NEW CHANGES MADE ON 11-AUG-2023

MFA , MEDICARE ,EFA EXIT EXAM QUESTIOS

1. What is not a sign of shock?

A. Pale, clammy skin

B. Increased pulse rate

C. Nausea

D. Wide eyes and open mouth ANSWER

2. What position should the head be in during a nosebleed?

A. Head forward ANSWER

B. Head level

C. Head backwards

D. Head tilted to side

3. Bandages are used for

A. Applying directly to a wound to soak up blood

B. To hold dressings in place, apply pressure and control bleeding ANSWER

C. Ease pain

D. Small cuts only

4. Adult CPR guidelines include male adolescents who present with chest or

underarm hair and female adolescents with any breast development.

A.True ANSWER

B.False

5. During 2 rescuer CPR on an adult how many cycles of CPR do you perform

before switching roles?

A. 5 cycles ANSWER

B. 2 cycles

C. 30: 2 cycles

D. 4 cycles

6. Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when

A. You have to move or transport the victim.

B. You can do so without hurting the victim.

C. You have splinting materials available

D. Both a and b ANSWER

7. Lividity refers to:

a. Stiffening of the joints post mortem.

b. Cooling of the body post mortem.

c. Settling of blood in the body due to gravity. ANSWER

d. The beginning signs of decomposition.

8. The emergency responder is one link in

the chain of services known as the:

a. Emergency Patient Care (EPC)

system.

b. Emergency Medical Services (EMS)

system. ANSWER

c. Professional Emergency Care (PEC)

system.

d. Community Medical Care (CMC)

system.

9. An industrial worker sustains a severe

laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure

to the wound fails to control the bleeding.

The correct arterial pressure point to

control the bleeding is the:

a. Carotid.

b. Radial.

c. Femoral.

d. Brachial. ANSWER

11. To treat a nosebleed, hold pressure on the bridge of the nose and have the

person:

A. Lean slightly back

B. Lean slightly forward ANSWER

C. Apply a heat pack to the nose

D. Lie flat on the floor

12. You can best control the swelling and pain

of an ankle sprain by:

a. Tight bandages and a heating pad.

b. Rest, immbolization, application of cold,

and elevation. ANSWER

c. Rigid splints and bandages

d. Compression, elevation and application

of heat.

13. In cases of behavioural disorders, the

responder should:

a. Always use restraints.

b. Give the patient a choice in the treatment ANSWER

c. Play along with auditory or visual

hallucinations.

d. Force the patient to make decisions.

14. A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be coughing up

blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and fast. What is most

likely wrong?

a) He is having a seizure.

b) He has internal bleeding. ANSWER

c) He is having a heart attack.

d) He is having a diabetic emergency.

15. If you suspect someone is going into SHOCK you should NOT give them,

a. REASSURANCE

B. COMFORT

C. WATER - ANSWER

D. A BLANKET

16. When performing chest compressions on an adult, we press the chest:

a. 2-3cm ANSWER

b. 2.5 – 3.5 cm

c. 4-5 cm

1) Your check of the scene suggests that a victim has suffered an electrical

shock. The first thing to do is:

a) Cover all burns with a dry loose dressing.

b) Ask a bystander to help you move the victim.

c) Place the victim on one side with the head down.

d) Make sure the power is turned off. *

2) A victim of a car accident has just vomited and now appears to be

coughing up blood. He is breathing very quickly and his pulse is weak and

fast. What is most likely wrong?

a) He is having a seizure.

b) He has internal bleeding. *

c) He is having a heart attack.

d) He is having a diabetic emergency.

3) You are caring for a victim with a burned hand. Put the hand in cool

water if:

a) The burns are very deep

b) There are burns with open blisters.

c) The burns are minor with no open blisters.

d) You should put the hand in cool water for all of the above. *

4) In general a splint should be:

a) Loose, so that the victim can still move the injured limb.

b) Snug, but not so tight that it slows circulation. *

c) Tied with cravats over the injured area.

d) None of the above.

5) A victim has lost a lot of blood through a deep cut in his leg. He is

breathing fast and seems pail and restless. He is probably:

a) Having a stroke.

b) Having a heart attack.

c) In shock. *

d) Choking.

6) You suspect that a person has been poisoned. She is conscious. Your

first call should be to:

a) The Poison Control Center or your local emergency phone number. *

b) The victim’s physician.

c) The hospital emergency department.

d) The local pharmacy.

7) Which would you do when caring for a seizure victim?

a) Remove nearby objects that might cause injury. *

b) Place a small object, such as a rolled up piece of cloth, between the

victims teeth.

c) Try to hold the person still.

d) All of the above.

8) Splint an injury to a muscle, bone, or joint only when:

a) You have to move or transport the victim.

b) You can do so without hurting the victim.

c) You have splinting materials available.

d) Both a and b*

9) For which of the following burn victims should you immediately call your

local emergency phone number?

a) A 40 year old man who has burned his hand with hot coffee.

b) A 68 year old woman who has a blistered grease burn on her hands and

arms. *

c) A 26 year old woman who has a sunburn on her shoulders.

d) All of the above.

10) A 15 year old boy has just splashed a chemical on his face. After

sending someone to call for an ambulance, you would:

a) Cover the burned area.

b) Have the victim stay calm until ambulance arrives.

c) Flush the burned area with large amounts of water until the ambulance

arrives. *

d) Immediately drive the victim to the hospital.

11) Why should you cover burns with a clean or sterile dressing?

a) To prevent infection. *

b) To cool burned area.

c) To keep the burned area warm.

d) Both a and c

12) You find a person at the bottom of the stairs. He appears to have fallen

and seems badly hurt. After sending someone for help, you would:

a) Roll the victim onto his stomach keeping the head and back in a straight

line.

b) Roll the victim onto one side.

c) Position victim onto one side.

d) Attempt to keep the victim from moving. *

13) A victim has a large piece of glass sticking out of her leg. You should:

a) Leave the glass in her leg and control the bleeding.

b) Call your local emergency phone number.

c) Remove the glass and then control the bleeding.

d) Both a and b*

14) What should be your first concern at the scene where a person has been

seriously burned?

a) Checking the scene for safety. *

b) Checking the victims breathing and pulse.

c) Calling your local emergency phone number.

d) Cooling the burned area.

15) A woman has fallen and turned her ankle. She says she heard

something snap. She looks pale and is sweating. What should you do?

a) Have the victim walk on the injured ankle.

b) Care for the injury as if it were serious. *

c) Apply heat and elevate the injury.

d) Apply a dressing and loosely bandage.

16) Which of the following should be done for a person experiencing a heat

related illness.

a) Keep the victim warm.

b) Force the victim to drink fluids.

c) Apply cool wet cloths. *

d) Place the victim in warm water.

17) You feel a sudden sharp pain in the bottom of your left foot. You look at

the bottom of your left shoe and see a tack sticking in your shoe. What type

of wound do you probably have?

a) Avulsion

b) Bruise

c) Scrape

d) Puncture*

18) Which should be part of your care for a severely bleeding open wound?

a) Allow the wound to bleed in order to minimize infection.

b) Apply direct pressure and elevate the injured area. (if no broken bones) *

c) Use a tourniquet to stop all blood flow.

d) Both b and c

19) What should you do if you think a victim has serious internal bleeding?

a) Apply heat to the injured area.

b) Call your local emergency phone number for help. *

c) Place the victim in a sitting position.

d) Give fluids to replace blood loss.

20) Which of the following behaviors reduces your risk for injury?

a) Always wearing a safety belt when riding in automobiles.

b) Limiting intake of alcohol.

c) Limiting intake of foods high in cholesterol.

d) Both a and b*

21) Which is the first step when caring for bleeding wounds.

a) Apply direct pressure with a clean or sterile dressing. *

b) Apply pressure at the pressure point.

c) Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood soaked bandages.

d) Elevate the wound.

22) How can you reduce the risk of disease transmission when caring for

open, bleeding wounds?

a) Wash your hands immediately after giving care.

b) Avoid direct contact with blood.

c) Use protective barriers such as gloves or plastic wrap.

d) All of the above. *

23) You have tried to control a victim's bleeding with direct pressure and

elevation, but the bleeding doesn’t stop. Where would you apply pressure to

slow the flow of blood to a wound on the forearm?

a) Outside the arm midway between the shoulder and the elbow.

b) On the inside of the elbow.

c) Inside the arm between the shoulder and the elbow. *

d) Any of the above will slow the flow of blood.

24) Dressing and bandages are used to:

a) Reduce the victim's pain.

b) Reduce internal bleeding.

c) Help control bleeding and prevent infection. *

d) Make it easier to take the victim to the hospital.

25) Most injuries are due to situations that:

a) You have no control over or could not have been prevented.

b) You have some control over or could have been prevented. *

c) Involve five or more people.

d) Involve water sports.

26) Where is the carotid artery located?

a) Inside the wrist just above the hand.

b) On the neck to the right or left of the wind pipe. *

c) Behind the knee cap.

d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder.

27) On an infant, where would you check the pulse?

a) Inside the wrist just above the hand.

b) On the neck to the right or left side of the wind pipe.

c) Behind the knee cap.

d) Inside the arm between the elbow and shoulder. *

28) For an infant who is choking, you would perform:

a) The Hiemlick maneuver.

b) CPR

c) Back blows and chest thrusts. *

d) Hold the infant upside down and strike between the shoulder blades.

29) Breathing emergencies may be caused from:

a) Asthma

b) Hyperventilation

c) Allergic reaction

d) Injury to a muscle or bone in the chest

e) All of the above*

30) A person who is unconscious, not breathing, has a weak pulse, needs:

a) CPR

b) Hiemlick maneuver.

c) Rescue breathing. *

d) Back blows and chest thrusts.

31) When helping an unconscious choking victim, you would give an adult

____ chest thrusts. For an infant you would give ____ back blows and ____

chest thrusts.

a) 3,3,3

b) 5,3,3

c) 5,5,5*

d) 3,5,5

32) Which is not a symptom of heart attack.

a) Chest pain.

b) Red, hot or dry skin. *

c) Pale or bluish in color.

d) Profuse sweating.

33) When performing adult CPR you give:

a) 2 slow breaths & 30 chest compressions. *

b) 1 slow breath & 10 chest compressions.

c) 5 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions.

d) 3 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions.

34) When performing CPR on a child you give:

a) 4 slow breaths & 20 chest compressions.

b) 1 slow breath & 5 chest compressions. *

c) 2 slow breaths & 10 chest compressions.

d) 2 slow breaths & 15 chest compressions.

35) A wound where there is damage to the soft tissue and blood vessels

under the skin is called:

a) A scrape

b) A cut

c) A bruise*

d) An avulsion

36) When giving care for external bleeding, what should you do first?

a) Elevate the injury.

b) Apply direct pressure. *

c) Apply a loose dressing.

d) Apply a tourniquet.

37) Bandages are used for:

a) Applying directly to a wound to soak up blood.

b) To hold dressings in place, apply pressure and control bleeding. *

c) Ease pain.

d) Small cuts only.

38) Dressings and pads:

a) Should be removed when blood soaked. New ones should be applied.

b) Are used to help control bleeding and keep germs out. *

c) Are not included in a first aid kit.

d) Should be applied to a sucking chest wound.

39) Elastic bandages are used:

a) To control bleeding

b) Control swelling and support injuries such as sprains or strains. *

c) To allow circulation to a severed limb.

d) When applying a splint.

40) When caring for a victim who has an object impaled in their hand, you

should:

a) Remove the object, flush with cool water, and transport to hospital.

b) Immobilize the object by placing several dressings around it. *

c) Break object off where it sticks out, and bandage injury.

d) None of the above.

41) When caring for a victim with a bloody nose you would not:

a) Apply an ice pack to the bridge of the nose.

b) Apply pressure to upper lip just beneath nose.

c) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly forward while pinching the

nostrils together.

d) Have the victim sit with head tilted slightly backward while pinching the

nostrils together. *

42) A student on your bus has been hit in the mouth and a tooth was

knocked out you should:

a) Control the bleeding and have student bite down on a rolled sterile

dressing in the space left by the tooth.

b) Save the tooth by placing it in milk or water.

c) Wrap the tooth in a dry tissue and give to student to take to dentist.

d) Both a and b*

43) Which symptoms would indicate internal bleeding?

a) Rapid weak pulse.

b) Skin that feels cool or moist, or looks pale or bluish.

c) Excessive thirst.

d) Tender, swollen, bruised, or hard areas of his body, such as the abdomen.

e) All of the above. *

44) Wounds that would require stitches are:

a) Over an inch long.

b) Bleeding from an artery or uncontrolled bleeding.

c) Human or animal bites.

d) All of the above. *

45) Which is not a symptom of shock:

a) Strong thirst, nausea, or vomiting.

b) Rapid breathing or rapid pulse.

c) Restless or irritability.

d) Chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty. *

46) A first degree burn:

a) Involves only the top layer of skin. *

b) Is red and blistered.

c) Destroys all layers of skin.

d) Is the most serious of burns.

47) When caring for a victim who has a large burn on their forearm, you:

a) Use large amounts of cool water to cool the burn. *

b) Use ice or ice water to cool the burn.

c) Remove any cloth that has stuck to the burn and apply burn cream.

d) All of the above.

48) When caring for someone who has suffered an electrical burn, you would

not:

a) Check breathing and pulse.

b) Check for possible fractures.

c) Cool the burned area. *

d) Treat for shock.

49) You should suspect that a victim has head and spine injuries for:

a) An incident involving a lightning strike.

b) A person found unconscious for unknown reasons.

c) A fall from the height greater than the victims height.

d) All of the above. *

50) You may suspect that a student has been poisoned if they:

a) Are experiencing nausea, vomiting or diarrhea.

b) Have chest or abdominal pain, breathing difficulty.

c) Burns around the lips, tongue, or on the skin.

d) All of the above. *

51) When caring for a student who is allergic to bees and has just been

stung, you should:

a) Give them an injection with their Epi-pen.

b) Apply a heat pack to ease pain.

c) Apply a cold pack. *

d) Both a and c

52) Signals of an allergic reaction to a bee sting are:

a) Feeling of tightness in the chest and throat.

b) Swelling of the face neck and tongue.

c) Rash, dizziness, or confusion

d) All of the above. *

53) When caring for a student who is suffering from heat cramps.

a) Apply cold packs.

b) Give cool water or sports drink. *

c) Have student keep walking slowly to work the cramp out.

d) Massage the muscle vigorously to increase circulation.

54) What symptoms are associated with heat exhaustion:

a) Cool, moist, pale, or flushed skin. *

b) Rapid weak pulse.

c) Rapid, shallow breathing.

d) All of the above.

55) Heat stroke:

a) Causes very high body temperature.

b) Hot red or dry skin.

c) Rapid weak pulse, shallow breathing.

d) All of the above. *

56) When caring for someone who is suffering from frostbite, you should

not:

a) Soak effected part in warm water 100 to 105 degrees.

b) Rub vigorously until skin appears red and feels warm. *

c) Handle area gently.

d) Avoid breaking blisters.

57) Hypothermia:

a) Is not life threatening.

b) Victims must be heated up as fast as possible.

c) Is caused by exposure to temperatures below freezing.

d) Can be caused by swimming in waters below 70 degrees. *

58) Snake bites can be very serious. When caring for a snake bite victim,

which should you not do?

a) Wash wounds.

b) Apply ice. *

c) Keep bitten part still and below the heart.

d) Get professional medical care within 30 minutes.

59) When performing infant CPR or rescue breathing, what kind of breaths

should you give to avoid forcing air into the infant’s stomach?

a) Hard and fast.

b) Smooth and fast.

c) Slowly and gently. *

d) Long and hard.

60) Your role in making the EMS system work effectively includes four steps.

a) Elevate, Identify, decide, execute.

b) Check, call, care, protect.

c) Recognize, decide, call, provide. *

d) None of the above.

61) When should you give rescue breathing?

a) Conscious choking victim.

b) Unconscious choking victim.

c) Unconscious, no pulse, not breathing.

d) Unconscious, not breathing, but has a pulse. *

62) What would you do if a victim had a body part torn or cut off?

a) Wrap severed body part in sterile gauze.

b) Place in a plastic bag.

c) Put the plastic bag on ice and take it to the hospital with victim.

d) All of the above. *

63) What would you do for a victim who has internal bleeding?

a) Keep the victim quiet and lying down. *

b) Bend knees to make them comfortable.

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above.

64) To care for a victim with a sucking chest wound, you would?

a) Cover the wound completely with a sterile gauze pad.

b) Cover the wound with a dressing that doesn’t allow air to pass through.

c) Apply ice pack to the wound. *

d) Both a and c

65) Internal bleeding can be caused by:

a) Injury

b) Illness

c) Medication

d) All of the above. *

66) When caring for a choking infant, what position is the infant held in?

a) Upside down by the ankles and shoulders.

b) Face up on a flat surface.

c) Face down on your forearm with head lower than the body. *

d) Face down on your knee, with head lower than the body.

67) Soft tissue wounds should be cared for by:

a) Heat and elastic bandages.

b) Ice and elevation.

c) Apply direct pressure on the area to cut down on bleeding under skin.

d) Both b and c*

68) What do you do for a chemical burn?

a) Flush with water, dry, and cover.

b) Flush with large amounts of water and cover.

c) Flush with large amounts of warm water until help arrives.

d) Flush with large amounts of cool water until help arrives. *

69) What is the most common reason an infant’s heart stops?

a) Allergies

b) Injury

c) Breathing problems. *

d) SIDS (sudden infant death syndrome)

70) When can you move a victim?

a) When you need to care for another victim.

b) When the victim is in danger. *

c) When it would be easier to care for the victim.

d) All of the above.

71) What do you do for a victim who has a bleeding injury to the mouth and

you are sure that there is no head, neck, or spine injury.

a) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly forward. *

b) Keep victim seated with head tilted slightly backward.

c) Have the victim lie down on their side.

d) None of the above.

72) What is more serious?

a) Heat Stroke*

b) Heat Exhaustion

c) Heat Cramps

d) Heat Rash

73) To encourage people to help others in emergency situations, most states

have enacted laws, which protect you, as a rescuer, from being sued. This

is called:

a) The Good-Will Law

b) The First Aid No-Fault Law

c) The Good Samaritan Law*

d) There is no such law

74) Signals of head and spine injuries are:

a) Blood or other fluids in the ears or nose.

b) Unusual bumps or depressions on the head or over the spine.

c) Has seizures, severe headaches, or slurred speech.

d) Both a and b

e) All of the above. *

75) Shock is a condition where:

a) The respiratory system fails to deliver air to the lungs.

b) The cardiovascular system fails to deliver blood to the heart.

c) The circulatory system fails to deliver blood to all parts of the body.*

d) All of the above.

1. The acronym SAMPLE stand for signs and

symptoms, allergies, medications, past

history, ________ and events.

a. Location of pain.

b. Last bowel movement.

c. Last meal.

d. Latest related injury.

2. Which one of the following is not a system

of the body:

a. Respiratory.

b. Musculoskeletal.

c. Endocrine.

d. Follicular.

3. Increased respiratory difficulty

accompanied by a weak ineffective

cough, wheezing, high-pitched

crowing noises and cyanosis are

signs of:

a. Mild airway obstruction

b. C.O.P.D.

c. Severe airway obstruction.

d. Complete airway obstruction.

4. The most important step in managing

shock is to:

a. Keep the patient warm.

b. Give CPR as soon as possible.

c. Give first aid for the illness or injury.

d. Elevate the lower extremities.

Instructions

Complete questions 1 through 50 for each of the following multiple choice questions (1 mark

each). Circle the letter (a, b, c, d) indicating your answer. If you change your answer before handing

in your paper, circle your new choice, place an "X" over your previous choice and initial the change.

Select the single BEST answer to each of the following questions.

CORE SESSIONS

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March 2007

5. A small percentage of casualties with

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

have hypoxic drive. These patients

breathe because of a:

a. High oxygen level.

b. Low oxygen level.

c. High carbon dioxide level.

d. Low carbon dioxide level.

6. The emergency responder is one link in

the chain of services known as the:

a. Emergency Patient Care (EPC)

system.

b. Emergency Medical Services (EMS)

system.

c. Professional Emergency Care (PEC)

system.

d. Community Medical Care (CMC)

system.

7. The acronym used to assist the

emergency responder assessing the

patient's level of responsiveness is:

a. SAMPLE.

b. EMCA.

c. OPQRST.

d. AVPU.

8. An industrial worker sustains a severe

laceration to his forearm. Direct pressure

to the wound fails to control the bleeding.

The correct arterial pressure point to

control the bleeding is the:

a. Carotid.

b. Radial.

c. Femoral.

d. Brachial.

9. Pressing on a fingernail-bed to observe the

return of normal colour is done to check

for:

a. Normal blood circulation to that part.

b. The presence of fractured fingers.

c. Pain in the area.

d. A lack of oxygen in the blood.

10. Your primary survey of a casualty involved in

a serious car collision shows only that he is

confused. Later you find his pulse rate at

140 and weak, his skin cold and clammy and

his breathing irregular and gasping. These

signs, along with the mechanism of injury,

indicate:

a. An oncoming faint.

b. Emotional stress.

c. Internal bleeding.

d. Onset of diabetic coma.

March 2007

11. For which one of the following infectious

diseases is a vaccine presently available:

a. Herpes.

b. AIDS.

c. Mononucleosis.

d. Hepatitis B.

12. Based on current research, which of the

following statements about the AIDS virus

is correct?

a. It can be found in blood and semen.

b. It can be transmitted by sharing eating

utensils.

c. It can be transmitted by shaking hands.

d. It can be found in perspiration.

14. During the primary assessment of a

responsive adult patient, you detect a

breathing rate of 28 breaths per minute.

You would categorize this as:

a. Above normal.

b. Below normal.

c. Normal.

d. Indeterminate.

15. A blood-soaked dressing on the arm

indicates that bleeding has not yet been

controlled. You should now:

a. Remove the dressing and check the

wound.

b. Apply pressure to the femoral artery.

c. Place a clean dressing on top and

apply more pressure.

d. Apply a tourniquet.

16. The type of shock that is caused by a

severe infection is called:

a. Septic.

b. Psychogenic.

c. Cardiogenic.

d. Hemorrhagic.

13. In a hazmat situation airway management

and immobilzation are carried out in the:

a. hot zone

b. warm zone

c. cold zone

d. neutral zone

March 2007

17. Which one of the following is considered

a breach of duty:

a. failure to obtain consent.

b. failure to wear your name tag.

c. inappropriate use of lights and siren.

d. insubordination.

18. Immediately before a seizure, the patient

experiences an unpleasant odour. This

phase is referred to as:

a. Clonic.

b. Aura.

c. Tonic.

d. Postical.

19. The emergency responder should

assume a head/spinal injury in any

unwitnessed situation where the patient

is:

a. Alert.

b. Responsive to pain.

c. Not breathing.

d. Unresponsive.

20. The secondary assessment of the patient

consists of a head to toe examination and a

check of the:

a. Pressure points.

b. Procedures for administering CPR.

c. Manual stabilization of the head.

d. Vital signs.

21. You are taking blood pressure by palpation.

A radial pulse indicates a blood pressure of

at least:

a. 110 mmHg

b. 100 mmHg

c. 90 mmHg

d. 80 mmHg

22. You are called for an asthma attack,

treatments may include all except:

a. Metered dose inhaler

b. Bronchodilators

c. Nitroglycerin

d. Inhaled steroids

March 2007

24. Which one of the following conditions may

mimic the signs of acute alcohol

intoxication?

a. Hypoglycemia

b. Congestive heart failure.

c. Absence seizures.

d. Anaphylactic shock.

25. Which one of the following breathing

diseases is included in C.O.P.D.:

a. Croup.

b. Hyperventilation

c. Emphysema.

d. Dyspnea

26. A condition where air builds up in the

pleural space, collapses the lung and

puts pressure on the heart is called:

a. Closed pneumothorax

b. Tension pneumothorax

c. Hemothorax

d. Open pneumothorax

27. Oxygen humidification is recommended if

you are administering oxygen for longer

than:

a. 15 minutes.

b. 30 minutes.

c. 60 minutes.

d. 90 minutes.

28. You find a male patient with obvious

difficulty breathing. He is using his neck

muscles, and is cyanotic. There are red

blotches on his chest, and his neck is

swelling. You suspect :

a. Anaphylaxis.

b. Bronchitis.

c. Emphysema.

d. Asthma.

23. In topographic anatomy, the term "lateral"

means:

a. Nearer the midline of the body.

b. Away from the midline of the body.

c. Nearer the head.

d. Away from the head.

March 2007

29. When you are giving mouth-to-nose AR,

you should:

a. Hold the casualty's mouth closed.

b. Pinch the nostrils closed before

blowing air into the casualty.

c. Tilt the head back less than for the

mouth-to-mouth method of AR.

d. Keep the mouth and nose closed

between breaths.

32. A rapid body survey should take no longer

than:

a. 30 seconds

b. 45 seconds

c. 60 seconds

d. 90 seconds

34. ASA should be offered to the patient with

chest pain who is taking nitroglycerin:

a. Before the first dose of nitro

b. After the first dose of nitro

c. After the second dose of nitro

d. After the third dose of nitro

30. During one-rescuer CPR for adults, the

ratio of compressions to ventilations

should be:

a. 5:1

b. 15:2

c. 30:2

d. 35:2

33. To correctly size an oropharyngeal airway

place the flange at the corner of the mouth

with the tip reaching:

a. The angle of the patient's jaw

b. The top of the patient's ear

c. The patient's earlobe

d. Two fingerswidth from the flange.

31. A guideline for normal systolic blood

pressure in an adult male would be:

a. 50 plus the man's age up to 150 mm.

Hg.

b. 65 plus the man's age up to 120 mm.

Hg.

c. 80 plus the man's age up to 130 mm.

Hg.

d. 100 plus the man's age up to 150

mm. Hg.

March 2007

35. When suctioning a non-breathing adult

casualty, a first aider should:

a. Apply suction as soon as the suction tip

touches the mouth.

b. Insert the suction tip deep into the

larynx.

c. Suction for no more than 15 seconds.

d. Insert the tip with the curved side

towards the tongue.

38. A flail chest results when :

a. Three ribs are broken on each side of

the chest.

b. Part of the spine becomes separated

from the ribs.

c. The breastbone is broken in three

places.

d. Several ribs are broken in more than

one place.

36. Which of the following devices provides the

highest percentage of O2 delivery?

a. Nasal cannula.

b. Plastic face mask.

c. Partial rebreathing mask.

d. Non-rebreathing mask.

40. OPQRST is used to assess:

a. Pain

b. Level of consciousness

c. Vision

d. Hearing

37. You suspect a patient's pain is due to a

myocardial infarction rather than angina

because the pain:

a. Is under the sternum.

b. Radiates to the neck, jaw and arms.

c. Is not relieved by rest or medication.

d. Lasts for about 3 minutes.

39. Status epilepticus refers to:

a. Normal seizure pattern in epilepsy.

b. Seizures caused by a high fever.

c. Continuous seizure activity.

d. Seizures lasting longer than 2

minutes.

March 2007

43. Manual support of the head and neck of

the patient with suspected spinal injury

can be released:

a. Once the breathing has been

checked.

b. When a hard collar has been applied.

c. If the patient is unconscious.

d. When the patient is fully immobilized

to a backboard.

46. A conscious casualty who has suffered a

stroke becomes unconscious. To keep his

airway open and help him breathe, you

should:

a. Turn him into the recovery position with

his unaffected side down.

b. Place him in a semisitting position.

c. Turn him into the recovery position with

his unaffected side up.

d. Place him on his back.

42. When aligning the head in the eyes-front

neutral position, watch for:

a. Pulse, movement, sensation.

b. Crepitus, pain, resistance.

c. Pain, circulation, retention.

d. Tingling, numbness, paralysis.

41. The recommended oxygen flow rate for

nasal cannulae (nasal prongs) is:

a. 1-6 litres/min.

b. 6-8 litres/min.

c. 8-12 litres/min.

d. 10-15 litres/min.

44. To prepare a completely amputated part

of the body for transportation to hospital

with the casualty, you should:

a. Place it in a clean plastic bag filled

with cold water.

b. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and

keep it cool.

c. Wash it off and place it into a bag of

crushed ice.

d. Wrap it in clean, moist dressings and

keep it at body temperature.

45. Hypovolemic shock results from:

a. The body's reaction to a foreign

protein.

b. An overdose of insulin.

c. Toxins produced by a severe

infection.

d. Decreased volume of the blood.

March 2007

50. Shock is best defined as:

a. Inadequate circulation to the body’s

tissues

b. Inadequate delivery of oxygen to the

lungs

c. Inadequate elimination of waste

products from the body.

d. Inadequate amount of insulin.

48. To determine whether a c-spine injury has

occurred, you should think about the

Mechanism of Injury. This can best be

described as:

a. The force that causes the injury and the

way it acts on the body.

b. The circumstances after the injury.

c. The weather conditions at the time of

the incident.

d. The area of the body that is injured

49. The correct ratio of compressions to

ventilations for two -rescuer CPR on a

child is:

a. 5:1

b. 15:2

c. 5:2

d. 15:1

47. A worker has fallen from a six-foot ladder

onto a concrete floor. You first action

should be.

a. Take a SAMPLE history.

b. Perform a secondary survey.

c. Take charge and perform a scene

survey.

d. Asess the rate and quality of breathing.

March 2007

51. The most critical factor in defibrillation is:

a. The time from collapse to

defibrillation.

b. The skill of the AED responder.

c. The patient’s previous cardiac

history.

d. The type of defibrillator used.

52. The AED will shock a patient:

a. With a sinus rhythm.

b. In asystole.

c. In ventricular fibrillation.

d. With pulseless electrical activity (PEA).

14 AED

55. When using an AED on a patient who is wearing

a pacemaker, place the electrode pads:

a. Directly on pacemaker.

b. Two inches away from pacemaker.

c. Within one inch of the pacemaker.

d. At least one inch away from pacemaker.

53. In the hypothermic patient you should limit the

number of shocks to a maximum of:

a. 1.

b. 2.

c. 3.

d. 4.

54. When transporting a patient, a shock should be

administered:

a. Only in a vehicle that is properly

grounded.

b. Whenever the machine indicates shock

necessary.

c. When the vehicle is stopped.

d. When the vehicle is travelling at less than

20 km per hour.

ELECTIVE SESSIONS

Instructions

Complete only the multiple choice questions that correspond to the electives of your program. (1

mark each). Circle the letter (a, b, c, d) indicating your answer. If you change your answer before

handing in your paper, circle your new choice, place an "X" over your previous choice and initial the

change.

Select the single BEST answer to each of the following questions.

March 2007

58. In determining the amount of body

surface burned, the area of the palm of

the hand represents ____ % of the body

surface.

a. One

b. Two

c. Five

d. Nine

Burns

57. Burns that involve all layers of the skin

are:

a. Superficial.

b. Partial thickness.

c. Full thickness.

d. First degree.

59. The most immediate serious

complication associated with burns is:

a. Shock

b. Infection

c. Scarring

d. Hypothermia

61. An abrasion is:

a. A deep break in the skin involving

significant bleeding.

b. Partial or complete loss of a body part.

c. The result of a sharp object driven

through soft tissue.

d. A scrape or rubbing away of the

epidermis.

60. A man is filling a gas tank on a generator

when it bursts into flames. The caualty has

a hoarse voice, he is blistered around the

mouth and nose and both arms are

reddened. You should classify this burn as:

a. Critical

b. Superficial

c. Moderate

d. Minor

Wound Management

56. You have shocked a casualty and there are

signs of circulation. You should:

a. Remove the AED from the scene.

b. Leave the AED attached to the casualty.

c. Disconnect the cables from the AED.

d. Remove the pads from the chest.

March 2007

62. A soft tissue injury resulting from the

impact of a blunt object is called:

a. A laceration.

b. An avulsion.

c. A contusion.

d. A concussion.

65. Tetanus is a condition:

a. That involves specific infection in the

lower jaw.

b. That only occurs in the third world.

c. That is caused by a virus

d. That can be prevented by

immunization.

67. Which action is part of first aid for a

nosebleed?

a. Place an ice-pack on the back of the

neck.

b. Plug the nose with gauze.

c. Lean forward and firmly pinch the soft

parts of the nose.

d. Lean the casualty backwards in a

sitting postion.

64. Responders involved in wound management

should consider:

a. Wounds should be thoroughly flushed to

prevent infection.

b. All open wounds are contaminated to

some degree.

c. The risk of infection continues until the

wound is dressed and bandaged.

d. Gloves should be worn if you suspect

the patient may be ill.

63. The acronym SHARP refers to:

a. The assessment of the severity of a

wound injury.

b. Signs and symptoms used to determine

the need to transport.

c. The depth of a penetrating wound and

potential damage.

d. Signs of infection as assessed in wound

injuries.

66. Which one of the following factors

increases the risk of life -threatening

injury:

a. High velocity.

b. Low velocity.

c. High density.

d. Low energy.

March 2007

69. The body loses heat in a variety of ways

including:

a. radiation, conduction, evaporation

and respiration.

b. radiation, refrigeration, evaporation

and conduction.

c. conduction, convection, evaporation

and refrigeration.

d. submersion, convection, radiation

and respiration.

71. You have been called for an 81 year old

unconscious male patient. He is in his living

room. Despite the hot day, he is overly

dressed. He is flushed and dry, extremely

hot to touch. You suspect:

a. Heat exhaustion.

b. Stroke.

c. Hyperglycemia.

d. Heatstroke.

70. If it becomes necessary to thaw a hand

with deep frostbite you should ensure

that:

a. The patient sees a doctor no later

than 48 hrs after thawing

b. There is no danger of refreezing

c. Adequate pain relief medication is

available

d. Capillary refill takes no longer than

15 seconds

72. Body mechanics refers to:

a. Positioning and movement of the body

b. Number of rescuers needed to move a

patient

c. A type of rescue carry

d. A special device to lift heavy loads

Lifting and Carrying

Heat and Cold Illness and Injury

68. To prevent further contamination and

infection of a wound, you should cleanse the

surrounding skin by:

a. Swabbing in circular motions around the

wound.

b. Wiping lightly over the edges of the

wound.

c. Swabbing from one side of the wound to

the other.

d. Wiping away from the edges of the

wound.

March 2007

75. Crepitus is:

a.. Poor distal circulation

b. A grating sound caused by bone ends

rubbing together

c. A type of splint

d. A type of fracture

Musculoskeletal - Upper Limbs

76. After discovering a possible fracture you

should assess which of the following before

and after splinting:

a. Sensation, morbidity, protrusion.

b. Capillary refill, pulse, sensation.

c. Pulse, motor function, sensation.

d. Crepitus, resistance, pain.

77. A worker has had his hand caught in a car

door. You suspect several fractured bones

in the hand. The hand should be splinted:

a. Flat against the splint.

b. In a tight fist position.

c. With the fingers taped together.

d. In the position of function.

78. In the case of suspected fracture of the

clavicle, emergency responders should use:

a. An arm sling supported with broad

bandages.

b. A St. John tubular sling tied on the

injured side.

c. A St. John tubular sling tied on the

uninjured side.

d. Rigid splints to support the arm and

support the shoulder.

73. You are alone and must remove a casualty

with a suspected spinal injury from a very

hazardous situation. You should

a. Grab his wrists and drag him lengthwise.

b. Keep his body rigid, support his head and

neck and roll him away from the scene.

c. Tie his legs together and drag him feet

first.

d. Grasp his clothing under his shoulders,

support his head and neck, and drag him

lengthwise.

74. To safely perform a chair carry you need

a. 2 rescuers

b. 3 rescuers

c. 4 rescuers

d. 5 rescuers

March 2007

79. Force on a joint may cause bone ends to

come out of their proper position. This type

of injury is called a:

a. Sprain

b. Fracture

c. Dislocation

d. Strain

80. After an extremity fracture has been

immobilized, the responder should check for

circulation:

a. In the injured limb only.

b. Distal to the injury.

c. Proximal to the injury.

d. At the site of the fracture.

Musculoskeletal - Lower Limbs

81. The longest, strongest bone in the body is

the:

a. Humerus.

b. Fibula.

c. Tibia.

d. Femur.

83. You can best control the swelling and pain

of an ankle sprain by:

a. Tight bandages and a heating pad.

b. Rest, immbolization, application of cold,

and elevation.

c. Rigid splints and bandages

d. Compression, elevation and application

of heat.

82. Effective immobilization of the tibia includes

immobilization of the:

a. Knee, tibia, fibula and ankle.

b. Femur, knee, tibia and ankle.

c. Femur and ankle.

d. Hip, femur, knee, tibia and ankle.

March 2007

Head/spinal/pelvic Injury

84. If the patient has an open fracture

responders should :

a. Attempt to push bones back into the

wound.

b. Use bulky dressings to pad around the

protruding bones ends.

c. Apply pressure directly over the

fracture to control bleeding.

d. Apply a tourniquet above the fracture

site.

85. A traction splint could be used for which of the

following injuries:

a. A fractured pelvis.

b. An injured knee joint.

c. A dislocated hip.

d. A mid-shaft femur fracture.

86. A concussion is best described as:

a. Bruising or swelling of the spinal cord.

b. Tearing of brain tissue.

c. Pooling of blood in the brain.

d. Temporary loss of brain function

88. When immobilizing a patient on a spine

board, which part of the body is the first

to be strapped?

a. Chest

b. Pelvis

c. Legs

d. Head

87. You are examining the head of an infant who

has been involved in a car crash. You need

to be aware of:

a. Soft spots in the infant’s skull.

b. Infant’s pupils react differently than

adults.

c. Whether or not the infant can cry

forcefully.

d. The startle reflex.

2121

March 2007

90. The Glasgow Coma Scale measures three

basic functions. They are:

a. Eye, verbal and motor responses.

b. Pulse rate, speech, involuntary

movement.

c. Pulse rate, respiration rate, eye

response.

d. Respiration rate, eye response,

voluntary movement.

92. “Raccoon eyes” indicates:

a. Possible eye injury

b. Possible fracture of the jaw

c. Possible scalp laceration

d. Possible head injury

91. Which one of the following changes in vital

signs is characteristic of brain injury:

a. Increase in pulse rate.

b. Constant respiratory rate.

c. increase in blood pressure.

d. Decrease in blood pressure.

89. Contusions are:

a. Usually controlled with direct

pressure

b. Very serious for the patient due to

increased pressure in the brain.

c. Usually associated with scalp

lacerations

d. Almost always seen in children.

March 2007

93. You are called to the scene of a motorcycle

crash. The rider is dazed and walking

around. You should:

a. Suspect spinal injury and manage

accordingly.

b. Not worry about spinal injury because

the person is mobile.

c. Advise the person to lie down in case of

fainting.

d. Determine the chief complaint and

provide first aid for it.

98. Contact dermatitis occurs when:

a. The skin comes in contact with a

poisonous substance.

b. A poison enters the eye of a contact

lens wearer.

c. Hot gases are inhaled.

d. A poison is injected under the skin.

94. When managing a possible spinal injury:

a. The cervical immobilization device is

applied by the police.

b. Transport the patient in the position of

greatest comfort.

c. Apply a cervical immobilization device

before assessing the patient.

d. Responders must provide initial

stabilization by supporting the head and

ensuring neutral alignment

95. A helmet must be removed from a patient:

a. If there are no airway or breathing

problems.

b. If the patient will be immobilized to a

long spinal immobilizaton device.

c. When the helmet has a face mask that

interferes with the responder’s ability

to assist with ventilations

d. It is a full- face helmet.

Poisons, Bites and Stings

96. When dealing with pelvic injuries you must

always consider the possibility of:

a. Ruptured bladder.

b. Ruptured spleen.

c. Spinal injuries.

d. Rib fractures.

97. To properly measure a cervical collar, you:

a. Measure the distance from the ear lobe

to the shoulder.

b. Measure the distance from the corner

of the mouth to the ear lobe.

c. Measure the distance from the

cheekbone to the shoulder blade.

d. Measure the distance from the

trapezius muscle to the angle of the jaw

March 2007

101. The external layer of the skin is called::

a. Cutaneous tissue.

b. Dermis.

c. Adipose tissue.

d. Epidermis.

100. A child has swallowed an unknown

poisonous substance. You should:

a. Dilute the poison with several

glasses of cool water.

b. Call your local Poison Control Centre

and follow directions.

c. Give a solution of mild liquid dish

detergent and water.

d. Use activated charcoal.

99. Carbon monoxide:

a. May result from fires or automobile

exhaust.

b. Has a very distinct odour

c. Is not life-threatening.

d. Requires the administration of low

concentration O2.

Anatomy and Physiology

102. Muscles are attached to the bones by:

a. Ligaments.

b. Meninges.

c. Cartilage.

d. Tendons.

103. The appendix is located in which quadrant of

the abdomen:

a. Lower right.

b. Upper right.

c. Upper left.

d. Lower left.

14 23

March 2007

105. A skeletal injury to the lower back could result

from direct trauma to the:

a. Cervical vertebrae.

b. Thoracic vertebrae.

c. Lumbar vertebrae.

d. Coccygeal vertebrae.

107. Which one of the following is a function

of the skin?

a. Regulation of oxygen levels.

b. Production of proteins.

c. Regulation of body temperature.

d. Removal of carbon dioxide.

106. The pulse point located in the upper

portion of the thigh is called the:

a. Popliteal.

b. Femoral.

c. Brachial.

d. Temporal.

104. The white exterior portion of the eye is called

the:

a. Pupil.

b. Sclera.

c. Cornea.

d. Iris.

March 2007

Behavioural Emergencies

110. When communicating with patients:

a. Stay at eye level & maintain eye contact.

b. Stay as close to the patient as possible.

c. Use medical terminology to enhance

credibility.

d. Hide facts if the situation is serious.

111. In cases of behavioural disorders, the

responder should:

a. Always use restraints.

b. Give the patient a choice in the treatment

c. Play along with auditory or visual

hallucinations.

d. Force the patient to make decisions.

112. The best way to prevent a Critical Incident

Stress situation from becoming worse is:

a. Ignore it.

b. Be familiar with the signs and symptoms.

c. Ensure early use of proper medication.

d. Force the responder to talk about the

situation.

109. Insulin is produced in the:

a. Spleen.

b. Liver.

c. Pancreas.

d. Gall bladder.

108. Urine is expelled from the body through

the:

a. Kidneys.

b. Bladder.

c. Ureters.

d. Urethra.

March 2007

117. Irrigate eyes with:

a. Diluted vinegar.

b. Saline solution.

c. An appropriate chemical antidote.

d. Sodium bicarbonate.

115. Signs and symptoms of intense light burns

to the eyes include:

a. Bleeding from the conjunctiva.

b. Gritty feeling in the eyes.

c. Lacerations to the globe.

d. Discolouration of the orbits.

113. Remove a contact lense only if:

a. There is a chemical burn to the eye.

b. The eyeball is injured.

c. Transport time is short.

d. The casualty is wearing hard lenses.

116. Eye injuries that include lacerations:

a. Should be covered with clean, moist

dressings.

b. Iindicate possible skull fracture.

c. Usually involve a great deal of

bleeding.

d. Require moderate pressure on the

eye to control bleeding.

Eye Injuries

114. You discover a particle embedded in the

casualty’s cornea. You should:

a. Remove the particle with a moist corner

of a facial tissue or clean cloth.

b. Flush the eye with water for 10 minutes.

c. Use a splinter forcep to remove the

particle.

d. Cover the eye and transport the casualty

to medical help.

March 2007

118. Signs and symptoms of acute abdomen

include:

a. Excessive hunger or thirst.

b. Hypertension and brachycardia.

c. Distension with rebound tenderness.

d. Fever with deep, shallow breathing.

Gastrointestinal and Genitourinary

119. Signs that a hernia is serious include:

a. Pain and tenderness at site.

b. Pale, ashen skin colour at site.

c. Hernia can be pushed back into body.

d. Hernia is above the diaphragm.

120. Which one of the following is not crucial in

cases of abdominal distress:

a. Establish the cause of the pain.

b. Give oxygen by non-rebreather mask.

c. Be prepared to deal with vomiting.

d. Monitor the patient for signs of

hypovolemic shock.

121. In the case of abdominal evisceration, the

emergency responder should:

a. Irrigate the wound before dressing it.

b. Give oxygen by nasal canula.

c. Dress the wound with a moist, sterile

dressing

d. Gently reposition the organs in the

abdominal cavity.

122. "Referred pain":

a. Occurs when the sensation of pain is

delayed.

b. Results when the two nervous systems

come into contact.

c. Is the symptomatic description of pain by the

patient.

d. Is the description of pain as recorded on the

patient care report.

123. Trauma to male and female genitalia:

a. Often involves significant bleeding.

b. Is not usually painful because of protected

nerve endings.

c. Usually results in sterility.

d. Often results in post-traumatic infection.

March 2007

126. Typically in a triage system:

a. Those whose survival requires

immediate care are classified level 3.

b. Those with minor injuries but

suffering extreme pain are classified

level 1.

c. Those in cardiac arrest or not

breathing are classified level 2.

d. Those who will survive if care is

somewhat delayed are classified

level 2.

127. The most knowledgable responder in the

first ambulance is generally assigned to

role of:

a. Incident manager.

b. Triage officer.

c. Staging officer.

d. Communications officer.

124 The priorities of MCIs include all but one

of the following.

a. Overestimating the resources that may

be required.

b. Comprehensive care of all patients.

c. Planning for the positioning of all

vehicles.

d. Arranging for advanced level care

providers at the scene.

125. At the scene of a MCI:

a. All patients are assessed quickly and

triaged.

b. Only conscious patients are assessed.

c. Patients without a detectable pulse are

given the highest priority.

d. All patients are transported

immediately.

Multiple Casualty Incident (MCI)

128. Of the following casualties, which would you

care for first? The casualty who is:

a. In shock without apparent injuries, but

conscious.

b. Unconscious and lying on his back.

c. Bleeding from the forehead, but

conscious.

d. Unconscious and lying on his stomach.

March 2007

Communications

130. Constant monitoring of the patient in a

drug- related emergency is important

because:

a. The patient will likely try to take more

of the drug.

b. These patients are more likely to sue.

c. The patient’s condition may change

quickly.

d. The patient is more likely to become

violent.

131. The most accurate source of time for

reporting purposes is:

a. The responder’s watch.

b. The dispatch unit.

c. The local radio station.

d. The patient’s watch.

132 An essential element of a responder’s

verbal report includes:

a. The name of the patient.

b. The patient’s telephone number.

c. The time of the incident.

d. The patient’s response to the care

given

Geriatric Emergencies

134. An eighty-five year old lady has fallen

down a flight of stairs. You suspect spinal

injury and decide to put the patient on a

spineboard. You should be aware that:

a. It may be difficult to fit a cervical

collar.

b. Spinal curvature may make it difficult

and uncomfortable to put the patient

on the board.

c. A K.E.D. is better for this patient.

d. Because of her age, she may be more

prone to vomitting.

133. Which one of the following is the

best way to assess dehydration in

the elderly:

a. Check the mucous membranes in the

eyes and mouth.

b. Check skin condition.

c. Take an oral temperature.

d. Assess the pulse rate.

Substance Abuse

129. The factor which indicates a drug related

emergency is life-threatening is:

a. Altered mental status.

b. Dilated pupils slow to respond to

light.

c. Lack of coordination and slurred

speech.

d. High, low or irregular pulse.

March 2007

135. Which of the following is NOT a special

consideration when assessing elderly

patients:

a. Geriatric patients often have a reduced

gag reflex.

b. Radial pulses may be weakened by

peripheral vascular disease.

c. Patients may not show signs of fever

even in cases of serious infection.

d. Mental status often reflects a fear of

emergency responders.

Emergency Childbirth

136. Crowning occurs:

a. In the first stage of labour.

b. In the second stage of labour.

c. In the third stage of labour.

d. In the fourth stage of pregnancy.

137. When suctioning a newborn you should

use:

a. a bulb syringe.

b. A V-Vac suction device.

c. A straw.

d. A battery powererd suction device.

138. To help control bleeding after the baby is

born:

a. Pack the vagina with pads.

b. Massage the mother’s uterus.

c. Elevate the mother’s legs above heart

level.

d. Place the mother on her right side.

140. The onset of shock in infants and

children:

a. May be sudden and severe.

b. Is no different than adults.

c. Usually progresses slowly.

d Usually results from cardiac

problems.

Pediatric Emergencies

139. One of the most difficult things to assess

in infants and young children is:

a. Blood pressure.

b. Pain.

c. Adequate perfusion.

d. Level of consciousness.

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141. Assessments of children should take

into consideration:

a. No splints should be used since all are

designed for adult patients.

b. Abdominal injuries are less serious

since muscles are less developed.

c. The skull has not completely fused,

so head injuries are uncommon.

d. Chest injury is likely to involve organs

without damage to ribs.

142. The responder who suspects a child to

be the victim of abuse should:

a. Question parents immediately.

b. Focus on management of injuries to

the child.

c. Gather evidence and question

bystanders.

d. Immediately remove the child from

parents or caregivers.

143 . A child with history of a sore throat, fever

and painful swallowing, has breathing

difficulties. You should:

a. Arrange for immediate transport to a

medical facility.

b. Start mouth-to-mouth artificial

respiration.

c. Stand by and encourage coughing.

d. Begin abdominal thrusts.

144. The mammalian reflex refers to:

a. An increase in heart rate and respiration.

b. A decrease in heart rate and dilation of blood

vessels.

c. An increase in heart rate and constriction of

pupils.

d. A decrease in heart rate and constriction of

blood vessels.

Aquatic Emergencies

145. Three common scuba related emergencies are:

a. Air embolism, decompression sickness and

mammalian reflex.

b. Air embolism, decompression sickness and

barotrauma.

c. Decompression sickness, the bends and

barotrauma.

d. Air embolism, barotrauma and the squeeze.

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149. When positioning a patient, responders

should consider that:

a. Raising arms and legs will produce

swelling.

b. Semi-sitting will improve blood flow to

the heart.

c. Knees raised will reduce pressure on

the abdomen.

d. Recovery position will often improve

breathing.

146. In cases of near drowning:

a. The lungs are often filled with water

and require deep suctioning.

b. Laryngospasm prevents water from

entering the lungs.

c. Abdominal thrusts should always be

performed before ventilating the

patient.

d. Manual suction devices are not

powerful enough to remove water

and fluids from the airway.

Extended Care

148. To reduce the risk of respiratory infection

and pneumonia where medical care is

delayed, responders should:

a. Have the patient breathe deeply and

cough.

b. Provide the patient with adequate

hydration.

c. Position the patient in the position of

comfort.

d. Ensure the patient is kept warm and at

rest.

147. You have been helping at a water rescue

when one of the divers begins to have

problems. You suspect air embolism. This

patient should receive:

a. Oxygen at 15 lpm.

b. Oxygen at 6 lpm.

c. Epinepherine.

d. Inhaled steroids.

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150. When caring for wounds over extended

periods, always:

a. Remove dressings and bandages

regularly to check the wound.

b. Clean wounds with antiseptic before

applying dressings.

c. Apply a tourniquet to prevent excessive

bleeding.

d. Check regularly for signs of infection or

reduced circulation.

First Aid Stations/Rooms

154. Provincial first aid legislation prescribes

the contents of:

a. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and first

aid manuals.

b. First aid stations, training programs and

equipment manufacturers.

c. First aid boxes, first aid reports and

record keeping.

d. First aid boxes, first aid rooms and

training.

151. The maintenance of fluids and nutrition is

key to extended patient care and can be

provided by:

a. Giving fluids and food to all patients

regardless of MOI.

b. Use small amounts of liquids and foods

to determine whether the patient can

tolerate the intake.

c. Allow the patient to consume any foods

they would like to make them feel more

comfortable.

d. Even if the patient is not thirsty or

hungry the responder must insist on

intake.

152. When administering medication, responders should consider that:

a Right medication, right amount, right person, right time, right method.

b Right nutrition, , right method, right time, right person, right amount

c Right medication, right action, right person, right time, right responsibility

d Right medication, right amount, right person, right responsibility, right action

153. To give ear drops to an adult, the ear should be pulled:

a. Downward and backward.

b. Downward and forward.

c. Upward and backward.

d. Upward and forward.

Ambulance Operation/Maintenance

156. Footprints can best be described as:

a. The area of contact between the road surface and the tires.

b. The type of tread on the tire.

c. Footsteps used to get into the back of the ambulance.

d. Skid patterns on dry pavement.

157. Ground guides or spotters should be situated:

a. Behind the vehicle on the driver side.

b. On the front left side of the vehicle.

c. Front and centre of the vehicle.

d. On the front right side of the vehicle.

155. First aid stations must:

a. Be easily accessible to workers

b. Have a shower

c. Be at least 6 square meters in size

d. Have oxygen available Record Keeping

158. When completing the patient narrative:

a. Try to establish an accurate diagnosis.

b. Record the signs and symptoms as accurately as possible.

c. Do not include negative data.

d. Always use medical terminology.

159. A patient refuses your care. You should:

a. Fill out and personally sign a "Refusal of Care" form.

b. Proceed with patient assessment and management and ignore the refusal.

c. Find a relative or family member to give you consent.

d. Have the patient and a witness sign the "Refusal of Care" form.

164. When handling a knocked-out tooth you should:

a. Place the tooth back in the patient's

mouth.

b. Place the tooth in a cup of milk.

c. Wrap the tooth in dry gauze.

d. Place the tooth in a mild acidic solution using vinegar. Dental Emergencies

163. To manage severe toothaches, responders should:

a. Advise the patient to chew on the other

side of the mouth.

b. Advise the patient to drink hot liquids to

sooth discomfort.

c. Advise the patient to suck on ice cubes

to dull the pain.

d. Extract the tooth with the assistance of

a second responder.

General Pharmacology

160. Sublingual medication is given:

a. By injection using an auto-injector.

b. Under the patient’s tongue.

c. By inhalation using a metered dose

inhaler.

d. As a tablet to be swallowed.

161. Contraindications of a medication tell

responders:

a. When a medication should not be given

to the patient.

b. When the medication is commonly used

for patients.

c. The expected results of the medication.

d. Actions that might not be desirable yet occur along with desired effects.

162. The ACTION of the drug refers to:

a. The harmful effects.

b. The side effects.

c. The expected effects.

d. The method of administration.

165. Lividity refers to:

a. Stiffening of the joints post mortem.

b. Cooling of the body post mortem.

c. Settling of blood in the body due to gravity.

d. The beginning signs of decomposition. Death at Sea/Remote Areas

166. Later signs of death include:

a. Staining, milky corneas and flushed skin.

b. Staining, lividity and decomposition.

c. Rigor mortis, lividity and milky corneas.

d. Rigor mortis, flushed skin and

decomposition.

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