.
b. The patient’s telephone number.
c. The time of the incident.
d. The patient’s response to the care
given
Geriatric Emergencies
134. An eighty-five year old lady has fallen
down a flight of stairs. You suspect spinal
injury and decide to put the patient on a
spineboard. You should be aware that:
a. It may be difficult to fit a cervical
collar.
b. Spinal curvature may make it difficult
and uncomfortable to put the patient
on the board.
c. A K.E.D. is better for this patient.
d. Because of her age, she may be more
prone to vomitting.
133. Which one of the following is the
best way to assess dehydration in
the elderly:
a. Check the mucous membranes in the
eyes and mouth.
b. Check skin condition.
c. Take an oral temperature.
d. Assess the pulse rate.
Substance Abuse
129. The factor which indicates a drug related
emergency is life-threatening is:
a. Altered mental status.
b. Dilated pupils slow to respond to
light.
c. Lack of coordination and slurred
speech.
d. High, low or irregular pulse.
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30
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March 2007
135. Which of the following is NOT a special
consideration when assessing elderly
patients:
a. Geriatric patients often have a reduced
gag reflex.
b. Radial pulses may be weakened by
peripheral vascular disease.
c. Patients may not show signs of fever
even in cases of serious infection.
d. Mental status often reflects a fear of
emergency responders.
Emergency Childbirth
136. Crowning occurs:
a. In the first stage of labour.
b. In the second stage of labour.
c. In the third stage of labour.
d. In the fourth stage of pregnancy.
137. When suctioning a newborn you should
use:
a. a bulb syringe.
b. A V-Vac suction device.
c. A straw.
d. A battery powererd suction device.
138. To help control bleeding after the baby is
born:
a. Pack the vagina with pads.
b. Massage the mother’s uterus.
c. Elevate the mother’s legs above heart
level.
d. Place the mother on her right side.
140. The onset of shock in infants and
children:
a. May be sudden and severe.
b. Is no different than adults.
c. Usually progresses slowly.
d Usually results from cardiac
problems.
Pediatric Emergencies
139. One of the most difficult things to assess
in infants and young children is:
a. Blood pressure.
b. Pain.
c. Adequate perfusion.
d. Level of consciousness.
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March 2007
141. Assessments of children should take
into consideration:
a. No splints should be used since all are
designed for adult patients.
b. Abdominal injuries are less serious
since muscles are less developed.
c. The skull has not completely fused,
so head injuries are uncommon.
d. Chest injury is likely to involve organs
without damage to ribs.
142. The responder who suspects a child to
be the victim of abuse should:
a. Question parents immediately.
b. Focus on management of injuries to
the child.
c. Gather evidence and question
bystanders.
d. Immediately remove the child from
parents or caregivers.
143 . A child with history of a sore throat, fever
and painful swallowing, has breathing
difficulties. You should:
a. Arrange for immediate transport to a
medical facility.
b. Start mouth-to-mouth artificial
respiration.
c. Stand by and encourage coughing.
d. Begin abdominal thrusts.
144. The mammalian reflex refers to:
a. An increase in heart rate and respiration.
b. A decrease in heart rate and dilation of blood
vessels.
c. An increase in heart rate and constriction of
pupils.
d. A decrease in heart rate and constriction of
blood vessels.
Aquatic Emergencies
145. Three common scuba related emergencies are:
a. Air embolism, decompression sickness and
mammalian reflex.
b. Air embolism, decompression sickness and
barotrauma.
c. Decompression sickness, the bends and
barotrauma.
d. Air embolism, barotrauma and the squeeze.
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March 2007
149. When positioning a patient, responders
should consider that:
a. Raising arms and legs will produce
swelling.
b. Semi-sitting will improve blood flow to
the heart.
c. Knees raised will reduce pressure on
the abdomen.
d. Recovery position will often improve
breathing.
33
146. In cases of near drowning:
a. The lungs are often filled with water
and require deep suctioning.
b. Laryngospasm prevents water from
entering the lungs.
c. Abdominal thrusts should always be
performed before ventilating the
patient.
d. Manual suction devices are not
powerful enough to remove water
and fluids from the airway.
Extended Care
148. To reduce the risk of respiratory infection
and pneumonia where medical care is
delayed, responders should:
a. Have the patient breathe deeply and
cough.
b. Provide the patient with adequate
hydration.
c. Position the patient in the position of
comfort.
d. Ensure the patient is kept warm and at
rest.
147. You have been helping at a water rescue
when one of the divers begins to have
problems. You suspect air embolism. This
patient should receive:
a. Oxygen at 15 lpm.
b. Oxygen at 6 lpm.
c. Epinepherine.
d. Inhaled steroids.
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March 2007
150. When caring for wounds over extended
periods, always:
a. Remove dressings and bandages
regularly to check the wound.
b. Clean wounds with antiseptic before
applying dressings.
c. Apply a tourniquet to prevent excessive
bleeding.
d. Check regularly for signs of infection or
reduced circulation.
First Aid Stations/Rooms
154. Provincial first aid legislation prescribes
the contents of:
a. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and first
aid manuals.
b. First aid stations, training programs and
equipment manufacturers.
c. First aid boxes, first aid reports and
record keeping.
d. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and
training.
151. The maintenance of fluids and nutrition is
key to extended patient care and can be
provided by:
a. Giving fluids and food to all patients
regardless of MOI.
b. Use small amounts of liquids and foods
to determine whether the patient can
tolerate the intake.
c. Allow the patient to consume any foods
they would like to make them feel more
comfortable.
d. Even if the patient is not thirsty or
hungry the responder must insist on
intake.
152. When administering medication, responders should consider that:
a Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, right method.
b Right nutrition, , right method, right time, right person, right amount
c Right medication, right action, right person, right time, right responsibility
d Right medication, right amount, right person, right responsibility, right action
153. To give ear drops to an adult, the ear should be pulled:
a. Downward and backward.
b. Downward and forward.
c. Upward and backward.
d. Upward and forward.
Ambulance Operation/Maintenance
156. Footprints can best be described as:
a. The area of contact between the road surface and the tires.
b. The type of tread on the tire.
c. Footsteps used to get into the back of the ambulance.
d. Skid patterns on dry pavement.
157. Ground guides or spotters should be situated:
a. Behind the vehicle on the driver side.
b. On the front left side of the vehicle.
c. Front and centre of the vehicle.
d. On the front right side of the vehicle.
155. First aid stations must:
a. Be easily accessible to workers
b. Have a shower
c. Be at least 6 square meters in size
d. Have oxygen available Record Keeping
158. When completing the patient narrative:
a. Try to establish an accurate diagnosis.
b. Record the signs and symptoms as accurately as possible.
c. Do not include negative data.
d. Always use medical terminology.
159. A patient refuses your care. You should:
a. Fill out and personally sign a "Refusal of Care" form.
b. Proceed with patient assessment and management and ignore the refusal.
c. Find a relative or family member to give you consent.
d. Have the patient and a witness sign the "Refusal of Care" form.
164. When handling a knocked-out tooth you should:
a. Place the tooth back in the patient's
mouth.
b. Place the tooth in a cup of milk.
c. Wrap the tooth in dry gauze.
d. Place the tooth in a mild acidic solution using vinegar. Dental Emergencies
163. To manage severe toothaches, responders should:
a. Advise the patient to chew on the other
side of the mouth.
b. Advise the patient to drink hot liquids to
sooth discomfort.
c. Advise the patient to suck on ice cubes
to dull the pain.
d. Extract the tooth with the assistance of
a second responder.
General Pharmacology
160. Sublingual medication is given:
a. By injection using an auto-injector.
b. Under the patient’s tongue.
c. By inhalation using a metered dose
inhaler.
d. As a tablet to be swallowed.
161. Contraindications of a medication tell
responders:
a. When a medication should not be given
to the patient.
b. When the medication is commonly used
for patients.
c. The expected results of the medication.
d. Actions that might not be desirable yet occur along with desired effects.
162. The ACTION of the drug refers to:
a. The harmful effects.
b. The side effects.
c. The expected effects.
d. The method of administration.
165. Lividity refers to:
a. Stiffening of the joints post mortem.
b. Cooling of the body post mortem.
c. Settling of blood in the body due to gravity.
d. The beginning signs of decomposition. Death at Sea/Remote Areas
166. Later signs of death include:
a. Staining, milky corneas and flushed skin.
b. Staining, lividity and decomposition.
c. Rigor mortis, lividity and milky corneas.
d. Rigor mortis, flushed skin and
decomposition.