Divorce according to Jesus Christ

Matthew 5:31-32 LITV

(31) It was also said, Whoever puts away his wife, "let him give her a bill of divorce." [Deuteronomy 24:1] (32) But I say to you, Whoever puts away his wife, apart from a matter of fornication, causes her to commit adultery. And whoever shall marry the one put away commits adultery.

Mark 10:11-12 LITV

(11) And He said to them, Whoever may dismiss his wife and marries another commits adultery against her. (12) And if a woman puts away her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.

Matthew 19:9 LITV

(9) And I say to you, Whoever shall put away his wife, if not for fornication, and shall marry another, [that one] commits adultery. And the one who marries her who was put away commits adultery.

Jesus upholds the authority on matter of Faith, Moses and the Prophets, but tightens the rope on divorce by reversing Moses on divorce

Matthew 5:17-18 EMTV 
(17) "Do not think that I came to abolish the Law or the Prophets. I did not come to abolish, but to fulfill. (18) For assuredly I say to you, until heaven and earth may pass away, one iota or one tittle shall by no means pass away from the law until all things are fulfilled. 

The Greek reference texts are taken from the "Interlinear Scripture Analyzer" for clarity on the matter of divorce and to avoid wrong reading or interpretation

Greek Mat 19:19 ISA

Divorce from the perspective of Matthew 19:9

As translated, Matthew 19:9 LITV is in agreement with the Greek.

If the woman (there is no word for wife in Greek, the context provides the meaning) did not fornicate (by porneia) but the man divorces (put away) her for whatever other reason and the man does not marry another woman, the man has no sin to be concerned about. The man sins in committing adultery when he marries another (feminine in Greek) woman. Note that fornication and adultery is not the same, as some believe. So far, according to Matthew 19:9, the only allowed cause for divorce is porneia. We have to figure out what constitutes porneia in the Greek sense for the Hebrew. Later, for the etymology of porneia.

What is the status of the woman who has been put away not because of porneia, from the perspective of Matthew 19:9? Is she an adulteress? Remember, adultery is not fornication. Adultery is defined in the Hebrew. For now, what is the status of the woman divorcee (woman put away)?

We read that the nominative masculine one, who marries the accusative (a Greek grammar case) divorced (put away), commits adultery. The verse still does not define the status of the woman who is put away. The verse does not accuse the woman of only sexual crime (porneia) that would justify her becoming a divorcee. For sure, the male who marries her as a no cause divorcee, the male does commit adultery. If we only had Matthew 19:9 as a guidance on marrying a divorcee, the conclusion is clear: the concerned godly man ought to stay away from the divorced woman to not commit adultery because no adulterer, no fornicator (porneia) will be saved.

1 Corinthians 6:9 EMTV
(9)  Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites,

Can we speculate on the status of the woman to say she is an adulterous just because the man who marries the woman who was put away for whatever reason other than porneia commits adultery? No.

Matthew 19:9 implies that we must stick around with the woman if there is no porneia involved in her part form the simple reason that we may not get involved with another woman if the did not commit porneia.

What do we, men, do when the women show us no love for whatever known or unknown reason and separate from us while we are living together or and dare us on our face to go out there and commit adultery? What do we, men, do when the women want to go no matter what we would do to try to hold them back and still press us for a divorce? If the woman does secure the divorce just because she opts out of the marriage, is she guilty of any doctrinal crime? That is, does Jesus hold her up to the same standard of porneia?

Matthew 19:9 is not helping in that decision making. I am hearing from Matthew 19:9 that we married them so we deal with our situation. We need to do more research, seeing the stance of Matthew 19:9).

Divorce from the perspective of Matthew 5:32

Matthew 5:32 keeps the same language of Matthew 19:19, that anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery. But, the verses informs us of the status of a woman who was put away. Once the woman had been divorced, she "is adultered". What does that mean?

No one is quite sure. What is certain is that whoever marries a divorcee or a woman who had been put away, whether the woman is guilty of something or not, the man does become an adulterer and, therefore, forfeits his salvation because no adulterer will inherit the kingdom of God (1 Corinthians 6:9).

Greek Mat 5:32 ISA

Greek Mark 10:11 ISA

Mark 10:12