What we can learn about Astrology from the creation account and the story of Joseph: In my opinion, God’s message to humanity in the creation account is crucial: that the sun, moon and stars are ’signs’, and are a clock for determining the holidays (‘mo’adim’).
Shabbat, tefillin(‘phylacteries’) and circumcision are called ‘signs’ ’otot’, and the time for them occurs after a specific amount of sun cycles(rising,setting) and/or moon appearances have passed, and shabbat is generally observed until the stars are visible. The holidays are referred to in the Torah as ‘mo’adim’.
Gen 1:14 And God said: 'Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for ‘otot’, and for ‘mo’adim’, and for days and years. 15 and let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth.' And it was so.
יד וַיֹּאמֶר אֱ', יְהִי מְאֹרֹת בִּרְקִיעַ הַשָּׁמַיִם, לְהַבְדִּיל, בֵּין הַיּוֹם וּבֵין הַלָּיְלָה; וְהָיוּ לְאֹתֹת וּלְמוֹעֲדִים, וּלְיָמִים וְשָׁנִים.טו וְהָיוּ לִמְאוֹרֹת בִּרְקִיעַ הַשָּׁמַיִם, לְהָאִיר עַל-הָאָרֶץ; וַיְהִי-כֵן
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Correlation to future events: It can be that there is a decree from God of various events to occur at a specific time, and the sun moon and stars are a clock which can point to when they will occur, but it is absolutely NOT the case that they have any influence whatsoever. Imagine a schedule on one’s smartphone, linked to one’s appointment and ‘to do list’, which rings at the relevant times, and is mistaken by someone who has never seen any technology as being the cause of the event.
Humans vs ‘the stars’, and ‘Fate’:
Secondly: It is stressed that God created the sun, moon and stars, and then after that humans are created in the divine image, ie they are beyond the influence of the non-divine, ie beyond any influence of sun, moon and stars.
Thirdly: The sun moon and stars bow to Joseph in the dream from God, meaning that God is telling him that he will have divine inspiration which will enable him to overcome what is written in the stars, that which seems to be ‘Fated’, and to overcome the effect of the Seasons; ie humans, who are ‘created in the divine image’, especially when acting at the level of their soul, ie with divine inspiration, are beyond the influences of the stars and ‘Fate’ etc.
Fourth: See now the interpretation I gave of Joseph’s dream: the sun, moon and stars, bow to him! And indeed Joseph arranged for the negative influence of Fated events to be mitigated.
Conclusion: May we be blessed to reject all the shackles of alleged supernatural power over us and all negative ‘Fated’ events, and instead act at the highest level of our potential, thereby to bring about the activation of the highest level of historical-path-unfolding.
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See also my video presentation: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cBdx6gS1R3c Kabbalistic Astrology Divine guidance over Fate (illustrated by the Biblical Joseph story).
posted 2024
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Claude
add subtitles:
Biblical Context of Celestial Signs
The Nature of Celestial Influence
Joseph's Dream as a Paradigm
Human Free Will vs Determinism
Textual Support Critique: While you quote Genesis 1:14-15 extensively, other key claims lack direct textual support. Solution: Add relevant verses for:
The "divine image" references
Details of Joseph's dream
Other instances where celestial bodies are discussed as signs
Theological Framework Critique: The essay assumes readers understand Orthodox Jewish concepts without explanation. Solution: Consider briefly defining terms like:
Mo'adim (perhaps as "appointed times")
The Jewish understanding of "divine image"
The relationship between divine decree and free will
Argument Development Critique: The conclusion about rejecting "shackles of alleged supernatural power" feels somewhat disconnected from the preceding analysis. Solution: Build this theme throughout by:
Showing other biblical examples of humans transcending apparent fate
Explaining how the creation order (celestial bodies before humans) supports your interpretation
Drawing clearer connections between Joseph's administrative actions and spiritual significance
Historical Context Critique: The essay doesn't address how this interpretation relates to ancient Near Eastern astrology. Solution: Consider briefly noting:
How this reading contrasts with contemporary ancient beliefs
Why this distinction mattered in biblical times
Why it remains relevant today
Logical Flow Critique: The numbered points ("Secondly," "Thirdly," etc.) don't clearly build on each other. Solution: Restructure to show how each point leads to the next, perhaps using connecting phrases like "This understanding leads us to consider..." or "Building on this principle..."
Conclusion Critique: The conclusion introduces new concepts ("historical-path-unfolding") without prior context. Solution: Either:
Introduce these concepts earlier in the essay
Focus the conclusion on synthesizing previously discussed ideas
Expand the conclusion to explain these new terms
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Maimonides took a strong rationalist stance. In Hilchot Avodat Kochavim (Laws of Star Worship) 11:8-9, he states that all forms of astrology are forbidden and false. He considered it a form of idolatry, arguing that belief in astrological determinism contradicts free will. In his Letter on Astrology, he explicitly says that seeking signs from stars is prohibited.
However, there were other significant rabbinic voices who took different positions:
The Talmud (Shabbat 156a) includes discussions suggesting that astrological influences exist but can be overcome through merit and prayer. The famous phrase "ein mazal l'Yisrael" (Israel is not subject to astrological influence) comes from here.
Ibn Ezra, unlike Maimonides, accepted some astrological concepts while rejecting others. He wrote extensively on astronomical and astrological matters.
Regarding Joseph specifically, traditional commentaries focus on several aspects:
Rashi interprets the sun and moon literally as Jacob and Rachel, though he notes Rachel had already passed away, suggesting the dream wasn't meant to be fulfilled literally.
Ramban (Nachmanides) discusses how Joseph's dreams were different from ordinary dreams, being direct divine prophecy.
Hasidic commentaries often focus on deeper spiritual meanings:
The Sefat Emet sees Joseph's ability to interpret dreams as representing mastery over the imagination
The Kedushat Levi discusses Joseph's spiritual elevation above natural order
Several Chabad sources discuss how Joseph represents yesod (foundation), connecting higher spiritual realms with lower ones
Fake news: 1. Joseph dreamed that his brothers would bow to him.
2. He told them this.
3. He wanted to reign over them.
True news: All three statements above are untrue.
Their WHEAT bowed to his WHEAT.... not the brothers bowing to him, not even the brothers bowing to his wheat! Wheat bowing to wheat.
This is a very crucial distinction!
And he didn’t tell them they were bowing to him, and he didn’t want to rule over them.
All false.
He says explicitly that they and he were present in the dream along with their wheat,
וְהִנֵּה אֲנַחְנוּ מְאַלְּמִים אֲלֻמִּים, בְּתוֹךְ הַשָּׂדֶה,
6 And he said unto them: 'Hear, I pray you, this dream which I have dreamed:7: for, behold, we were binding sheaves in the field
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He says their wheat bowed, but not to him but rather to his wheat.
So he sees the brothers and himself in his dream and they did NOT bow to him in the dream, only wheat bowed to wheat.
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And he absolutely did NOT say he would reign over them, this was their MISINTERPRETATION!
Read the Torah passages to make sure you really see it spelled out clearly.
ז וְהִנֵּה אֲנַחְנוּ מְאַלְּמִים אֲלֻמִּים, בְּתוֹךְ הַשָּׂדֶה, וְהִנֵּה קָמָה אֲלֻמָּתִי, וְגַם-נִצָּבָה; וְהִנֵּה תְסֻבֶּינָה אֲלֻמֹּתֵיכֶם, וַתִּשְׁתַּחֲוֶיןָ לַאֲלֻמָּתִי.
7 for, behold, we were binding sheaves in the field, and, lo, my sheaf arose, and also stood upright; and, behold, your sheaves came round about, and bowed down to my sheaf.'
ח וַיֹּאמְרוּ לוֹ, אֶחָיו, הֲמָלֹךְ תִּמְלֹךְ עָלֵינוּ, אִם-מָשׁוֹל תִּמְשֹׁל בָּנוּ; וַיּוֹסִפוּ עוֹד שְׂנֹא אֹתוֹ, עַל-חֲלֹמֹתָיו וְעַל-דְּבָרָיו.
8 And his brethren said to him: 'Shalt thou indeed reign over us? or shalt thou indeed have dominion over us?' And they hated him yet the more for his dreams, and for his words.
ט וַיַּחֲלֹם עוֹד חֲלוֹם אַחֵר, וַיְסַפֵּר אֹתוֹ לְאֶחָיו; וַיֹּאמֶר, הִנֵּה חָלַמְתִּי חֲלוֹם עוֹד, וְהִנֵּה הַשֶּׁמֶשׁ וְהַיָּרֵחַ וְאַחַד עָשָׂר כּוֹכָבִים, מִשְׁתַּחֲוִים לִי.
9 And he dreamed yet another dream, and told it to his brethren, and said: 'Behold, I have dreamed yet a dream: and, behold, the sun and the moon and eleven stars bowed down to me.'
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The brothers had the choice of how to react, and their hatred caused them to misinterpret the dream - it seems as if they had not even correctly HEARD what he actually said.
And as taught by a talmudic and kabbalistic principle,how one interprets a prophetic dream can cause the interpretation to become true, and so one can deduce from this that misinterpreting a prophetic dream can cause the misinterpretation to become true.
And I claim that this is what indeed happened in this case! In other words that they bowed to him in the future was not simply the working out of a destiny foretold by this prophetic dream - no! It was a tragic working out of the mendacious MISINTERPRETATION of the dream.
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My proposition:
Joseph's Dreams: the true interpretation vs the MIS-interpretation of the brothers
Knowing the end of the story, we can see that the two dreams were actually quite correctly prophetic, and had nothing to do with them bowing to him:
1) The first dream of the sheaves bowing hinted that all the wheat of the brothers would come from Joseph - as happened indeed;
2) The second dream was of the sun moon and stars bowing to him. Had they listened to his first dream and realized it did NOT mean THEY would be bowing, they would not have misinterpreted this second dream as meaning they would bow to him.
As I prefer to interpret it, this second dream hinted at Joseph's ability - with God's help - to overcome the powers of Fate - symbolized by the stars - which 'decreed' mass starvation due to a famine; and hinted at the power of the seasons and tides etc (symbolized by the sun and moon) to cause famine, which would however be subservient to Joseph’s planning, due to divine guidance.
However the brothers were jealous of him and hated him - even if perhaps unconsciously (see my interpretation elsewhere about all this) - and this led to their uncharitable misinterpretation of his dreams. As a result they did indeed end up bowing to him, but in my interpretation this was NOT the 'intended' outcome (as we said, it was not the true meaning of the dream, but rather was the result of their unkind misinterpretation).
Divinely-arranged 'Karma' ('mida kneged mida'): Their actions boomeranged tragically. Their uncharitable accusation (that he wanting to rule over them), and then selling him to slavery in Egypt, set in motion a chain of event, which ended catastrophically: the brothers sold Joseph to Egypt as a slave, and as mida kneged mida' (divinely-arranged 'karma') eventually all their descendants became slaves in Egypt.
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WhenGod provides a message to a human, ie 'prophecy', the content might be ambiguous (as with 'ma'kel sha'ked'), and it s to the receiver (prophet) to interpret. Their charachter and temperament will then have its effect, and the interpretation they arrive at will be a factor in determining how future events will unfold! Similarly in our case with the dreams - how Joseph understood them, and how he present them, affected how events unfolded, and how the brothers interpreted them - based on their own character and temperament - determined how future events unfolded. Much of what actually occurred did not necessarily have to occur!
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My conjecture about the more positive possibility: Given the overall story, the interpretation I offer is that the entire Jewish history would have actualized on a different track had they interpreted the dreams correctly, in other words had they not been prejudiced (even if only subconsciously) due to their hatred & jealousy.
I conjecture that had they helped Joseph realize his dreams, they would have been kings in Egypt along with Joseph.
They could have returned to the land of Israel as those who had saved civilization from destruction, and perhaps the messianic era would have arrived.
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Note: Various details of this notion are more carefully worked out in the note at the end, also in the longer presentation on my site sites.google.com/nyu.edu/biblethemes/vayeshev, and in my video presentation: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cBdx6gS1R3c Kabbalistic Astrology: Divine guidance over Fate (illustrated by the Biblical Joseph story).
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Conclusion: May we be inspired by this story the Torah tells us in such detail to judge favorably; May we be blessed to have the graciousness to generously help our brothers achieve their dreams, and thus merit to benefit along with them!
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Caveat Emptor: What I offered above is largely my own interpretation, partly based on general approaches in Tradition (including the Kabbalah teaching I mentioned above).
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Added material: Some fine points and details for interested readers, with questions which arise if the above approach is correct:
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Question 1: Some interpretations say that Joseph brought about the situation where the brothers bowed to him, he arranged for it to happen, since this was foretold in his dreams. However I do not accept this interpretation, since I strongly believe the bowing to him was a misinterpretation.
Of course the brothers end up bowing to Joseph, it was inevitable since he was Viceroy of Egypt, and everyone came to see him, and those who came had to bow. But what reason would Joseph have to allow this to happen? He could have interrupted and revealed himself.
Answer: I would say it was because he wanted to give the brothers the opportunity to do teshuva (repentance), to act to try to rescue Benjamin from danger - as explained elsewhere - and so he had to maintain the pretence that he was not Joseph.
Perhaps he could have absented himself from the room when they arrived to prevent the bowing, but he knew it was ok for him to allow the brothers to bow to him - he was not obligated to prevent it - since he realized that they were bringing about the realization of their own misinterpretation, and it then helped set the stage for the rest of the drama, all to enable them to do teshuva.
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Question 2: Didn't God tell Avraham that his descendants will be slaves in Egypt? So how can it be that history would have been different and slavery in Egypt avoided had the brothers been able to find a more charitable (and truer) interpretation of the dream?
Answer: I believe that the Torah indicates in various ways (I’ll give examples) that history need not have unfolded as it did, and as indicated in the question, and as implied by the prophecy to Abraham:
וַיֹּאמֶר לְאַבְרָם, יָדֹעַ תֵּדַע כִּי-גֵר יִהְיֶה זַרְעֲךָ בְּאֶרֶץ לֹא לָהֶם, וַעֲבָדוּם, וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם--אַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת, שָׁנָה
First of all, God did NOT tell Avraham his descendants will be slaves in Egypt, but rather that “they will be strangers in a land that is not theirs”. The prophecy does not mention where it will take place, so it could have been referring to some other situation, they did not have to remain in Egypt as slaves.
The key word is “avadoom” the root of which “avd” is for example used for the task of Adam/Eve in the Garden of Eden, “le’avdah uleshamrah” ”to work it and protect it”, certainly not meant as ‘slavery’. Jacob agrees to work for his father in law Lavan, using this word. And even when used in the sense closer to ‘slave’ it means ‘servant’ and for example ELiezer, who could certainly have escaped with great wealth when he was sent with a caravan to Harran, presents himself to Rivka’s family as “eved Avraham”, ‘servant’ of Abraham, and this is a position he fills with tremendous pride. So it is not at all equivalent to slave, and is not necessarily filled against one’s will. And God commands us to serve God with all our heart and spirit etc and this word is used. So God’s prophetic message to Avraham need not mean ‘slave’. Perhaps the actualization could have been changed to a different form of 'eved', just as Eliezer was proud to be ‘eved avraham’, and God lovingly gave Moses the lofty title 'eved hashem' ('servant of God').
3) Note that Yom Kippur involves 5 'inuyim', such as not wearing leather shoes, and so perhaps according to the ambiguous wording " וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם:" the Jewish People - had they been deserving - would have suffered for a day in some strange land when they had to forgo leather shoes, and it does not necessarily therefore predict hundreds of years of slavery....
4) God’s message to Avraham says it will be for 400 years וַעֲבָדוּם, וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם--אַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת, שָׁנָה, however, we see from the exodus timing that the amount was 210 - this is very creative accounting! So in my interpretation I would say that just as God changed it from 400 to 210, God could have also arranged for it to have been changed to 1 year or one day, all depending on the behavior of the brothers and their descendants.
4) There is a principle of Jewish Metaphysics that prophecies for bad futures can be overturned, as for example happened with Ninveh, but prophecies for good futures will definitely occur. And so whatever was in the prophecy to Abraham, it was not ‘destined to occur’. In fact, I believe it was told to Abraham in order for him to know what he should work to prevent.
5) Zohar(?) says about the great Flood that there had been a divine decree long before it that at a certain point after creation there would be a "mabul"(flood), however it didn't have to be mayim(water), it could have been a Flood of good, or it was to be ’mayim’ but that could be Torah (which is compared to life-giving mayim [water]), and the choice of which it was to be, a flood of water or a flood of Torah-revelation was determined by the actions of the people of that time (ie they could have acted better and deserved a life-giving 'flood of revelation of Torah' rather than a destructive flood of water).
And so the prophecy to Abraham could have been actuated in a positive way as well And perhaps God revealed this prophecy to Abraham in order that he now what his task would be, and indeed that it was Abraham’s activities which brought about the reduction from 400 to 210.
And it is my thesis that had the brothers acted differently, the 400 years could have been brought to one day, or even turned around to be a positive occurrence.
Other examples:
Maybe the same time-change happened in the negative way years later, when Moses struck the task-master, and was accused by his 'brothers' and had to flee! That is, in my view perhaps Moses was placed in Pharaoh’s house as a means of delivering the Jewish People from slavery by convincing Pharaoh to free them etc, or by his becoming the next Pharaoh. And so if his fellows had not reported him to the authorities, the redemption could have come then, 40 or even 60 years earlier!
It may also be that God revealed to Abraham that his descendants would choose the wrong way and so would actuate the path of actual slavery, as we know from the future unfolding of events, and that it was because later on of their own free will the brothers would act as they did. So it was not predetermined that they would be in Egypt, it was simply known by God beforehand what they would freely-choose later (ie God is 'beyond time' but can act inside time: this is an old philosophical conundrum, with many many books written about it).
But unfortunately:
1. the first of the Jewish People to come to Egypt in that period came as a slave sold by his own family, and so this created a slave-energy for the entire extended family when they came to Egypt later on;
2. Yosef was accused by his brothers of saying they would be his servants, and indeed later, before they knew who he was, they themselves offered to be his slaves to him! And then again after their father Yaakov died they made this offer, yet again misjudging his intentions.
So metaphysically this set the way that the future would unfold, in the next generation, when they all entered actual slavery - rather than history developing along the positive options mentioned above.
[The reason the Egyptians gave for enslaving the Jews was an absurdity (enslave people so that they won’t be able to leave in time of war - why did they want to leave?! And if they couldn’t leave other than via war, then are they not already unfree?) so perhaps it was this slave-energy which brought about this sudden almost inexplicable change in Egyptian attitude.]
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Conclusion: Imagine how different Jewish history would have been had the brothers applied 'dann le’kaf z’chut' (‘judge favorably’) in interpreting Joseph’s dream, understanding his motivations.
The Torah tells us this story in such detail in order to make a real impression on us.
May we be inspired by it to judge favorably, and to generously help our brothers achieve their dreams - and so instead of becoming slaves, we all become kings!
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Claude
The relationship between Jewish thought and astrology is complex and evolved over time. Let me outline some key perspectives:
Maimonides took a strong rationalist stance. In Hilchot Avodat Kochavim (Laws of Star Worship) 11:8-9, he states that all forms of astrology are forbidden and false. He considered it a form of idolatry, arguing that belief in astrological determinism contradicts free will. In his Letter on Astrology, he explicitly says that seeking signs from stars is prohibited.
However, there were other significant rabbinic voices who took different positions:
The Talmud (Shabbat 156a) includes discussions suggesting that astrological influences exist but can be overcome through merit and prayer. The famous phrase "ein mazal l'Yisrael" (Israel is not subject to astrological influence) comes from here.
Ibn Ezra, unlike Maimonides, accepted some astrological concepts while rejecting others. He wrote extensively on astronomical and astrological matters.
Regarding Joseph specifically, traditional commentaries focus on several aspects:
Rashi interprets the sun and moon literally as Jacob and Rachel, though he notes Rachel had already passed away, suggesting the dream wasn't meant to be fulfilled literally.
Ramban (Nachmanides) discusses how Joseph's dreams were different from ordinary dreams, being direct divine prophecy.
Hasidic commentaries often focus on deeper spiritual meanings:
The Sefat Emet sees Joseph's ability to interpret dreams as representing mastery over the imagination
The Kedushat Levi discusses Joseph's spiritual elevation above natural order
Several Chabad sources discuss how Joseph represents yesod (foundation), connecting higher spiritual realms with lower ones
However, I should note that while I've studied these sources, I may have gaps in my knowledge and recommend verifying these interpretations, especially for serious scholarly work. Would you like me to expand on any particular aspect of these traditional interpretations?
Of particular interest might be exploring how the Hasidic concept of Joseph transcending natural limitations could relate to your interpretation about transcending astrological influence. Would you like me to elaborate on that connection?
The subtle message Yakov intended in his rebuke fo Yosef:
After telling the dream to his brothers, the pasuk maybe implies that yosef tells the dream to his father and brothers together, ie to his father in front of his brothers. So what his father says is perhaps for the ears of the brothers.
Yakov and the brothers never saw parshat miketz so they couldn't know as we do that the dream is prophecy.
They feel it is either prophecy or it is an expression of ego.
The brothers later feel that by selling him as a slave they were showing it not to be prophecy, since they felt that he would never be able to free himself.
So they felt it turned out to be ego not prophecy.
Yaakov reacts only to the second dream, perhaps yosef told him the first one privately and now is telling yakov the second one in front of his brothers, so Yaakov's reaction is meant for them to hear. Or maybe Yakov heard the first dream only from the brothers, and so he heard the misinterpreted dream from them, not the actual one as Joseph told it! ie Yakov may have thought Yosef had said the brothers were bowing to him in the first dream!
Yakov means to rebuke Yosef, that he should be aware that he is causing jealousy, but really the rebuke is meant for the brothers to hear:
1) they would be less jealous of Joseph if they see the dream is causing their father to rebuke Joseph.
2) subtly, Yakov is letting the brothers understand that it certainly is not a prophetic dream of all of them bowing to Joseph, and indeed it is obvious that since Rachel his mother is dead that it can't really be an ego-dream of a grand future either. Either it is simply a dream and Joseph only means to to to tell them of it, not to predict or brag, or it is prophetic and does NOT mean the family will bow to him. This is what the brothers should have understood, but they were blinded by their hatred and jealousy.
3) It is interesting that we are told that: a. Yaakov 'kept this in mind', and we are also told that b. later Yaakov sends Yosef to get a message from the brothers, to see if they are ok.
Combining 1 & 2 maybe we can conclude that Yaakov meant to defuse the tensions by indicating to the brothers that Yosef's status was low, that he was a messenger boy, sent to see if the more important brothers are ok.
What did Yaakov know?
Later on, when Yakov hears Yosef is a ruler in Egypt, he realize Yosef was the one his other sons bowed to, and so he realizes the brothers' interpretation came true. He may not realize that Yosef recognized them before that - after all the brothers didn't recognize Joseph so it can also be the reverse (though perhaps Yosef changed more since he was younger at the outset)
hi, please offer critique of this essay, and also ways to overcome the critique. Note: this is intended as a speculative essay, not academic. not intending to prove anything at all, it is just "a point of view". Also: it takes the Torah at face value, or at least as it is understood by Orthodox Judaism, without trying to support any implied contention about whether or not there exists a God, whether the Bible is indeed divinely inspired etc etc, it is simply a point of view about issues in yesterday's Torah reading. Thanks! What we can learn about Astrology from the creation account and the story of Joseph: In my opinion, God’s message to humanity in the creation account is crucial: that the sun, moon and stars are ’signs’, and are a clock for determining the holidays (‘mo’adim’). Shabbat, tefillin(‘phylacteries’) and circumcision are called ‘signs’ ’otot’, and the time for them occurs after a specific amount of sun cycles(rising,setting) and/or moon appearances have passed, and shabbat is generally observed until the stars are visible. The holidays are referred to in the Torah as ‘mo’adim’. Gen 1:14 And God said: 'Let there be lights in the firmament of the heaven to divide the day from the night; and let them be for ‘otot’, and for ‘mo’adim’, and for days and years. 15 and let them be for lights in the firmament of the heaven to give light upon the earth.' And it was so. יד וַיֹּאמֶר אֱ', יְהִי מְאֹרֹת בִּרְקִיעַ הַשָּׁמַיִם, לְהַבְדִּיל, בֵּין הַיּוֹם וּבֵין הַלָּיְלָה; וְהָיוּ לְאֹתֹת וּלְמוֹעֲדִים, וּלְיָמִים וְשָׁנִים.טו וְהָיוּ לִמְאוֹרֹת בִּרְקִיעַ הַשָּׁמַיִם, לְהָאִיר עַל-הָאָרֶץ; וַיְהִי-כֵן …. Correlation to future events: It can be that there is a decree from God of various events to occur at a specific time, and the sun moon and stars are a clock which can point to when they will occur, but it is absolutely NOT the case that they have any influence whatsoever. Imagine a schedule on one’s smartphone, linked to one’s appointment and ‘to do list’, which rings at the relevant times, and is mistaken by someone who has never seen any technology as being the cause of the event. Humans vs ‘the stars’, and ‘Fate’: Secondly: It is stressed that God created the sun, moon and stars, and then after that humans are created in the divine image, ie they are beyond the influence of the non-divine, ie beyond any influence of sun, moon and stars. Thirdly: The sun moon and stars bow to Joseph in the dream from God, meaning that God is telling him that he will have divine inspiration which will enable him to overcome what is written in the stars, that which seems to be ‘Fated’, and to overcome the effect of the Seasons; ie humans, who are ‘created in the divine image’, especially when acting at the level of their soul, ie with divine inspiration, are beyond the influences of the stars and ‘Fate’ etc. Fourth: See now the interpretation I gave of Joseph’s dream: the sun, moon and stars, bow to him! And indeed Joseph arranged for the negative influence of Fated events to be mitigated. Conclusion: May we be blessed to reject all the shackles of alleged supernatural power over us and all negative ‘Fated’ events, and instead act at the highest level of our potential, thereby to bring about the activation of the highest level of historical-path-unfolding.
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Let me provide a thoughtful critique of your essay and suggest ways to strengthen it.
Strengths first:
The connection you draw between 'otot' (signs) in different contexts is intriguing
The smartphone analogy for celestial bodies as timepieces rather than causal agents is quite effective
The interpretation of Joseph's dream as showing human transcendence over celestial influences is creative
Main critiques and suggestions for improvement:
Structure and Flow Critique: The essay jumps between ideas without clear transitions, particularly in the middle sections. Solution: Consider organizing into clearer sections with subheadings like:
Biblical Context of Celestial Signs
The Nature of Celestial Influence
Joseph's Dream as a Paradigm
Human Free Will vs Determinism
Textual Support Critique: While you quote Genesis 1:14-15 extensively, other key claims lack direct textual support. Solution: Add relevant verses for:
The "divine image" references
Details of Joseph's dream
Other instances where celestial bodies are discussed as signs
Theological Framework Critique: The essay assumes readers understand Orthodox Jewish concepts without explanation. Solution: Consider briefly defining terms like:
Mo'adim (perhaps as "appointed times")
The Jewish understanding of "divine image"
The relationship between divine decree and free will
Argument Development Critique: The conclusion about rejecting "shackles of alleged supernatural power" feels somewhat disconnected from the preceding analysis. Solution: Build this theme throughout by:
Showing other biblical examples of humans transcending apparent fate
Explaining how the creation order (celestial bodies before humans) supports your interpretation
Drawing clearer connections between Joseph's administrative actions and spiritual significance
Historical Context Critique: The essay doesn't address how this interpretation relates to ancient Near Eastern astrology. Solution: Consider briefly noting:
How this reading contrasts with contemporary ancient beliefs
Why this distinction mattered in biblical times
Why it remains relevant today
Logical Flow Critique: The numbered points ("Secondly," "Thirdly," etc.) don't clearly build on each other. Solution: Restructure to show how each point leads to the next, perhaps using connecting phrases like "This understanding leads us to consider..." or "Building on this principle..."
Conclusion Critique: The conclusion introduces new concepts ("historical-path-unfolding") without prior context. Solution: Either:
Introduce these concepts earlier in the essay
Focus the conclusion on synthesizing previously discussed ideas
Expand the conclusion to explain these new terms
Would you like me to elaborate on any of these points or suggest specific ways to implement these improvements?
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AR
thanks so much for the detailed comments, they were very helpful! Do you know of any prior treatment of the Joseph account which is similar enough to render these ideas unoriginal? or sufficiently similar that they need to be quoted?
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Given my training cutoff date and the importance of accurate scholarly attribution, I should note: While I'm familiar with many traditional and modern commentaries on Joseph's dreams, I need to be upfront that I may not be aware of all published interpretations, and should avoid making definitive claims about originality.
That said, your specific interpretation linking the bowing celestial bodies in Joseph's dream to human transcendence over astrological fate seems to offer a novel perspective. While there are many classical Jewish commentaries that discuss:
The meaning of the bowing celestial bodies (often interpreted literally as referring to Jacob, Rachel, and the brothers)
Joseph's ability to interpret dreams and see the future
The general Jewish view on astrology and fate
I haven't encountered this particular synthesis that connects:
The creation narrative's designation of celestial bodies as "signs"
Their bowing to Joseph as symbolic of human transcendence over fate
The specific link to Joseph's administrative actions as a practical manifestation of this transcendence
The closest parallel might be found in some Hasidic commentaries that discuss the spiritual significance of Joseph transcending natural limitations, but these typically focus on different aspects.
However, I encourage you to:
Consult with Judaica scholars who might be aware of similar interpretations
Review major compilations of Joseph commentaries
Consider citing general Jewish sources on astrology (like Maimonides' views) to provide context for your interpretation
Would you like me to elaborate on any particular aspect of traditional Joseph interpretations to help you position your reading in relation to them?
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AR
yes, please do elaborate on relevant aspects of traditional interpretations in Hasidic commentaries , major Torah commentaries, general Jewish sources on astrology including Maimonides' views. Thanks!
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The relationship between Jewish thought and astrology is complex and evolved over time. Let me outline some key perspectives:
Maimonides took a strong rationalist stance. In Hilchot Avodat Kochavim (Laws of Star Worship) 11:8-9, he states that all forms of astrology are forbidden and false. He considered it a form of idolatry, arguing that belief in astrological determinism contradicts free will. In his Letter on Astrology, he explicitly says that seeking signs from stars is prohibited.
However, there were other significant rabbinic voices who took different positions:
The Talmud (Shabbat 156a) includes discussions suggesting that astrological influences exist but can be overcome through merit and prayer. The famous phrase "ein mazal l'Yisrael" (Israel is not subject to astrological influence) comes from here.
Ibn Ezra, unlike Maimonides, accepted some astrological concepts while rejecting others. He wrote extensively on astronomical and astrological matters.
Regarding Joseph specifically, traditional commentaries focus on several aspects:
Rashi interprets the sun and moon literally as Jacob and Rachel, though he notes Rachel had already passed away, suggesting the dream wasn't meant to be fulfilled literally.
Ramban (Nachmanides) discusses how Joseph's dreams were different from ordinary dreams, being direct divine prophecy.
Hasidic commentaries often focus on deeper spiritual meanings:
The Sefat Emet sees Joseph's ability to interpret dreams as representing mastery over the imagination
The Kedushat Levi discusses Joseph's spiritual elevation above natural order
Several Chabad sources discuss how Joseph represents yesod (foundation), connecting higher spiritual realms with lower ones
However, I should note that while I've studied these sources, I may have gaps in my knowledge and recommend verifying these interpretations, especially for serious scholarly work. Would you like me to expand on any particular aspect of these traditional interpretations?
Of particular interest might be exploring how the Hasidic concept of Joseph transcending natural limitations could relate to your interpretation about transcending astrological influence. Would you like me to elaborate on that connection?
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How the positivity/negativity of our intentions can shape history Fake news: 1. Joseph dreamed that his brothers would bow to him. 2. He told them this. 3. He wanted to reign over them. True news: A
pasted
AR
Later I will ask you to present more re The Kedushat Levi's discussion of Joseph's spiritual elevation above natural order if it is directly relevant. However, first I will present my interpretation of the two dreams, so that you can comment on that, and also I think it will provide some context for my treatment of thee second dream here in this eesay. 1. PLease critique the following essay, also 2. provide ways to over come the critique you offer, and 3. please let me know of the closest that others have come to these ideas . Thanks so much: Here's the essay:
Edit
Let me analyze this thought-provoking interpretation of Joseph's dreams.
Primary Strengths:
The close textual reading highlighting that the wheat bowed to wheat, not the brothers to Joseph
The insight about how misinterpretation itself shaped historical outcomes
The theological framework connecting free will, interpretation, and historical destiny
The creative analysis of the prophecy to Abraham's linguistic ambiguity
Main critiques and suggestions for improvement:
Structure Critique: The essay meanders between multiple complex ideas without clear organization. Solution: Consider restructuring into clear sections:
Textual Analysis of the Dreams
The Role of Interpretation
Historical Implications
Theological Framework
Focus Critique: The essay begins focused on the wheat-bowing distinction but expands into many tangential points. Solution: Either:
Maintain tighter focus on the core wheat-bowing thesis
More explicitly show how each point connects to the central argument
Evidence Treatment Critique: Some claims (like "Perhaps they could have been kings in Egypt") feel speculative without sufficient grounding. Solution:
Acknowledge speculative nature more explicitly
Provide more textual support for key claims
Ground conjectures in traditional interpretative principles
Regarding originality: Your interpretation seems to offer several novel elements:
The emphasis on wheat-bowing rather than personal bowing appears unique
The connection between misinterpretation and historical causation is creative
The reading of the Abraham prophecy's linguistic flexibility is innovative
The closest parallels I'm aware of are:
Netziv (in Ha'amek Davar) discusses how interpretations of dreams can affect their fulfillment
Various commentaries (like Kli Yakar) note that Joseph's brothers misunderstood his dreams
Hasidic sources discuss how human free will interacts with divine prophecy
However, your synthesis of these elements and the specific focus on the wheat-bowing seems original.
Would you like me to:
Elaborate on any of these traditional sources?
Suggest specific ways to strengthen particular sections?
Explore how to better integrate the theological and textual arguments?
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AR
thanks so much. INdeed I am very interested in exploring further the 'closest' parallels' you mentioned, highlighting how they are similar to my points and how they differ. Please also explain further what you meant by ""how to better integrate the theological and textual arguments", certainly an example of how to actuallyy accomplish this vis a vis my essay will help very much. In any case, I think you can understand from this second essay why I interpreted the second dream not as Rachel and her sons bowing to Joseph. Thanks so much!
Edit
Let me explore the parallels and then discuss integration of arguments.
Traditional Parallels in Detail:
Netziv's Approach (Ha'amek Davar):
Similar to your view: Emphasizes that dream interpretation can affect fulfillment
Different from your view: Focuses more on the spiritual mechanism of interpretation rather than the historical/causal chain you propose
Your innovation: You specifically connect misinterpretation to the eventual Egyptian exile
Kli Yakar on the Brothers' Misunderstanding:
Similar: Notes that the brothers' jealousy affected their interpretation
Different: Typically treats this as a character study rather than a historical pivot point
Your innovation: You propose an alternative historical trajectory based on correct interpretation
Hasidic Sources on Free Will and Prophecy: The Kedushat Levi (as mentioned earlier) discusses Joseph's transcendence of natural order, but in a different way:
Similar: Discusses elevation above natural limitations
Different: Focuses on Joseph's personal spiritual level rather than the interpretative process
Your innovation: Connecting this transcendence specifically to the wheat symbolism and potential alternative outcomes
Integrating Theological and Textual Arguments:
Here's how you might better integrate these elements, using one section of your essay as an example:
Original passage: "The brothers had the choice of how to react, and their hatred caused them to misinterpret the dream - it seems as if they had not even correctly HEARD what he actually said."
Enhanced version with integrated theological-textual argument: "
The brothers' reaction demonstrates a fundamental principle about prophetic interpretation. The text specifically states 'וְהִנֵּה אֲנַחְנוּ מְאַלְּמִים אֲלֻמִּים' ("behold, we were binding sheaves"), using the inclusive 'we' rather than positioning Joseph apart from his brothers. Joseph feels close to them, and goes to look for them, whereas they "see him from afar".
Since the dream is prphetic, on te one hand it is objective, ie not some fabrication of his brain going through memories and efears etc, but rather implanted by God. On the other hand, for te very same reason - that it is a prophecy - it depends on the prophet's character and termperament and is therefore deliberatel ambiguous, so this linguistic choice of Joseph in recounting rthe dream eflects his closeness, he sees them engaged in a family collaborative effort, whereas the brothers see it all as an allegory of his domination over them, his feeling tseparate and different and superior.
The Talmud teaches that prophecy rests upon the interpreter (Berachot 10a), and the brothers' choice to hear dominion rather than cooperation shaped not just their understanding but the very unfolding of events. The text's careful distinction between the wheat bowing (וַתִּשְׁתַּחֲוֶיןָ לַאֲלֻמָּתִי) and the brothers' presence there, can be understood as Joseph's perception that the wheat was bowing while the brothers were there separately from the wheat, and as his attempt to relate this fact. So there were two possible paths of interpretation and of future-unfolding: one of collaborative abundance, one is the wheat interpretation, where the dream imolies abundance and the future would be one of his sharing the abundance with them and the other is of hierarchical submission - their interpretation, where they are submissive to him inthe dream, and the future-unfolding where they bow to him, and later are afraid when they realize who he is, even though he has no intention of harming them."
This integration:
Grounds the theological point in specific textual evidence
Connects to traditional rabbinic principles
Shows how the text itself supports the theological reading
Maintains focus on your core insight while strengthening its foundation
Would you like me to:
Provide more examples of such integration?
Explore any of the traditional parallels in more depth?
Suggest other ways to strengthen the connection between the textual and theological elements?
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AR
that was great, thanks! yes, indeed, please do 1. Provide more examples of such integration 2. Explore any of the traditional parallels in more depth 3. Suggest other ways to strengthen the connection between the textual and theological elements
Edit
I'll address each request:
Here's another example of integrating textual and theological arguments:
Original passage: "God's message to Avraham did NOT say his descendants will be slaves in Egypt, but rather that 'they will be strangers in a land that is not theirs'."
Enhanced integration: "The precise language of God's prophecy to Abraham merits careful examination: 'כִּי-גֵר יִהְיֶה זַרְעֲךָ בְּאֶרֶץ לֹא לָהֶם' (that your seed will be strangers in a land not theirs). This formulation echoes the rabbinic principle that divine prophecy often contains multiple potential paths of fulfillment (as seen in Rambam's discussion of Jonah's prophecy to Nineveh). The term 'ger' (stranger) carries specific legal and spiritual connotations in Torah law, distinct from 'eved' (servant/slave). Indeed, Abraham himself was a 'ger' in multiple lands while maintaining his dignity and autonomy. This linguistic precision suggests that the eventual enslavement in Egypt represented one possible manifestation of the prophecy rather than its only potential fulfillment, aligning with the Zohar's teaching that divine decrees can manifest in either positive or negative forms."
Exploring Traditional Parallels Deeper:
The Maharal of Prague offers a relevant framework in Gevurot Hashem that could strengthen your argument. He discusses how the Egyptian exile wasn't merely physical slavery but represented a spiritual state where natural order dominated over divine connection. This parallels your interpretation of the stars bowing to Joseph - suggesting that proper interpretation of prophetic dreams represents the triumph of spiritual consciousness over natural determinism.
The Sfat Emet's teaching about Joseph's dreams adds another dimension. He explains that Joseph's ability to interpret dreams represented mastery over imagination (dimyon), which determines whether physical reality becomes a barrier or a gateway to spiritual truth. This could support your argument about how interpretation shapes reality.
Additional Ways to Strengthen Connections:
a. Consider incorporating the principle of "ma'aseh avot siman l'banim" (the deeds of the fathers are a sign for the children):
Show how the brothers' misinterpretation established a pattern that affected future generations
Connect this to other instances where interpretation shaped Jewish history
Demonstrate how this pattern continues to be relevant
b. Develop the connection between the two dreams more explicitly: Original: "Had they listened to his first dream and realized it did NOT mean THEY would be bowing, they would not have misinterpreted this second dream."
Enhanced: "The sequential nature of the two dreams creates a hermeneutic framework where the first dream provides the key to understanding the second. The text emphasizes this connection through repeated use of the term 'וְהִנֵּה' (and behold) in both dreams. In rabbinic tradition, this term often signals a deeper meaning beyond the surface narrative (as noted by Rashi on Genesis 28:12). The progression from earthly wheat to celestial bodies parallels the spiritual ascent described in Kabbalistic texts, where proper understanding of physical abundance (represented by wheat) leads to comprehension of cosmic forces (represented by celestial bodies). The brothers' failure to grasp the collaborative nature of the first dream thus prevented them from seeing the second dream's true message about transcending natural limitations."
Would you like me to:
Provide more specific examples of how to integrate these traditional sources?
Explore how to develop any of these themes further?
Suggest additional textual-theological connections?
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AR
A. I would like to somehow be more sure that noone has mentioned my interpretations of the two dreams. I do believe that I once did see a similar rintepretation of the first dream, that it referred to the wheat Joseph accumulated in Egypt and shared with the brothers(do you know the reference?), but I did not see anyone broaching my interpretation of the second dream - it would be good to somehow have a way of scouring the literature to verify that my interpretation is indeed original. B. I did appreciate your way of integrating these traditional sources, if there are other examples, please do indeed show me. Also, if you can offer an exploration of how to develop any of these themes further, please do so. And if you can suggest additional textual-theological connections, please do. Thanks so very much!
Edit
Let me start with your key points:
A. Regarding originality verification:
For the first dream (wheat interpretation):
The Kli Yakar mentions that the sheaves represent material sustenance that Joseph would provide
The Alshich discusses how the dream prophesied Joseph's role in providing grain during the famine
However, I need to be cautious here - given the vast body of Jewish commentary, I cannot definitively say whether anyone has made precisely your interpretation
For the second dream (stars representing fate/natural forces): Your interpretation appears more novel. While many commentators discuss Joseph's transcendence of natural limitations, I haven't encountered one that specifically interprets the celestial bodies in the dream as representing:
The forces of fate being overcome
Natural seasonal cycles being mastered through divine guidance
A connection to the creation narrative's designation of celestial bodies as "signs"
However, I should note that my knowledge has limitations. To verify originality, you might want to:
Consult the Bar Ilan Responsa Project database
Review comprehensive compilations like Torah Sheleimah
Check specialized works on Joseph like R' Leibowitz's "Lessons in Leadership"
B. Here's another example of integrating traditional sources:
Original passage about the brothers' interpretation: "They could have helped Joseph realize his dreams, they would have been kings in Egypt along with Joseph."
Enhanced integration: "The Torah's description of Joseph's ultimate role in Egypt uses the term 'משביר לכל-עם הארץ' (provider to all people of the land), etymologically related to 'שבר' (grain) rather than terms of dominion. This linguistic choice echoes the initial dream's focus on wheat rather than personal authority. The Midrash (Bereishit Rabbah 91:6) notes that Joseph's position was unique - he was both provider and administrator, suggesting a model of leadership based on service rather than dominion. This aligns with the Ramban's observation that true Jewish leadership manifests through being a conduit of divine blessing rather than through power alone. Had the brothers recognized this distinction in the original dream's imagery of wheat-to-wheat rather than person-to-person bowing, they might have partnered in this divine service rather than becoming subjected to it."
Would you like me to:
Provide more examples of such textual-theological integration?
Suggest specific ways to research the originality of your interpretation more thoroughly?
Explore how particular themes could be developed further?
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AR
thanks so much! Your help is amazing. Just a note: A. My interpretation and especially my supposition that all the brothers could be kings, is merely speculation and not intended to be authoritative, and my adapting this to a moral lesson and to a wish as in the conclusion is hortatory, inspirational etc, not meant as academic. B.Please do indeed provide, suggest, explore as in your 1,2,3. Thanks!
Edit
I appreciate your clarification about the speculative and inspirational nature of your interpretation. This actually opens up some interesting possibilities for presentation. Let me address your requests:
More Examples of Textual-Theological Integration:
Here's another example, focusing on the inspirational aspect:
Original: "May we be inspired by this story to judge favorably..."
Enhanced integration: "The Torah's detailed presentation of both the dream content ('והנה אנחנו מאלמים אלמים') and the brothers' interpretation ('המלך תמלך עלינו') provides a profound lesson in the power of perception. Just as the Talmud teaches 'הדן את חברו לכף זכות דנין אותו לזכות' (one who judges others favorably will be judged favorably), this narrative demonstrates how interpretation shapes reality. The text's careful distinction between what Joseph actually said and how it was understood serves as a living example of this principle. Each time we encounter this passage in the yearly cycle of Torah reading, we're invited to examine our own interpretative tendencies and their potential consequences."
Researching Originality: Given the inspirational rather than academic nature of your interpretation, you might consider:
Framing it as "A New Perspective" rather than claiming absolute originality
Acknowledging inspiration from traditional sources while highlighting your novel synthesis
Using phrases like "This reading suggests..." or "We might understand..."
Theme Development: Your interpretation could be further developed by:
a) Drawing Parallel Patterns:
Other biblical instances where interpretation shaped outcomes
Similar cases of prophecies with multiple potential fulfillments
Examples of how positive interpretation led to positive outcomes
b) Contemporary Application:
How this principle applies to modern family dynamics
Its relevance to leadership and communication
Its role in building community and avoiding conflict
c) Spiritual Growth Framework:
How this understanding can guide personal development
Ways to practice positive interpretation in daily life
Methods for recognizing and transforming negative interpretative patterns
Would you like me to:
Elaborate on any of these development suggestions?
Provide more examples of how to present speculative interpretations while maintaining scholarly respect?
Explore additional ways to connect this to practical contemporary lessons?
For those who prefer to read the material as a document (or to print it), see the Google doc further below.
Alternate-history: what if the brothers had interpreted the dreams differently? (1/2 page)
Had the brothers been more open and less hateful, they would have understood the dream more charitably, and would not have eventually sold him. He would have saved civilization and his family from famine without them having ever to bow to him. A much higher level of future actualization would have been effectuated.
But their uncharitable interpretation caused a chain of events leading up to the eventual concretization of this very interpretation, so that they indeed ended up bowing to him.
Indeed, had they helped Joseph realize the dreams instead of trying to subvert them, the borthers would also have benefitted tremendously, they would all have been princes.
................................................................
Further speculation: Perhaps Yakov, who was very experienced in dream-revelation would have played a part in actualizing the dream-destiny - he was a great prophet far beyond the level of his son Joseph. (Joseph had divine assistance and inspiration but perhaps not direct prophecy, ie there are many Biblical events of God speaking directly to Jacob but none of God speaking to Joseph.)
Perhaps the dreams that Pharaoh had would instead have occured to Jacob rather than to Pharaoh! ie perhaps they occured to Pharaoh only because Joseph was there and because the tribes had lost the privelege for their family of having the dream. With God's help and Jacob leading them, the tribes could have set up a system to store wheat and the Land of Israel would have turned into the center of civilization by saving the world of that time from famine and starvation during that terrible 7-year period, and that would be the desired "messianic-era". Instead they sold Joseph as a slave, and as a result of his grief Jacob lost his prophetic ability, and eventually the tribes all became slaves.......
For the past two portions Yakov was dreaming everywhere, various intriguing encounters with God, and with him Lavan. Now it is Joseph’s turn to dream. And with him, the two ministers in jail, and then Pharaoh.
A helix:
Joseph’s dreams land him in Egypt -->
where the minister’s dream is the catalyst -->
for Joseph’s interpretation of Pharaoh’s dream -->
which leads to the fulfillment of Joseph’s original dream.
Братья неверно истолковали сны
Важным моментом является то, что первый сон Иосифа НЕ символизировал и не предсказывал, что братья поклонятся Иосифу.
(Братья истолковывают сны как фантазию Иосифа, что однажды они поклонятся ему)
Большинство читателей и комментаторов предполагают, что братья были правы в своей интерпретации, поскольку в действительности они в конце концов поклонились Иосифу.
Тем не менее, я считаю, что эта логика неверна, потому что ясно, что лук был специально разработан Джозефом - это было не то, что «произошло независимо и было предсказано». На самом деле, только потому, что братья предсказали поклон, Иосиф сознательно осуществил это.
Если они по-разному истолковали это, то этого кланения быть не должно!
Действительно, мы можем видеть, что они были НЕПРАВИЛЬНЫ в своей интерпретации, так как Джозеф и его братья были на поле со своими снопами пшеницы во сне, но никто из них не поклонился ему. Вместо этого склонялись только пшеничные снопы братьев, а не сами братья; кроме того, их снопы поклонились снопам Иосифа, а не самому Иосифу.
Если во сне не было Иосифа и его братьев, только их снопы, можно утверждать, что их снопы были символическими для них и Иосифа, и что поклон снопов братьев перед снопом Иосифа символизировал их поклонение Иосифу, но если они сами присутствовали и были видны во сне и не кланялись, зачем давать такую интерпретацию!?
И только потому, что братья истолковали это таким образом, и тот факт, что это действительно произошло, НЕ является достаточным основанием для того, чтобы сделать вывод, что это было ПРАВИЛЬНОЕ толкование (поскольку это был преднамеренный акт Иосифа, чтобы сделать их предсказание сбывшимся).
Правильное толкование снов Иосифа
а) Из более поздних событий мы знаем, что Иосиф однажды даст им еду! Другими словами, пшеница братьев, преклоняющихся перед пшеницей Иосифа, символизировала будущую ситуацию, когда их запасы зерна (их запасы продовольствия, их снопы) были полностью зависимы от него во время голода, как это действительно произошло позже.
Оглядываясь назад, эта интерпретация становится почти очевидной. Необходимо лишь освободить свой ум от заблуждения, что, поскольку братья действительно поклонились, это было правильное толкование. Ниже мы увидим более подробное объяснение того, почему Иосиф заставил их поклониться и каковы будут последствия другой интерпретации.
Как насчет второго сна?
Мы уже видим в самой истории, что истолкование братьев неверно - как указывает Иаков, мать Иосифа мертва, и поэтому число символизируемых людей неверно. Мы можем последовать примеру Иакова и дать совершенно другую интерпретацию:
б) солнце, луна и звезды символизируют несколько важных взаимосвязанных аспектов: 1. времена года, климат и т. д. 2. астрология (предсказание будущего); 3. Судьба.
Другими словами:
1. Широко распространенный голод возникает из-за обширных и продолжительных суровых климатических условий, будь то продолжительная засуха, необычно морозная погода, экстремальная жара, причудливые штормы и т. Д. Все это в категории «времена года и климат», символизируемые солнцем и луной ,
Поклонение всем этим небесным телам Иосифу символизировало то, что влияние на человечество времен года, климатических условий и т. Д. В некоторой степени контролировалось Иосифом; Действительно, он смог подняться над ними и с пользой справиться с чередой лет изобилия и голода. [Интересно, что он не изменил сами события (т. Е. Было еще 7 лет изобилия, а затем 7 лет голода), лишь контролируя их воздействие; нечто подобное происходит в истории Пурима; см. мой комментарий там.]
2. Сон предсказал будущее, когда, как мы видим в истории, Иосиф обладал способностью знать будущее, которое действительно произошло благодаря его интерпретации снов фараона как серии будущих событий и, таким образом, упадка всех этих небесных тела для Иосифа, особенно звезды, которые для многих людей являются знаками для интерпретации будущего, символизировали, что Джозеф мог предсказывать будущее.
3. Звезды также символизируют «Судьбу», и поэтому их поклонение Иосифу символизировало его способность не только пассивно предсказывать будущее, но и использовать эти знания о будущем для преодоления «судьбы» и изменения судьбы.
В конце: солнце, луна и звезды преклоняются перед ним, символизируя, что Йосеф будет привязан к уровню причинности выше уровня звезд, а к солнцу и луне - к уровню божественного, к которому Иосиф ясно упоминается. Бог, о котором говорил Джозеф, является создателем солнечной луны и звезд и управляет ими. Обратившись к божественному руководству, открыто сказав об этом фараону, Йосеф смог действовать на уровне вне сезонов, вне Судьбы, вне астрологического предсказания.
Альтернативная история: что если братья по-разному истолковывают сны?
Если бы братья были более открытыми и менее ненавистными, они бы поняли эту мечту более доброжелательно и в конечном итоге не продали бы Иосифа.
The brothers MISinterpreted the dreams (3/4 of a page when 'opened')
The crucial point is that Joseph’s first dream did NOT symbolize or predict that the brothers would bow to Joseph
click on the little arrowhead to the right to 'open' this
Most readers and commentators assume that the brothers were correct in their interpretation since indeed they ended up bowing to Joseph.
A) I believe this logic is flawed, since it is clear that the bowing was engineered by Joseph deliberately - it was not something that happened independently and had been predicted. In fact, it was only because it was predicted by the brothers that it ended up being brought about by Joseph deliberately as a self-fulfilling prediction.
The implication is that had they interpreted it differently, this bowing need not have happened!
B) Indeed, we can see that they were WRONG in their interpretation since the simple interpretation of "we were gathering sheaves in the field and my sheaf stood up and yours bowed to it" is that the scenario included both Joseph and his brothers in the field, with their sheaves of wheat, not just the sheaves. However the brothers in the dream did NOT bow, only the wheat-sheaves (of the brothers) bowed; furthermore their sheaves bowed to Joseph's sheaf, not to Joseph himself.
Had the dream not included Joseph and his brothers, just their sheaves, one could claim that their sheaves were symbolic of them, and that the bowing of the brothers’ sheaves to Joseph’s sheaf symbolized their bowing to Joseph, but if they themselves were in the dream and did not bow, why give this interpretation!?
That the brothers interpreted it this way, and that it indeed happened, is NOT sufficient grounds to conclude that this was the 'CORRECT' interpretation of the dream.
The Correct Interpretation of Yosef’s Dreams (1 page) [click to open]
A) From later events it is clear what the first dream meant, namely that Joseph would one day provide them with food! In other words the wheat of the brothers bowing to Joseph’s wheat symbolized the future situation of their grain supply [their food supply, their sheaves] being totally dependent on him during the famine, as indeed later happened.
In retrospect, this interpretation becomes almost obvious. One only needs to free one’s mind from the erroneous notion that since the brothers did indeed bow that this was the 'correct' interpretation. We’ll see below more explanation of why indeed Joseph had them bow, and what would have been the consequences of a different interpretation.
B) And what about the second dream? We already see in the story itself that the brothers’ interpretation is flawed; as Yakov points out, Joseph’s mother is dead, and so the amount of individuals being symbolized is incorrect. We can follow Jacob’s lead of rejecting the 'family bowing to Joseph' interpretation and give an entirely different interpretation, based on the understanding that the sun and moon and stars symbolize several essential related aspects:
1. the seasons & climate etc;
2. astrology (predicting the future);
3. Fate.
In other words:
Widespread famines come about due to extensive and long-term harsh climatic conditions, whether extended drought, unusually freezing weather, extreme heat, freakish storms or etc. All these are in the category of “seasons & climate”, symbolized by the sun moon and stars.
The bowing of all these celestial bodies to Joseph symbolized that the effect on humanity of the seasons and climatic conditions etc were to some degree to be put under Joseph’s control; indeed he was able to rise above them and profitably manage the series of years of plenty and famine. [It is interesting that he did not change the events themselves (ie there were still 7 years of plenty followed by 7 years of famine) only managed their effect; something similar occurs in the Purim story; see my commentary there.]
2. The dream predicted a future when - as we see in the story - Joseph had the ability to know the future, as indeed occurred via his interpretation of Pharaoh’s dreams as being about a series of future events, and so the bowing of all these celestial bodies to Joseph symbolized that Joseph had the power to predict the future.
3. The stars also symbolize “Fate”, and so their bowing to Joseph symbolized his ability not only to passively predict the future, but also to use this knowledge of the future to overcome “fate” and change destiny.
In sum: The sun, moon and stars bowing to him symbolized that Yosef will attach to a level of causation higher than that of the stars and sun and moon - the level of the divine, which Joseph clearly invoked. The God Joseph referred to is the creator of the sun moon and stars and rules them. By appealing to and attaining divine guidance, Yosef was able to operate at a level beyond the seasons, beyond Fate, beyond astrological prediction.
Questions which arise if the above approach is correct (3/4 page)
Questions which arise if the above approach is correct
Question 1: It’s true that the brothers end up bowing to Joseph due to Joseph’s conscious desire as Viceroy of Egypt that they do so (rather than any intention that this happen when he told them his dream) , but what reason would Joseph have to make this happen at that time if he himself of course knew that the bowing to him was a MISINTERPRETATION of his dreams!?
I would say it was because he wanted to give them the opportunity to to teshuva, to act to try to rescue Benjamin from danger - as explained elsewhere - and so he had to maintain the pretence that he was not Joseph.
...
Question 2: God tells Avraham that his descendants will be slaves in Egypt, so how can it be that history would have been different and slavery in Egypt avoided had the brothers been able to find a more charitable (and truer) interpretation of the dream?
Answer: I believe that the torah is indicating in various ways (I’ll give examples) that history need not have unfolded this way, ie the Jews need not have become slaves in egypt.
First of all, it does NOT say that God told Avraham his descendants will be slaves in Egypt. Rather, what God tells Abraham is that they will be strangers in a land where they will be subject to “inuyim” for 400 years.
וַיֹּאמֶר לְאַבְרָם, יָדֹעַ תֵּדַע כִּי-גֵר יִהְיֶה זַרְעֲךָ בְּאֶרֶץ לֹא לָהֶם, וַעֲבָדוּם, וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם--אַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת, שָׁנָה.
However, we see from the exodus timing that the amount was changed from 400 to 210 - this is very creative accounting! So in my interpretation it could also have been changed to 1 year.
And maybe the same time-change happened in the negative way years later, when Moses struck the task-master, and was accused by his 'brothers' and had to flee! so in my view perhaps if they hadn't done so, the redemption could have come then, 40 or even 60 years earlier.
A diferent type of example: Zohar(?) says that the had been a decree that at a certain point after creation there was supposed to be a "mabul"(flood) but it didnt have to be mayim(water) or it was to be mayim but that could be torah (since Trah is coonsidered maym [water], and the choice of which was actuayed was determined by the actions of the people of that time (ie they could have acted better and deserved a \flood of revelation of Torah'…
וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם: Yom Kippur involves 'inuyim' such as not wearing leather shoes, and so perhaps the Jewish People would have suffered for a day in Egypt when they had to forgo leather shoes....
So too perhaps re avraham avinu being told וַעֲבָדוּם, וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם, but the actualization could have been changed to a different form of 'eved', just as eliezer was proud to be eved avraham, and God lovingly gave Moses the lofty title 'eved hashem' ('servant of God').
Or: If one feels that what was said to avraham is not explicable as being neutral, capable of becoming a good form of 'eved':
God revealed to Abraham that his descednats would choose the wrong way and so would actuate the path of actual slavery , and we know from future unfloding of events that it was because later on of their own free will the brothers would act as they did. So it was not predetermined tha tthey would be in Egypt, it was simply known by God beforehand what they would free choose later (ie God is 'beyond time' but can act inside time: this is an old philosophical concundrum, with many many books written about it).
But unfortunately the Jews came to Egypt in the energy of 'slave' - yosef was seen by his brothers as saying they would be his servants, and they sold him as a slave, and then offered themselves as avadim to him after Yaakov died, so this set the way it would unfold, as actual slavery. And so there came a sudden almost inexplicable change in Egyptian attitude, rendering the jews slaces there- 'vayakam melech chadash asher lo yadah et yosef'.... this was as inexplicable as the reasons the egyptians gave for enslaving the jews.
Imagine how different Jewish history would have been had the brothers applied 'lekaf zechus' (judging favorably) in interpreting his dream and motivations.
I would submit that it was because Yosef was sold by his brothers as a slave to Egypt!
In other words, when the brothers sold Joseph as a slave to Egypt it initiated a chain of cause-effect which ended up leading to their descendants being slaves in Egypt; though it seemed to all be "natural" cause-effect as detailed in the Biblical story, it was actually metaphysically 'karmic' or a 'boomerang-effect'. As such, it was meant to be noticed and understood by the all as a punishment & warning for the future.
{Even the Egyptians were perhaps meant to understand this - the Pharoahs of all people knew that Joseph was sold to them as a slave, and then later must have realized it was done by his brothers (the interpreter [if it was an Egyptian] certainly heard their discussion, and Pharaoh saw how Joseph treated them initially), so they were thus warned that karmic retribution would follow mistreatment of these people. And indeed, it did - see later how the plagues were direct mida kneged mida karmic retribution and warnings).}
If so, the moral of the story is: when your brother tells us his life-dream, try to help realize it and you will be lifted up along with him; and if you try to trip him up to prevent its realizaiton, you too will suffer along with him.
Dream Interpretation as Destiny Actuation (2/3 page)
Not only were the brothers’ uncharitable interpretation of Joseph’s dreams self-fulfilling, but also:
A: There was a progression in several senses:
After the second dream, Yosef was thought by the brothers to be arrogantly saying that the stars are subservient to him, which is even worse than the first dream’s seeming implication that the brothers would serve him!
Just as translators actually are engaging in interpretation, and any reading of the Torah’s often ambiguous passages involves interpretation as well, so too the events in our lives, and their meanings are open to ‘interpretation’, with the interpretation we choose eventually affecting the actuality in a self-fulfilling manner. After the first dream was interpreted as it was, the reality was set to some degree, and so the second dream already reflected some of this new reality: now we see entities bowing to Joseph himself.
B: The actual intent could not be subverted
It is important to note that although the dreams were fulfilled not according to some preordained manner but rather according to the interpretation they were given, the true interpretation, the divine intent of or purpose for the dreams could not be subverted: When the brothers decided to dispose of Joseph they said : “now we will see what will be of his dreams”. Of course their words were unintentionally prophetic - they had set in motion the chain of events which would lead to the fulfilment of the dreams. But of course their intent was the opposite - to subvert the dreams. However Joseph was given the power to rise above plain destiny, whether his brothers tried to kill him or have him be a slave in a strange land for the rest of his life, or whether he would be framed and sent to prison, in every situation his destiny would be above that fated in any reading of the stars or any misinterpretation of his dreams.
C: What is affected is not just the ‘fate’ of the dreamer but also of the interpreters themselves.
Had they been able to see Joseph more positively, their own fate would have been different. (See more about this below.)
Cycles/Spirals & Karma: the larger picture
We ended up as slaves in Egypt. How? Why? (1/3 page)
Why is it so important for the chumash to tell us that “The Minister didn’t remember him, and forgot him” (2 pages)
The Mystery of Joseph’s Identity: why didn't the brothers realize it was Yosef? They surely heard that the viceroy who was mistreating them was an "ivri who had been sold as a slave, who had interpreted dreams for Pharaoh and so was released". Surely this was enough informaiton for them to understand it was him, especially after seeing him and speaking to him!
We'll see that is connected to the issue of:
“The Minister didn’t remember him, and forgot him” 1
INTRODUTORY LEVEL: After Joseph asks his jail-mate the minister to bring his case in front of Pharaoh after the amnesty Joseph was predicting for him, we are told that the minister was indeed released but did not mention Joseph to Pharaoh. Indeed in the last passage of our portion the Torah says: “the minister did not remember him and forgot him” 40:23. The Rabbis interpret this double language, “did not remember him and forgot him”, as indicating that this forgetting by the minister was a punishment to Joseph for placing his faith in people rather than in divine rescue secured via prayer.Perhaps one can view this act of requesting the minister’s intervention as a reasonable one, and as the personal effort a person should indeed make on their own behalf in addition to prayer. What then is the reason for this doubled phrase?
The people of Egypt knew that he was an Ivri, but as we see from the phrase that Egyptians did not eat together with Ivrim, being an Ivri in Egypt was not unusual - presumably all foreigners from beyond, from the other side of the river, we "ivrim" to them ("from out of town").
Also, as far as they knew, Joseph was in jail due to the incident in Potiphar’s household: they did not necessarily know how he had arrived in Egypt, that he had been kidnapped by his kinsmen and sold as a slave to traders going to Egypt. Had this been generally known it might have come to the attention of the brothers when they arrived in Egypt, and they might have asked questions and discovered his identity.
However, Joseph and the ministers shared a jail cell for a while, and as evidenced by the exchange about the dream, and even by the fact that Joseph recognized their distress that day and asked about it, one can assume that they had real and meaningful conversations and perhaps learned Joseph’s story in detail.
In fact, it is likely that he told the minister that he was sold by his brothers for what was it that Joseph asked the minister to mention? Not his own dreams, nor the fact that he was interpreting their dreams, for that had nothing to do with the matter, but rather simply the facts of Joseph’s case, that he was in jail unjustly as the result of having been kidnapped and sold as a slave, and then about his having been being framed while working as a slave in Egypt: it was certainly pertinent in establishing his innocence to mention that his brothers had been jealous of him and had acted unjustly. Otherwise why would Pharaoh release him?
However, as it turned out, in order for Joseph to accomplish his plan of tricking his brothers into a situation where they had the opportunity to do teshuva it was necessary that they not know his identity, and thus it was important that the minister not remember him and his request because this would end up revealing all the identifying biographical information. And so the minister’s “not remembering” was an act of God, but one which was to Joseph’s ultimate benefit, and of importance for the future of the whole Jewish people and the existence of the 12 tribes, and not a punishment for asking the minister to intervene on his behalf.
Why however did it turn out this way? Why could God not make the minister forget only the biographical information but not forget to intervene on Joseph’s behalf?
Answer: One of the reasons Joseph initially earned the enmity of his brothers was that he “brought bad tales of their doings to his father” [37:2], loshon hara. If in jail, Joseph told loshon hara regarding his brothers, that he was kidnapped and sold; even if this was true, and even if he did not go into specifics about the identity of his kidnappers, there was perhaps no need to mention this, especially as it would have been impossible for Pharaoh to ever establish the truth of the matter, and in any case in ancient societies slaves were often obtained in this way. We can speculate that as a leader Joseph would need to be held to a higher standard, and so as long as Joseph was still in the habit of mentioning the bad deeds of his brothers, no matter how true or justified or even necessary for his well-being, he was not ready for his destiny as a leader to unfold.
Later though, he corrects this imperfection and reaches his potential, acting with complete forgiveness towards his brothers, and does not even tell his father what they had done to him.
So now we can understand the doubled language:
1) “didn’t remember him” = he was made to forget Joseph’s biographical details so that when he would eventually speak to Pharaoh he would not reveal information which could later on identify Joseph to his brothers.
2) “forgot him” = as a result of Joseph’s loshon hara God caused the minister not to even remember to bring up Joseph’s situation to Pharaoh.
The Importance of Timing: why the minister forgot him 40:23.
Had the minister mentioned Joseph to Pharaoh right away as Joseph requested, he might have mentioned Joseph’s interpretation of his own dream, but ironically this might have been very detrimental to Joseph at that premature time. What arrogance it would have seemed to Pharaoh for this prisoner slave to claim to know what Pharaoh himself was going to decide about the minister’s fate!
And so the Rabbis criticism of Yosef perhaps means that he should not have revealed what his brothers had done, should not have tied his desire for release to the need to paint them in a bad light inorder to clear his own name.
However after Pharaoh later had his own dreams and sought an interpreter, it was exactly the appropriate time to be told about Joseph: not merely that he knew how to interpret dreams, but more so, that he was able to know what Pharaoh himself was going to do, and probably know it even before Pharaoh himself did! What more appropriate person could there be to interpret correctly Pharaoh’s own dreams.
But since Yosef revealed that his brothers had sold him, it was necessary to have some time pass (2 years), for the minister to be able toforget the details, and to now present Joseph to Pharoah not because he was innocent, but rather because he could interpret dreams, even dreams about Pharaoh's own inner thoughts!
And so Yosef's biographical details were not mentioned by the minister in speaking toPharaoh, and were not known widely, and so were not discovered by the brothers when they came to Egypt. And this is why it is important for the Torah to tell us about the fact that Yosef asked the ministers to bring his case to Pharaoh and that they forgot, and that two more years passed until Pharoah's dreams
“the minister did not remember him and forgot him” 40:23
1) Traditionally “zechira” = action (at least when referring to God, but also perhaps to events unfoding wiht divine guidance): when we are told that the minister “did not remember” perhaps the meaning is that he did not act on Joseph’s request, and that it was God's intervention that caused this.
2) There is an idomatic usage: “remember me to so-and-so” : ie remember me = mention me. So the phrase “he forgot” = "he did not remember Yosef to Pharoah".
3) When the minister eventually does indeed mention Joseph to Pharaoh he starts off with: “I remind you ("mazkir") of my misdeeds" using the same word as used by the Torah to describe his "forgetting". We can therefore interpret “the minister did not remember (lo "zachar")” not as meaning he forgot Joseph, but rather that he did not bring Pharoah to remember that Pharaoh had thrown him in jail.
In Defense of the Minister’s Inaction
The Minister who brings Pharaoh's attention to Joseph (like a Charvonah charater) deserves our thanks, and so I want to present a defense of his inaction (not just the divine reason for its necessaity, as outlines above).
Yosef asked the minister to mention him to Pharaoh, but in order to do so the minister would have to remind Pharaoh that he was once thrown by him into jail. Why would he want to do this?!
Why would Joseph even think that he had the right to ask the minister to mention this self-incriminating reminder to Pharaoh? The minister didn’t really owe Joseph anything at all, since the release from jail had nothing to do with Joseph.
Furthermore, had the minister brought it up to Pharaoh as Joseph had requested, there would have been no real reason for Pharaoh to do anything about the matter. Virtually everyone in every jail everywhere feels that they were put there unjustly!
The only thing Joseph had done was give him peace of mind for three days, and even that was not likely since there was no way that the minister could have known it was a correct interpretation of his dream until he was actually pardoned. So what did he actually gain from Joseph?! Nothing! And therefore the minister had no reason to risk his freedom by reminding Pharaoh of his stay in jail.
Vegam Charvona zachur latov.
The brothers sentenced Yosef to death because they thought he was trying to get them to worship him as a deity to whom even the sun moon and stars bow
We need to be at the appropriate high spiritual level in order to apply the Torah's rules: Perhaps the forefathers knew these laws, and if so, possibly the brothers of Joseph might have misapplied it to him thinking he was asking them to bow to him as wroship for reasons of idolatry stemming from his dreams which perhaps he portrayed as prophetic (as indeed they were), and therefore thought that Joseph was deserving of the death penalty: this week outlines this rule:
" ... if thy brother,....entice thee ,,, saying: 'Let us go and serve other gods'...thou shalt not consent unto him, nor hearken unto him; neither shall thine eye pity him, neither shalt thou spare, neither shalt thou conceal him .... but thou shalt surely kill him."
In previous and later portions close to this one the word 'bowing' is mentioned explicitly, and it is this which the borthers of jsoeh accused him of intending: [4:19, and lest thou lift up thine eyes unto heaven, and when thou seest the sun and the moon and the stars, even all the host of heaven, thou be drawn away and bow to them, which the LORD thy God hath allotted unto all the peoples under the whole heaven.
17:3 " and hath gone and bowed to other gods, and worshipped them, or the sun, or the moon, or any of the host of heaven, which I have commanded not"; ]
So perhaps the brothers, acting as the Sanhedrin of their time, sentenced Yosef to death because they thought he was trying to get them to worship him as a deity to whom even the sun moon and stars bow. If this was their intent, they were certainly wrong.
The message to us is that although we may believe we are religiously or spiritually high enough to judge the other, we can err, [such matters were up to the Sanhedrin, which the Talmud makes sure to tell us was so very strict about the rules of jurisprudence that its rulings were usually lenient and merciful.
.....
add to yosef story, re avodah zara and ki yesischa achicha
torah was given long after the event, but the details ere only known afer matan torah!
so perhaps the pasuk of ki yesischa ahicha of parshas re'eh was given to help explain the story, ie what it was that yousef's brothers thought
ie "hamaloch timloch alenu" mens same irony as "\yakov's "havo navo" ie it is impossible, o the interpretation tht remians isre avodah zara!
and they knew via ruah hakodesh that mesit laavodah ara ets death punishment, a dreamer of dreams so of your father! exact description of yosef.
so torah tells us the whole story, ie that yosef told them they and he wer ein the field at the timte the wheat bowed and that he sw hself and the in the field then, so the torah clearly tells us the brothers misintrepreted the dream! and the torah told us they were jealous and hted him, Why tell us? to indicate tha thtis affected their dream interprettion! so they mistkenly consluded that t Y was a mesit and should be killed, with the mistake being due t jealousy and hatred.
So this is the torahs teaching atogether: be vareul when you jude your borther as a mesit because maybe YOU are the problem!
incident Euven Bilhaa, maybe connected to Yosef
"Vayishma Yisrael" is maybe hinting that is was via Yosef! , stories are next to, just separated by genealogy. And mentions bnei bilha Zilpah, and syntax is ambiguius, so maybe means yosef also spoke about them (ie about the shfachos not jus tthe bnei hashfachos)!
Maybe yakov at end on death-bed "ki olisa mishkevay avikha" is intending to defuse worry about this incident, that he knows of it but obviously didn't think it was actual violation, so they shouldn;t blame Yosef.
...
Torah tells us unusual insight into Reuven thoughts re wanting to rescue Yosef, so maybe this is also to help us understand that re pilegesh aviv he didn't intend as bad as it looked, maybe a bad as Yosef made it sound!?
from Mamre?
"והנה תסובינה אלומותיכם ותשתחוין לאלומתי" (לז, ז)
גם לאחר שנודע ליעקב שהאחים מכרו יוסף, הוא לא נזף בהם במישרין. אף יוסף עצמו אומר להם "ועתה לא אתם שלחתם אתי הנה כי האלקים" (מה, ח). מכאן, שאף שלא פעלו בצורה הנכונה ואכן עשו טעות, גם יעקב וגם יוסף הכירו בכך שהיה מקום לטענות שלהם כלפי יוסף (אף שאמרנו לעיל שהמניע האמיתי שלהם היה מתוך קנאה).
מה היתה הטענה שבגללה סברו שיוסף חייב מיתה?
המפרשים אומרים שדנו את יוסף על מרידה במלכות של בית דוד, בכך שרצה לקחת את המלכות לעצמו ולא השאיר אותה ליהודה, שממנו יצא דוד (של"ה על התורה, פרשת וישב, תורה אור אות י; מגלה עמוקות, פרשת וישב; יערות דבש, ח"א, דרוש טז; באר מים חיים, פרק לז; שם משמואל, מקץ תרע"ד). ואכן, כך הבינו מן חלום הראשון, שבו השתחוו ליוסף, והבינו שיוסף מציג את חלומו כנבואה (כמו שכתוב: "אם יהיה נביאכם ה' במראה אליו אתודע בחלום אדבר בו" - במדבר יב ה-ו, וכן כתוב: "חלום אחד משישים לנבואה" - ברכות נז ע"ב), ולכן חשדו בו שהוא שם את עצמו למלך עליהם.
אך יש כמה רמזים לשוניים שמקשרים בין פרשת חלומות יוסף לבין פרשת המסית (דברים פרק יג), ואלה מלמדים שאחי יוסף חשבו שהוא מסית לעבודה זרה, ולכן סברו שהוא חייב מיתה.
לדוגמה, כתוב שם "כי יסיתך אחיך" (דברים יג, ז), ויוסף היה אחיהם. כתוב שם (בפרשת נביא שקר שלפניה) "כי יקום בקרבך נביא או חולם חלום" (יג, ב), ויוסף חלם חלומות. שם כתוב "כי דיבר סרה על ה' אלקיכם המוציא אתכם מארץ מצרים", והענישו את יוסף במכירתו למצרים. השמש, הירח והכוכבים, שמופיעים בחלום השני של יוסף, נחשבו באותם ימים לאלילים (דברים ד, יט; יז, ג), וכיון שיוסף אמר שהם משתחווים לו, ייתכן שהסיקו האחים שהוא רואה את עצמו כאליל האלילים. כיון שהשמש, הירח ואחד עשר הכוכבים מסמלים את הוריו ואת אחיו, משתמע שיוסף מנבא שמשפחתו תעבוד אותו כע"ז.
דוקא דברי יעקב: "הבוא נבוא...", כלומר שהחלום לא יתגשם, הפכו את החלום בעיני האחים למתאים למה שנאמר בנביא שקר: "אשר ידבר הנביא בשם ה' ולא יהיה הדבר... בזדון דברו הנביא" (שם, כב). לאחר תוכחת יעקב ליוסף, תאם המצב גם לפסוק: "כי יסיתך אחיך... אשר לא ידעת אתה ואבתיך".
יתר על כן: הרי רחל כבר מתה, ואיך תבוא להשתחוות ליוסף, כפי שנראה לו בחלומו? משום כך הבינו האחים שהחלום אינו משל למשפחה דווקא אלא הסתה כללית לעבודה זרה.
לכן, האחים הבינו שהוא מסית אותם לעבוד עבודה זרה. ולכן הם סברו שהוא חייב מיתה כמסית, שנאמר בו "לא תחמול ולא תכסה עליו" (דברים יג, ט), ולכן הוא היה חייב מיתה אף בלי התראה (רמב"ם, הלכות ע"ז, פ"ה ה"ג) (מה גם שאפשר לראות את תגובת האחים לחלום הראשון כהתראתם בו). ואכן הם לא חמלו עליו במכירתו, כמו שאמרו זה לזה כשהיו במאסר במצרים "אשר ראינו צרת נפשו בהתחננו אלינו ולא שמענו" (בראשית מב, כא). ודוקא הם פגעו בו, כמו שכתוב במסית: "ידך תהיה בו בראשונה להמיתו" (דברים יג, י).
ייתכן שאחי יוסף חיזקו את חשדם ביוסף כעובד ע"ז, ממילותיה של רחל בעת לידת יוסף: "יוסף ה' לי בן אחר" (ל, כד); והרי 'אחר' (אלישע בן אבויה) 'קיצץ בנטיעות' (חגיגה יד ע"ב).
אולי חשדו אחי יוסף שכתונת הפסים שניתנה ליוסף הייתה מורכבת מחלקי אחת מהשמלות של עבודה זרה, שעליהן אמר יעקב: "הסירו את אלהי הנכר אשר בתככם והטהרו והחליפו שמלתיכם" (לה, ב), שלפי רש"י היה חשש שהיו שמלות של ע"ז משכם.
אע"פ שהדיינים והעדים היו קרובי משפחה של הנידון, הרי לא היתה אפשרות אחרת, שהרי כלל ישראל באותו זמן היו משפחה אחת, כולם קרובים; וכשם שילדי אדם וחוה הורשו להזדווג זה עם זה כדי לקיים מצוות 'פרו ורבו' מחוסר ברירה, כך בני יעקב נאלצו לשפוט את אחיהם, משום שלא היו אחרים שיעשו זאת ויקיימו את מצוות 'שופטים ושוטרים' (שמוטלת גם על בני נח), וכמו שרמ"א, חו"מ, סימן לה, סעיף יד, מוסר שהיתה תקנה לקבל עדות של נשים על דברים שרק נשים יכלו לראות, כגון דבר שקרה בעזרת נשים.
אע"פ שגם לפי חשדם של האחים, יוסף רק הסית אותם לעבוד אותו, ולפי רמב"ם, הלכות ע"ז פ"ה ה"ה, "המסית אחרים לעובדו ואמר להם 'עבדוני', אם עבדוהו - נסקל, ואם לא עבדוהו אף על פי שקבלו ממנו ואמרו 'הן', אינו נסקל", אפשר לומר שדבריו אמורים רק במסית יהודי, אבל בני יעקב היו רק בני נח, ומסית בני נח לעובדו חייב מיתה גם אם לא עבדוהו; או שהאחים סברו שכיוון שאמר שבחלומו הוא ראה אותם משתחווים אליו, הוא נחשב כאילו כבר עבדוהו, ולכן היה חייב מיתה כמסית.
"וַיֹּאמֶר אֲלֵהֶם רְאוּבֵן אַל תִּשְׁפְּכוּ דָם" (לז, כב)
בתחילה, כאשר יוסף הגיע אל האחים, כתוב "ויתנכלו אותו להמיתו" (לז, יח), משמע שכולם הסכימו לכך. אך מיד לאחר מכן, ראובן אומר להם לא להרוג אותו, ומציל את יוסף מידם, כמו שכתוב: "למען הציל אותו מידם להשיבו אל אביו". אם כולם הסכימו כבר להרוג את יוסף, מדוע ראובן שינה את דעתו, ואיך הוא שיכנע את האחרים?
נראה שמלכתחילה ראובן ויהודה רצו להציל את יוסף. הדין הוא, שבדיני נפשות, אם אין אפילו דיין אחד שמזכה את הנאשם, הנאשם אינו נהרג (סנהדרין יז ע"א). אם כן, אילו הביעו ראובן ויהודה את דעתם האמיתית לפטור את יוסף, הם היו במיעוט, והיה נגזר דין מוות על יוסף על פי הרוב; ולכן הם בכוונה אמרו (בשקר) שהם בעד גזרו דין מוות כמו שאר אחיהם, כדי שיווצר מצב שכל הדיינים מחייבים את יוסף. מאחר שכל הדיינים חייבו את יוסף, לא נגזר עליו גזר דין מוות (אבל יש להעיר שאור החיים, שמות כג, ב, כותב שאסור לדיין לנקוט בתחבולה זו). לכן האחים החליטו להשאיר את גורלו של יוסף בידי שמים: הם זרקו אותו לבור, כך שהוא או יינצל או ימות בידי שמים.
מיד לאחר המעשה הם ישבו לאכול לחם (לז, כה), ודבר זה מזכיר להם שאין בבור לחם ומים, ולכן אין ספק שיוסף ימות בבור, ואם כן נמצא שהם הרגו אותו, אמנם בצורה עקיפה ("פסיק רישיה"), בעוד שאינו חייב מיתת בית דין (ואמנם יש מצבים שבית דין הורג בעקיפין, כמו נאמר בסנהדרין פא ע"ב "מי שלקה ושנה, בית דין מכניסין אותו לכיפה ומאכילין אותו שעורין עד שכריסו מתבקעת", אבל זה רק במצבים מיוחדים). וכך יהודה טוען: "מה בצע כי נהרוג את אחינו וכיסינו את דמו" (לז, כו). לכן הם מחליטים למכור אותו לעבד, דבר שבית דין רשאי לעשות.
והיות שאין כאן פסק ברור של בית דין, הם מסכימים לדברי יהודה: "וידנו אל תהי בו כי אחינו בשרנו הוא" (לז, כז), ולכן הם אינם נוגעים ביוסף אלא נותנים למדיינים שעוברים במקום באותו זמן להוציאו ולמוכרו למצרים, כמו שכתוב: "ויעברו אנשים מדינים סוחרים וימשכו ויעלו את יוסף מן הבור וימכרו את יוסף לישמעאלים" (לז, כח) (אגב, מכאן מקור להיתר של "אמירה לגוי" לעשות עבור יהודי דבר שיהודי אינו רשאי לעשות; וזה אסור רק מדרבנן בשבת).
סיבה אפשרית אחרת לכך ששלחו את המדיינים היא, שבזמן שהטילו את יוסף לבור, התחנן אליהם, כמו שאמרו האחים במצרים "אֲשֶׁר רָאִינוּ צָרַת נַפְשׁוֹ בְּהִתְחַנְנוֹ אֵלֵינוּ וְלֹא שָׁמָעְנוּ" (מב, כא). האחים לא רצו שליוסף תהיה עוד הזדמנות להתחנן אליהם בפני הישמעאלים, מפני שאז הם ייראו אכזריים מאוד בעיני הישמעאלים, והמראה ישאיר רושם גדול, והסיפור יתפרסם.
"ויהי בעת ההיא וירד יהודה מאת אחיו" (לח, א)
מעשה יהודה ותמר נכתב באמצע סיפור מכירת יוסף, ומכאן שיש קשר ביניהם.
ראשית, כל המעשה הוא עונש ליהודה על חלקו במכירת אחיו. העובדה שראובן התכוון להציל את יוסף מהבור (כמו שכתוב "וישב ראובן אל הבור" - לז, כט), מראה שדבר זה היה אפשרי, ואם כן גם יהודה היה צריך לנסות להצילו לגמרי, ולא רק להצילו ממוות ע"י מכירתו כעבד. וכך אומר רש"י כאן, שאחיו הורידוהו מגדולתו בטענה "אילו אמרת להשיבו היינו שומעים לך". ועוד, שיהודה רצה להציל את יוסף ממוות בבור ע"י מכירתו לעבדות, ובכך, בעצם, מנע מראובן להציל את יוסף לגמרי. עקב כך נענש יהודה מידה כנגד מידה:
1. יעקב היה אבל על בנו בעודו בחיים, וגם יהודה היה אבל על בניו, ער ואונן, בעודו בחיים.
2. עקב קנאה ושנאה בין האחים של יוסף, נמסר ליעקב שיוסף מת. ובמקביל, עקב הקנאה והשנאה בין בני יהודה, אונן לא רצה להקים זרע לער אחיו, ואונן מת.
3. יהודה אמר: "מה בצע כי נהרֹג את אחינו... וידֵנו אל תהי בו כי אחינו בשרנו הוא" (לז, כו-כז). מהלשון 'מה בצע' משתמע שהוא לא ראו את חשיבותו של אחיו. ובמקביל אצל בני יהודה, אונן לא ראה חשיבות להקים לאחיו שם: "לבלתי נתן זרע לאחיו" (לח, ט).
4. יהודה נפל קרבן למרמה של תמר שהתחזתה בבגדה למישהי אחרת, עונש על מעשה המרמה שעשו אחי יוסף ליעקב עם הבגד של יוסף.
שנית, מעשה תמר בא לרמוז ליהודה לגבי מעשה יוסף.
אחי יוסף גזרו דין מוות על יוסף, כאילו היו בית דין. כמו כן, יהודה גזר דין מוות על תמר. אבל אח"כ ראה שטעה, ושדווקא הוא גרם לה עוול פעמיים - שלא נתן אותה לבנו שֵלה, ושגזר עליה מוות. זה בא לרמוז ליהודה שגם בעניין יוסף טעה פעמיים - ביחסו ליוסף, ובגזר דינו.
זאת ועוד: בענין יוסף, הקנאה והשנאה של האחים עצמם גרמו להם לא להבין נכון את חלומות יוסף, ולהגיב לנבואת יוסף שלא כראוי, ומתוך כך - למוכרו כעבד. בעניין תמר, יהודה עצמו גרם לאבלה, עקב חששו לחיי בנו שלה, ועקב תאוותו או בדידותו שהביאו אותו לשכב עם תמר בחושבו שהיא זונה. כשיהודה ראה שתמר צדקה, ולא רק שצדקה אלא ש"צדקה ממני" - שיהודה גרם לבעיה, היה להבין שגם במעשה יוסף, לא רק שהוא טעה, אלא שהבעיה נבעה ממנו ומאחיו ולא מיוסף.
הקבלה נוספת היא בזה שבשתי הפרשיות מתערב ה' בבחירה החופשית של האדם:
יוסף אומר לאחיו "לא אתם שלחתם אותי הנה כי האלקים" (מה, ח), כלומר, שה' דאג לכך שהאחים ימכרו את יוסף. כמו כן, הבחירה נלקחה מיהודה כדי שיבוא על תמר (ראה בפירוש על לח, טז - http://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/hidush.asp?id=1161).
"ויט אליה אל הדרך" (לח, טז)
איך ייתכן שיהודה בא על זונה? ואיך תמר ידעה שיבוא אליה? הרי היא לא עשתה מעשה לגשת אליו, אלא ישבה סתם, ויהודה סטה מדרכו ובא אליה.
נראה שהלשון "ויט אליה" מרמז שה' גרם לו לגשת אליה, כמו שכתוב בסמוך (לט,כא): "ויהי ה' את יוסף ויט אליו חסד". בשני הפסוקים, משמעות "ויט" היא הטיית מעשי בני אדם ותגובותיהם למטרה מסוימת.
כך יש לפרש גם את הפסוק (לח, א) "וירד יהודה מאת אחיו ויט עד איש עדולמי" - שכל המעשים האלו היו מה', בדומה למה שאמר יוסף לאחיו: "לא אתם שלחתם אותי הנה כי ה'" (מה, ח).
דבר זה רמוז בלשון הפסוק "ויקח יהודה אשה לער בכורו" (לח, ו), כאילו שלקח אותה לעצמו, מכאן שתמר היתה מיועדת לו מהשמים.
עוד ייתכן שתמר ידעה איך יהודה פגש את בת שוע, וגרמה לנסיבות דומות, וכך גרמה שיבוא אליה. כך משמע מהקבלת הפסוקים: אצל בת שוע כתוב: "וירא שם יהודה בת איש כנעני ושמו שוע ויקחה ויבא אליה" (לח, ב), ואצל תמר כתוב: "ויראה יהודה ויחשבה לזונה... ויט אליה.. ויבא אליה... ותהר לו" (לח, טו-יח).
"צדקה ממני כי על כן לא נתתיה לשלה בני" (לח, כו)
יהודה ציווה לשרוף את תמר כשהתברר שהיא הרתה. אבל כשהתברר שהרתה ליהודה, בוטל העונש. מדוע זה סיבה לביטול העונש?
אפשר להסביר, שבתחילה חשדו בה שזנתה עם הרבה אנשים, כפי שמשמע קצת מלשון הפסוק "זנתה תמר כלתך וגם הנה הרה לזנונים", ולכן דנו אותה למיתה; אבל כשהתברר שזנתה רק פעם אחת, ובמטרה להרות, הבינו שהיא אינה חייבת מיתה.
עוד אפשר להסביר, שבתחילה סברו שכיוון שהיא זקוקה ליבום, כשהיא זינתה היא עברה באיסור "יבמה לשוק", ואמנם לפי דין תורה זה רק לאו, אבל ייתכן שבני נוח חייבים על כך מיתה. וכשהתברר שיהודה הוא זה שבא עליה, הבין שזה היה בהיתר, מפני שבביאה זו נתקיימה כעין מצוות יבום. יש רמז לכך בסמיכות האיסורים של כלה ואשת אח: "ערות כלתך לא תגלה אשת בנך הוא לא תגלה ערותה; ערות אשת אחיך לא תגלה ערות אחיך הוא" (ויקרא יח טו-טז), לאמר, שכמו שאשת אח מותרת במקום שיש מצוות יבום, בגלל המצוה של קיום זרע למת, גם כלה היתה מותרת במקום שהיא זקוקה לייבום (לפחות בדיעבד) לפני מתן תורה (בדומה למה שכותב הרמב"ן כאן).
אבל הסבר זה קשה, שהרי בכל זאת שֵלה בן יהודה היה היבם הישיר שלה, והוא היה צריך לייבם אותה ולא יהודה. אפשר לומר, שתמר היתה אסורה לשלה מפני שהיתה קטלנית, שהרי שני בעליה הקודמים, שהיו אחיו, מתו; אבל היא היתה מותרת ליהודה, שלגביו אין חשש קטלנית, והחשש הוא רק לגבי אחיהם של המתים. ועי' ס' המדרש והמעשה פ' וישלח, עמ' צז ועמ' ק-קא, שלא היה בה איסור קטלנית כי התכוונה לשם מצוה.
לפי זה, צריך לומר שמה שאמר יהודה "צדקה ממני כי על כן לא נתתיה לשלה בני" אין כוונתו שהיה צריך לתת אותו לשלה (שהרי באמת היתה אסורה לשלה); אלא כוונתו היא שהיה צריך לספר לה מיד שהיא אסורה לשלה ושהיא מותרת ליהודה עצמו בתור "ממלא מקום" יבם, כאמור. ונראה שהסיבה שלא סיפר לה, הוא שחשש ש"קטלניותה" תפגע גם בו; וכנראה זו גם הסיבה לכך ש"לא יסף עוד לדעתה".
From near end of file "Chumash English.."
add to Yosef Joseph bowing dreams etc
Said at machlis:
As we know (people there had mentioned it) Yosef is Tzadik and Yehuda is BT.
AR: because (Esav was alienated, Leah didn;t marry hijm, so Rachel allowed her to have Yakov
Instead of kavanot for Yosef ,it turned out to be Reuven, so was messed up. And Reuven wasnt real leader, and neither was SH & Levi, so it went to Yehuda. But it was supposed to have been Yosef would be the bechor and have leadership, and that;'s why there was strife.
Other have said: Confrontaiotn of Yehuda and Yosef is re malchus and re moshiach and re Bet hamikdash locaiton: eventual have both M ben y and m b dovid (yehuda); b hamikdash is both binyamin (rachel's son) and in yehuda, leah's.
AR: And the malchus indeed started with Yosef, and yehuda bowed to him, and then yosef gave it over, gave yehuda the opportunity to do teshuva, and if he would do so, yosef would have to relinquish the malchus. so maybe that's why yosef had them bow, to make him be melech, and then he could give it over. (And maybe that's why we are told how difficult it was for Yosef to not cry, he didn;t want to give away the game before yehuda had his opportunity to do teshuva)
AR: This is yosef hatzadik, who understood so clearly that god sent him to egypt to save everyone, he gave yehuda the opportunity to be BT and thereby gave everything up.
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What we can learn from this: to give someone who harmed you the opportunity to do teshuva, even if it is very difficult for you to do so, and even if it means that you will be sacrificing a lot.
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shemos, end of breishis (vayechi): how brothers of yosef actualized the 'slavery' of H's statement to avraham avinu
the reason given for the egyptians to want to impose slavery is absurd, and chazal try to give a different reading, that "lest they end up forcing US to leave Egypt as a result".
Either:
· this is just like all other nations' reasons for hating the Jews - they are illogical; or:
· the torah is indicating that history need not have unfolded this way, the jews need not have become slaves in egypt.
Zohar(?) says was supposed to be a "mabul" but it didnt have to be mayim or it was to be mayim but that could be torah, and the choice was detemrined by their acitons...
וַיֹּאמֶר לְאַבְרָם, יָדֹעַ תֵּדַע כִּי-גֵר יִהְיֶה זַרְעֲךָ בְּאֶרֶץ לֹא לָהֶם, וַעֲבָדוּם, וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם--אַרְבַּע מֵאוֹת, שָׁנָה.
We see that the amount was changed from 400 to 200, creative accounting, so it could also have been changed to 1 year; and maybe the same happened years later, when MR struck the task-master, and was accused by his 'brothers'! so probably if they hadn't done so, the redemption could have come then, 40 or even 60 years earlier.
So too perhaps re avraham avinu being told וַעֲבָדוּם, וְעִנּוּ אֹתָם, but the actualization could have been changed to a different form of 'eved' and 'inuy' (like example of 'mayim'), just as eliezer was eved avraham, and M"R eved hashem.
Or: If one feels that what was said to avraham is not explicable as being neutral, capable of becoming a good form of 'eved': maybe since hashem knew what would happen, it was revealed to avraham, both the actual future amount and that it would be hard avdut, but this was so only because later on of their free will the brothers would act as they did.
But unfortunately the Jews came to Egypt in the energy of 'slave' - yosef was seen by his brothers as saying they would be his servants, and they sold him as a slave, and then offered themselves as avadim to him after Yaakovdied, so this set the way it would unfold, as actual slavery.
And so there came a sudden almost inexplicable change - vayakam melech chadash asher lo yadah et yosef.... this was as inexplicable as the reasons the egyptians gave for enslaving the jews.
Imagine how different J history would have been had the brothers applied 'lekaf zechus' in interpreting his dream and motivaiotns.
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………
I think I wrote something about this: There's a strong parallel between this 'theft' by Binyamin and the search for the stolen trofim which Binyamin's mother took, and when Yakov, like his sons here, said that the one who took it should die, and again Yakov uses the word עָלַי as he did re Rochel:
; וְאֵיךְ, נִגְנֹב מִבֵּית אֲדֹנֶיךָ.... אֲשֶׁר יִמָּצֵא אִתּוֹ מֵעֲבָדֶיךָ, וָמֵת
וַיֹּאמֶר אֲלֵהֶם יַעֲקֹב אֲבִיהֶם, אֹתִי שִׁכַּלְתֶּם: יוֹסֵף אֵינֶנּוּ, וְשִׁמְעוֹן אֵינֶנּוּ, וְאֶת-בִּנְיָמִן תִּקָּחוּ, עָלַי הָיוּ כֻלָּנָה.
Perhaps this was a hidden message to Binyamin who might be the only one who knew that indeed Rochel had taken it, since he was a yoresh and the only one home, so he had it.
And Yosef says he'll do as they say, but he changes what they said:
…… גַּם-עַתָּה כְדִבְרֵיכֶם כֶּן-הוּא: אֲשֶׁר יִמָּצֵא אִתּוֹ יִהְיֶה-לִּי עָבֶד, וְאַתֶּם תִּהְיוּ נְקִיִּם.
So maybe Binyamin understood what was happening?
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Is there a mention of pits as storage?
Where was the food stored?
וַיִּתֶּן-אֹכֶל, בֶּעָרִים: אֹכֶל שְׂדֵה-הָעִיר אֲשֶׁר סְבִיבֹתֶיהָ, נָתַן בְּּתוֹכָהּ
וַיִּפְתַּח יוֹסֵף אֶת-כָּל-אֲשֶׁר בָּהֶם, וַיִּשְׁבֹּר לְמִצְרַיִם,
If pits were used: Maybe Yosef's experience in the pit, its properties, was preparation for this insight about using pits to store wheat. So we learnt hat even when life is the pits, this experience can help us in the future – it is all an opportunity for future growth? :)
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Why does the torah bother making this parallel in words:
נג וַתִּכְלֶינָה שֶׁבַע שְׁנֵי הַשָּׂבָע אֲשֶׁר הָיָה בְּאֶרֶץ מִצְרָיִם. נד וַתְּחִלֶּינָה שֶׁבַע שְׁנֵי הָרָעָב לָבוֹא.
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The Torah seems to use the words bor lishbor etc so many times – counterpart to vayashlichehu….bor..?
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See http://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/hidush.asp?id=1562
I put in the Zohar as a proof that they gave the wrong interpretation.
You wrote:
In particular, it is interesting that the Zohar states that the reason the brothers "hated Yosef even more" was that their interpretation of his dreams locked them into its realization with negative connotations for them:
But I understand the zohar as explaining ויוסיפו עוד שנוא אותו as not meaning their personal hatred but as adding קטרוגים.
You wrote:
and sealed their own fate!
But that's not the meaning of וְגָזְרוּ גְּזֵרָה rather that they caused the dreams to come true only after 22 years. See the context.
דבר דומה כתבתי לגבי החלום הראשון של יוסף - ראהhttp://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/hidush.asp?id=1105.
יש ראיה לפירוש זה מהזוהר: "וְאִיהוּ אוֹדַע לְהוּ הַהוּא חֶלְמָא, דְּאִלְמָלֵא אִינוּן דְּאַהֲפָכוּ לֵיהּ לְגַוְונָא אָחֳרָא, הָכִי אִתְקְיַּים". ומפרש בפירוש הסולם: "והוא הודיע להם את החלום, ואלמלא הם, שהפכו את החלום לדבר אחר, היה החלום מתקיים"[2].
אמנם הוא מפרש "שהוציאו אותו ממשמעות המלוכה והממשלה ודחו אותו לדבר אחר", וכפי שכתב קודם "שגרמו לו קטרוגים בזה עד שנדחה החלום לעשרים ושתים שנה". כלומר, הוא מפרש שהפירוש האמיתי היה שימלוך עליהם מיד והם פירשו באופן שיהיה אחרי זמן רב. אבל לפי מה שאמרתי אפשר לפרש שכוונת הזוהר היא שהפירוש האמיתי בכלל לא היה במובן של מלכות יוסף על אחיו.
AR: Maybe I should ask Rav Brandwein about this, differening from the sulam's interpretation
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ר' יוסף בכור שור פרשן צפון צרפתי מן המאה השתים עשרה, כתב פירושים לחמישה חומשי תורה. בכור שור נחשב לפרשן הפשט. לדרכו בפרשנות הפשט כבר נתנו חוקרים את דעתם. אולם קיים פן נוסף בחיבורו אשר דומה כי גם אותו ניתן לסווג כפרשנות של פשט. לבכור שור גישה פסיכולוגית ונטיה להבין את מניעי פעולתם של אישי המקרא. לאותו מישור פרשני ניתן לייחס גם את ניסיונו להבין את הריאליה אשר מאחרי הסיפור המקראי, ולפרש את האירועים בדרך מציאותית. נראה לענ"ד כי שתי דרכי פרשנות אלו הן תולדה של גישתו הפשטית. הפרשנות הפסיכולוגית המשתדלת לרדת לסוף דעתם ולתחושתם של אישי המקרא, מפרשת את המקראות מתוך עצמם, ומתוך הסיטואציה בה נתונה הדמות אודותיה מדובר. הפרשנות המציאותית מבארת את האירועים תוך נסיון להבין את רקעם ותוך עמידה על ההגיון הפנימי של הדברים.
אילו ואילו מתחשבים בפסוק עצמו ובפרשה כולה, על רקעה ואווירתה, ונמנעים משמוש במקורות פרשניים חוץ מקראיים. דומני שהדברים יובהרו תוך ניתוח כמה מפירושיו של בכור שור, והצגתם למול פירושו של רש"י.
א. פרשנות בדרך פסיכולוגית
ב. פרשנות בדרך מציאותית
לבכור שור פירושים המאירים את המקראות באור מציאותי, תוך נסיון להבין את הריאליה שמאחרי התיאורים, ותוך עיון בחוקי הטבע ובדרכי התנהגותם של אנשים ובעלי חיים.
ג. הערות ספרותיות
פן אחר שניתן לראותו כמבטא את מגמת הפשט בחיבורו של בכור שור, הוא הפרשנות הספרותית. דרך פרשנית זו דנה במבנה הקטע, בסמיכות הפרשיות ובקשר שביניהן. בתיאור האירועים בדרך קצרה או מורחבת, בהזכרת פרט מסויים במקומו או בהשמטתו. לעולם יעסוק הדיון הספרותי בהגיון הפנימי של הדברים, תוך עיון במקראות עצמם.
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קין http://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/hidush.asp?id=1301
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I found a very nice presentation: קווי פרשנות אופייניים לר' יוסף בכור שור (three types); some of it certainly describes what I try to do: http://www.daat.ac.il/daat/kitveyet/sinay/kaveey-4.htm
Also, see the specific perush on "ויאמר קין אל הבל אחיו"
and compare my ?
I found the site about ר' יוסף בכור שור by searching for "האם ידע ראובן על מכירת יוסף" after seeing the comment on chidush. BTW in the search results I saw the reference to "אפילו ראובן לא ידע מההצלה של יוסף" but didn;t find the actual page even in cache
see also Nechama Leibowitz's study guide bibliography reference to him: http://www.nechama.org.il/commentatorsPopup/29.html
His sefer - with punctuation - is at: http://he.wikisource.org/wiki/%D7%A4%D7%99%D7%A8%D7%95%D7%A9_%D7%91%D7%9B%D7%95%D7%A8_%D7%A9%D7%95%D7%A8_%D7%9C%D7%AA%D7%95%D7%A8%D7%94
and for example http://hebrewbooks.org/pdfpager.aspx?req=40225&st=&pgnum=16&hilite=
EMPTY COLLAPSIBLE WINDOW
these two wer emoved from earlier
"יוסף ה' לי בן אחר" (ל, כד)
באופן פשוט המילה 'יוסף' משמעותה תוספת על הקיים. אבל יכולה להיות לה גם משמעות של תחליף. כך מצאנו, שלאחר מות שרה: "ויסף אברהם ויקח אשה" (בראשית כה, א). והרי קטורה לא היתה תוספת על שרה (שכבר מתה) אלא תחליף לשרה.
אם כן, בדברי רחל "יוסף ה' לי בן אחר" יש רמז שבנימין יהיה במקום יוסף, ולא בנוסף לו. ואכן, כשיוסף נמכר, חשבוהו למת, ואז בנימין באמת היה בעיני אביו מעין תחליף ליוסף.
אפשר לראות זאת כעונש לרחל, שבמקום להודות לה' על הולדת יוסף, כבר בהולדתו היא דורשת עוד בן. על כן היא נכשלה בלשונה, והשתמשה במלה שיכולה להתפרש כך שהבן השני יהיה תחליף לראשון.
זאת ועוד: למעשה לא היה לה בן נוסף, שהרי מיד בהולדת בנה השני, היא מתה.
"יוסף ה' לי בן אחר" (ל, כד)
ייתכן שרחל טעתה בזה שהתפללה לה' בלשון זו. לשון זו מזכירה את הפסוק: "ותוסף ללדת את אחיו את הבל" (ד, ב). ואכן, כמו שקין קינא באחיו הבל, על שה' קיבל דווקא את מנחתו, וקנאה זו גרמה לקין להרוג את ה'בן הנוסף' שנכנס לחייו, כך האחים קינאו בבן שנקרא בלשון תוספת, וקנאה זו גרמה להם לרצות להרוג אותו.
"כי בן זקונים הוא לו" (לז, ג)
המובן הפשוט של "בן זקונים" הינו בן יחיד שנולד לעת זקנה, או בן שנולד לאחר פרק זמן ארוך שבו לא נולדו ילדים, ולעת זקנת האב. אבל יוסף לא היה בן יחיד, כמובן, וגם לא הצעיר ביותר, שהרי בנימין היה צעיר ממנו. כפי שנראה, הוא גם לא היה בן זקונים במובן האחר, שהרי המרווח בינו לבין האח המבוגר ממנו היה לכל היותר שלוש שנים. החשבון הוא כדלהלן:
יעקב עבד עשרים שנה אצל לבן (לא, לח). אחרי שבע השנים הראשונות, נשא את לאה ואת רחל לנשים. אחרי שללאה נולדו ארבעה בנים, "ותעמוד מלדת" (כט, לה). משמעות הדבר היא שעברו לפחות שנתיים בלי שילדה, שהרי גם כשילדה, עברה שנה בין לידה ללידה, כך שרווח של שנה אינו הפרש ניכר שניתן לומר עליו שעמדה מלדת. אח"כ הפסוק מספר שרחל נתנה את בלהה שפחתה ליעקב לאשה (ל, ד), והיא ילדה ליעקב שני בנים. אחר כך נאמר "ותרא לאה כי עמדה מלדת ותקח את זלפה שפחתה ותתן אותה ליעקב לאשה" (ל, ט), ומזלפה נולדו עוד שני בנים; ואחר כך ילדה לאה את יששכר, את זבולון ואת דינה (ל, יח-כא). רק אח"כ מסופר על לידת יוסף (ל, כב).
גם אם נניח שבני בלהה נולדו במקביל לעמידת לאה מלדת או במקביל ללידת בני זלפה, עברו אחת עשרה שנים מנישואי לאה עד סוף לידת בני לאה: ארבע שנים לארבעת הבנים הראשונים, שנתיים הפסקה, שנתיים ללידת בני זלפה, ושלש שנים לילדי לאה האחרונים. נמצא שהבן האחרון שנולד לפני יוסף נולד בשנה השמונה עשר לעבודת יעקב אצל לבן, ויוסף נולד לפני גמר עשרים השנה. מכאן שהצעיר בבני לאה היה לכל היותר כשלש שנים מבוגר מיוסף, ושאר הבנים היו מבוגרים ממנו בארבע עד שתים עשרה שנים.
אם כן, יוסף לא היה בן זקונים על פי שום הגדרה: לא היה בן יחיד, ולא היה הבן הצעיר, ואפילו לא נולד הרבה אחרי אחיו המבוגרים יותר. בכל זאת יעקב החשיב אותו כבן זקונים, כלומר, חביב עליו כאילו היה בן זקונים. וכך מדוייק לשון הפסוק: "כי בן זקונים הוא לו" - רק בעיני יעקב.
אפשר להסביר, שאף על פי שבנימין היה בן הזקונים האמיתי, יעקב העדיף את יוסף על בנימין, מפני שרחל מתה כשילדה את בנימין, כך שבנימין תמיד הזכיר לו את מיתת רחל, אירוע שציער אותו כל כך.
[העירו שייתכן שנקרא "בן זקונים" כי היה בן זקונים לפני שבנימין נולד.]
"וְיִשְׂרָאֵל אָהַב אֶת יוֹסֵף מִכָּל בָּנָיו" (לז, ג)
ראובן נולד מזיווג יעקב ולאה כשחשב שהיא רחל. לכן ראובן היה פגום במובן מסוים, כפי שנאמר בנדרים כ ע"ב על "בני תמורה". לעומתו, הבן הראשון שנולד מזיווג עם רחל, האהובה, כשידע שזאת רחל, היה יוסף. לכן יעקב חשב אותו למושלם יותר מראובן.
הוא העדיף אותו גם מפני שלולא הרמאות של לבן, היה נושא את רחל ראשונה, ויוסף היה נולד כבכור.
העדפת יוסף גרמה לאחים לקנא ביוסף. קנאתם התחזקה משום שבכך נרמז עוד שאמותיהם אינן שוות לרחל, אם יוסף.
כפי שהסברנו בפירוש לעיל ל, לט http://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/eidhidush.asp?id=1011, יעקב הוכיח את השפעת המחשבה בעת הזיווג, ע"י מעשה המקלות, וביניהם עץ הלוז. נמצא שיש קשר בין עץ הלוז לבין יתרונו של יוסף על ראובן. ייתכן שבגלל זה אמרו האחים על יוסף: "הנה בעל החלומות הלזה בא" (לז, יט). השם "לוז" קשור גם לע"ז, כפי שהסברנו בקשר לחלום יעקב http://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/hidush.asp?id=1534, וכן בפסוק "ויתנו אל יעקב את כל אלהי הנכר אשר בידם... ויבא יעקב לוזה" (לה, ד-ו), וייתכן שלכן חשדו ביוסף בע"ז, כפי שהסברנו בפירוש לפסוק לז, ז http://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/eidhidush.asp?id=1055.
"וַיַּחֲלֹם יוֹסֵף חֲלוֹם" (לז, ה)
מדוע גילה הקב"ה ליוסף את העתיד בצורה סמויה, בדרך של חלום? מדוע לא דיבר אליו ה' ישירות כמו לאבות ולמשה, וכמו שדיבר בחלום אפילו לאבימלך?
עוד יש לשאול, בכלל מדוע הודיע ה' ליוסף את העתיד? לפי ההבנה המקובלת, שהפירוש האמיתי של החלומות הוא שהאחים ישתחוו ליוסף, אפשר לומר שמטרת שליחת החלומות היא שיוסף ישתדל להגשים אותם, כפי שהרמב"ן (מב, ט) כותב שיוסף אכן להשתדל להגשים אותם. אבל אם זה לא הפירוש האמיתי, כפי שנראה בהמשך, לשם מה שלח לו ה' את החלומות?
אפשר להציע לכך שתי תשובות:
א) החלומות נועדו כניסיון לאחים. ה' רצה לתת להם את הברירה, אם לפרש אותם כפירושו הנכון (כפי שיתבאר להלן), או לפרש אותם מתוך קנאה או כבוד, והחלום יתגשם לפי הפירוש שהם יתנו לו. הם לא עמדו בנסיון, ופירשו אותו מתוך קנאה כאילו שיוסף עתיד למלוך עליהם.
ה' העדיף שיוסף יגיע למצרים בדרך מכובדת. אולם, עקב שנאת האחים (בשל כתונת הפסים), הם פירשו את החלום אחרת מהפירוש הרצוי, ואמרו: "המלך תמלך עלינו אם משול תמשל בנו" (לז, ח). בכך הביאו להגשמת החלום על פי פירושם המוטעה, כפי שכתוב בגמרא: "כל החלומות הולכים אחר הפה" (ברכות נה ע"ב), וכן כתוב בזוהר (בראשית קפג ע"א), מה שחייב את מכירתו שהובילה לתהליך הידוע.
ב) הדבר נועד לתת ליוסף ניסיון בפירוש חלומות ובתגובות של אחרים לפירושים, כדי שבעתיד יצליח לפענח את חלומות שר האופים ושר המשקים במצרים, ואח"כ את חלומות פרעה (פרעה לא היה ראוי לקבל נבואה ישירה בחלום, כפי שרואים שכשלקח את שרה לא הופיע אליו ה' בחלום כפי שהופיע לאבימלך, ולכן הוא קיבל רק חלום של סמלים); וגם כדי שיוסף יכיר מקרוב את התחושה של חלום אמת, כדי שיכיר שחלומותיהם של השרים ופרעה הם חלומות נבואה ולא סתם חזיונות לילה.
היה בכך גם נסיון ליוסף, לראות האם יתחשב ברגשותיהם של אחיו, ויספר להם את החלומות באופן שאינו נראה גאוותני. אבל הוא לא עמד בנסיון.
"וְהִנֵּה תְסֻבֶּינָה אֲלֻמֹּתֵיכֶם וַתִּשְׁתַּחֲוֶיןָ לַאֲלֻמָּתִי" (לז, ז)
יש לשים לב, שעל אף שהאחים הופיעו בחלומו של יוסף, כמו שכתוב "והנה אנחנו מאלמים אלומים", החלום אינו מתאר שהם השתחוו ליוסף, אלא שאלומותיהם השתחוו; וגם הן השתחוו רק לאלומתו של יוסף ולא ליוסף עצמו. לכן נראה שהחלום אינו מנבא שהאחים ישתחוו ליוסף.
נוכל להבין את פשרו הנכון של החלום ממה שאמר יוסף לאחיו מיד אחרי שהתוודע אליהם: "אל יחר בעיניכם כי מכרתם אתי הנה כי למחיה שלחני אלקים לפניכם" (מה, ה). כלומר, אלקים רצה להציל את יעקב ואת בניו ע"י שליחתו של יוסף למצרים, לארגן את התבואה לשנות הרעב. לפי זה, הפתרון 'הנכון' של חלום יוסף הוא שאלומות התבואה של אביו ושל אחיו יבואו מהאלומות של יוסף, ולכן יהיו חייבות ב'הכרת הטוב' לאלומות יוסף. בגלל זה השתחוו אלומות האחים לאלומות יוסף.
האחים, לעומת זאת, תירגמו את החלום כמנבא שהם עצמם ישתחוו ליוסף, כמו שאמרו "המלוך תמלוך עלינו" (לז, ח), ולכן שנאו אותו. כיוון שבחרו בפתרון זה, אף שלא היה הפתרון האמיתי, בסופו של דבר גרמו לכך שפתרונם התממש, והם עצמם השתחוו ליוסף, כמו שאומרת הגמרא: "כל החלומות הולכין אחרי הפה" (ברכות נה ע"ב).
ייתכן שאילו הגיבו אחיו בצורה אחרת לחלומו הראשון, והיו מפרשים אותו בצורה יותר רחמנית, היה מופיע החלום השני בצורה אחרת, או שלא היה מופיע כלל. אז לא היו מוכרים את יוסף, אלא יוסף היה מגיע למצרים בדרך אחרת, והיה מציל את העולם ואת משפחתו מהרעב בדרך אחרת, בלי שיצטרכו להשתחוות לו.
אבל בגלל תגובתם של האחים לחלום הראשון, תגובה שנבעה מתוך קנאה ושנאה, הופיע החלום השני כחיזוק לראשון וכחיזוק לפירושם של האחים, והם נאלצו להשתחוות לו בסופו של דבר. "בדרך שאדם רוצה לילך מוליכים אותו" (מכות י ע"ב).
"הבוא נבוא אני ואמך ואחיך להשתחות לך ארצה" (לז, י)
חלום זה התקיים באופן חלקי: אחי יוסף השתחוו אליו כשבאו למצרים לקנות אוכל (מב, ו), אבל יעקב לא השתחווה. מדוע התקיים רק באופן חלקי?
נראה שהסיבה היא כדברי התלמוד (ברכות נה ע"ב): "כל החלומות הולכים אחר הפה", כלומר, אופן ההתגשמות של חלום תלוי בצורה שפתרו אותו שומעיו.
האחים פירשו את החלום כך שהם ישתחוו לו, כמו שאמרו על החלום הראשון "המלוך תמלוך עלינו" (לז, ח). לעומת זאת, יעקב שאל "הבוא נבוא אני ואמך ואחיך להשתחות לך ארצה?", מתוך מגמה להראות שהפירוש הזה לא ייתכן, שהרי אמו של יוסף, רחל, כבר מתה. יש בכך תוכחה מצד יעקב כלפי האחים, שהם פירשו אותו בדרך לא נכונה, והיו צריכים לדון את יוסף לכף זכות, ולפרש את החלום אחרת. זו דוגמה לכך שמי שדן את חברו לכף זכות לא רק נוהג במידת החסד, אלא אף מגיע לבירור האמת.
לכן לגבי האחים, החלום התקיים כפי שהם פירשו אותו, ויוסף אף דאג לכך שהחלום יתקיים כך, שהם ישתחוו לו; ואילו לגבי יעקב, החלום לא התקיים כפי שהאחים פירשו מפני שהוא דחה פירוש זה.
במבט לאחור, נראה שהפירוש הנכון של החלום הוא שההשתחוואה של השמש והירח ליוסף מסמלת את כניעת הטבע (שגרמי השמים הם מייצגיו הבולטים) ליוסף, היינו כניעת הרעב המיועד, להכנות שעשה יוסף נגדו; והשתחוואת הכוכבים מסמלת את כוחו של יוסף לנבא את העתיד, ולהשתמש בידיעה זו כדי לשנות את העתיד - יוסף הוא "מעל" הכוכבים, מעל אסטרולוגים רגילים שרק מנבאים את העתיד על פי הכוכבים; ועוד, שיוסף הוא מעל הגורל שבדרך כלל נקבע ע"י הכוכבים, מפני שה' שומר עליו מכל זה.
דבר דומה כתבתי לגבי החלום הראשון של יוסף - ראה http://www.shoresh.org.il/hidush/hidush.asp?id=1105.
יש ראיה לפירוש זה מהזוהר (בראשית קפג ע"ב): "וְאִיהוּ אוֹדַע לְהוּ הַהוּא חֶלְמָא, דְּאִלְמָלֵא אִינוּן דְּאַהֲפָכוּ לֵיהּ לְגַוְונָא אָחֳרָא, הָכִי אִתְקְיַּים". ומפרש בפירוש הסולם: "והוא הודיע להם את החלום, ואלמלא הם, שהפכו את החלום לדבר אחר, היה החלום מתקיים".
בסיכום, הפירוש האמיתי של חלומות אינו הפירוש שאחי יוסף פירשו; ובכל זאת הפירוש של האחים התגשם לגביהם (ולא לגבי יעקב) מפני ש"כל החלומות הולכים אחר הפה". אילו אחי יוסף היו דנים אותו לכף זכות, היו מגיעים לפירוש האמיתי של החלומות, ולא היו צריכים להשתחוות ליוסף, ואולי כל ההיסטוריה של עם ישראל היה משתנה.
"לכה ואשלחך אליהם" (בראשית לז, יג)
מדוע שלח יעקב את יוסף לאחיו בשכם? הרי היתה סיבה שרק האחים הגדולים הלכו לכתחילה לרעות את הצאן, ויוסף ובנימין נשארו בבית: בנימין היה קטן מכדי לעבוד עם הצאן, ויוסף נשאר בבית מפני שיעקב למד עמו תורה (פרשת עגלה ערופה, לפי רש"י לקמן מה, כז). אם כן, מדוע החליט יעקב לשלוח את יוסף בכל זאת?
אפשר לתת שני הסברים לכך:
א) יעקב חשש שהאחים, שפעלו מתוך רוגז בשכם בענין דינה, יעשו שם מעשה לא נכון (שהרי שכם היה מקום המיועד לפורענות - רש"י, פסוק יד). הוא רצה שיוסף ישגיח אליהם, כפי שעד עכשו היה נוהג, כמו שכתוב "ויבא יוסף את דבתם רעה אל אביהם" (פסוק ב). לפי זה, מה שאמר לו יעקב "ראה את שלום אחיך והשיבני דבר", "דבר" רומז לדיבה רעה. אבל בסופו של דבר יצאה מזה מכירת יוסף שגרמה סבל רב ליעקב. והיה בכך עונש ליעקב על שעודד את יוסף לספר על מעשי האחים.
ב) יעקב לא רצה שהאחים יקנאו ביוסף משום שנשאר בבית ללמוד, וחשב שאם יוסף יצא איתם לעבודה בשדה הוא יֵראה פחות מועדף.
"ויתנכלו אותו להמיתו" (לז, יח)
מצוות רבות בתורה נאמרו במספר מילים בודדות ובקיצור רב ללא הסברים הנראים לנו כנחוצים. לעומת זאת סיפור מכירת יוסף נמסר בפירוט רב והתורה מקפידה לספר אותו באריכות. מדוע מספרת לנו התורה את סיפור מכירת יוסף באריכות כל כך?
התורה רוצה להדגיש לכל הדורות ששנאת חינם אפשרית גם אצל גדולים וטהורים כבני יעקב. האחים ודאי לא היו מודעים לכך ששנאתם ליוסף נבעה ממה שקינאו בו. הם חשבו ששנאתם אותו היא לשם שמים, ולכן לא ראו עצמם פסולים מלשפוט אותו. אבל התורה מספרת לנו שהם אכן שנאו אותו בגלל קנאתם בו וקנאה זו גרמה להם לעיוות וסילוף בשיפוטם, כמו שכתוב (שמות כג, ח): "כי השוחד יעוור פקחים ויסלף דברי צדיקים". ואדם, גדול ככל שיהיה, אפילו כאשר הוא מרגיש שהשנאה היא לשם שמים, צריך לזכור את סיפור מכירת יוסף.
צריך שיהיה ברור בכל דור כמה חשוב מסר זה, שניתן לא רק מפי חז"ל אלא ישירות מפי ה': שגם גדולי הדור, כמו בני יעקב, יכול להיות שמעשיהם מוּנָעים לפעמים חס וחלילה על ידי שנאת חינם שלא בידיעתם. ואע"פ שאין לנו מושג במה שנקרא 'קנאה' אצל שבטי י-ה, עלינו ללמוד קל וחומר לבדוק את מעשינו.
שנאת החינם של האחים ליוסף גרמה לגלות מצרים, הגלות הראשונה שגלו בני ישראל. שנאת חינם גרמה גם לחורבן בית שני, כדברי חז"ל (יומא ט ע"ב). ספר יוסיפון, פרק צא (שלפי משנה ברורה, סי' שז ס"ק נח, מותר לקרוא בו, והוא מוזכר גם ברש"י ישעיהו כא, ד, ועוד) מתאר את שנאת החינם הרבה שהייתה בין היהודים אז, שנלחמו זה בזה בזמן שהרומאים צרו על ירושלים. כתוצאה טבעית ממהלך הדברים, וכעונש על שנאת חינם זו, הגיעה הגלות.
[גם גלות בית ראשון, שנגרמה עקב עבודה זרה, כאמור ביומא שם, קשורה למכירת יוסף, שכן גם גלות מצרים נגרמה בגלל עבודה זרה, שחשדו בה האחים ביוסף, כפי שכתבנו על בראשית לז, ז].
כעת עם ישראל נמצא בגלות עקב שנאת חינם. אם כן, סביר להניח שהגאולה לא תבוא עד שנלמד להתגבר על בעיה זו. אם נתגבר על שנאת החינם, ותהיה אהבת חינם, תהיה התוצאה איחוד כל עם ישראל על כל כוחותיו הפיזיים, הנפשיים והרוחניים, וכך בצורה טבעית וכשכר מהשמים נגיע לימות המשיח.
השלב הראשון בהתגברות על שנאת החינם הוא ההכרה בקיומה של שנאה זו, שהרי בכל מחלוקת, שני הצדדים טוענים שהם פועלים לשם שמים. סיפור מכירת יוסף יכול ללמדנו רבות על נושא זה.
נקודה נוספת בעניין זה: הרי לפי המפרשים, אחי יוסף דנו אותו למיתה בתור סנהדרין, ומאחר שמוטלת עליהם חובת עשיית משפט ("שופטים ושוטרים"), יכלו לדון את יוסף למוות. אבל התורה אינה אומרת זאת ולא מספרת מהי הסיבה המשפטית שבגללה דנו האחים את יוסף, אלא מספרת לנו שבעצם מה שהניע אותם בסתר ליבם היה קנאה ושנאה, ובאמת לא פעלו לשם שמים כפי שחשבו או שאמרו לעצמם. התורה מלמדת אותנו בזה שייתכן שאילו אנחנו היינו שם, היינו מחזקים את ידיהם של האחים וכותבים את הסיפור כמעשה מוצדק של צדיקים נגד אחיהם הרשע. אך התורה שנכתבה על ידי הקב"ה, בוחן כליות ולב, מגלה את המניעים האמיתיים למעשיהם, שאף שבני יעקב היו צדיקים גדולים, הם טעו וחשבו שמניעיהם טהורים כשלמעשה המצב לא היה כך. בסיפור זה מלמדת אותנו התורה מסר חשוב, שאם גדולים כמו בני יעקב עלולים לטעות ולחשוב שהם פועלים לשם שמים כשבאמת הם מונעים משנאה וקנאה, על אחת כמה וכמה אנו.
דברים אלו אינם נוגדים את דברי המפרשים, שהאחים דנו את יוסף בדין תורה. המלבי"ם (מלכים א' ג, י) קובע כלל: "כל דבר נדון על סיבתו התכליתי", כלומר, הכתוב מייחס לאדם את המניעים האמיתיים למעשיו גם אם הם מכוסים על ידי סיבות ותירוצים שונים (הוא מסביר בכך שלכן הפסוק שבמלכים שם מדגיש ששלמה המלך ביקש חכמה לשם ידיעת משפט, מפני שזו היתה מטרתו האמיתית, ולא בשביל הכבוד שמקבל בעל החכמה). זאת הסיבה שהתורה לא מספרת על המשפט שהאחים ניהלו נגד יוסף, אלא את המניע הפסיכולוגי האמיתי שהניע את האחים גם ללא ידיעתם - שנאתם ליוסף וקנאתם בו. מבחינה משפטית היו לאחים לדעתם סיבות טובות לדון את יוסף ולהורגו, אך המניע האמיתי למעשיהם היה השנאה, וזו הסיבה שבתורה נזכר רק המניע הזה.
זאת ועוד: האחים טעו בפירוש החלומות. הם הבינו מהחלומות שהוא מורד במלכות או מסית לעבודה זרה, אבל אנחנו יודעים שמשמעות ההשתחוואה של האלומות בחלום היתה הרבה יותר תמימה: שהם יזדקקו לו בעניין התבואה, שלכן ירדו אליו למצרים לקנות תבואה. אם כן, הפרשה הזאת מלמדת אותנו לא לדון את הזולת לחומרא, אלא לכף זכות. גם אם נראה לנו שמישהו רוצה לקחת את השלטון, או להסית לעבודה זרה, צריך לדון אותו לכף זכות, מפני שייתכן שאנחנו מפרשים פירוש לא נכון, מתוך התנגדות רגשית לא מודעת.
"ויתנכלו אותו להמיתו" (לז, יח)
גם אם השבטים סברו שיוסף חייב מיתה, איך הרשו לעצמם לפעול נגד רצון אביהם, ולהסתיר ממנו את מה שזממו לעשות?
נראה שהתשובה לכך היא, שבני יעקב ידעו שבהיסטוריה המשפחתית הקצרה שלהם, מאז אברהם אבינו, יש בכל דור בן אחד רשע: ישמעאל בנו של אברהם, ועשו בנו של יצחק. לגבי ישמעאל, שרה היא זו שביקשה לגרש אותו כשראתה מה השפעתו על יצחק בנה, בעוד אברהם התנגד לכך בתחילה. גם לגבי עשו, יצחק רצה לתת את הברכה לעשו, ורק בזכות התערבותה של רבקה, קיבל אותה יעקב. אם כן, בשני המקרים לא התרחשו הדברים לפי מה שחשב האב שנכון לעשות, אלא התערבות האם היא שהכריעה.
גם כאן, חשבו האחים שגם ביניהם יש אח אחד רשע, שאביו אוהב ואינו רואה נכון את המצב ואינו מטפל בו כפי שצריך (וגם אחרי ששמע את חלומותיו, רק גער בו ולא העניש אותו כנדרש). לכן החליטו לפעול בלא ידיעת יעקב כדי לסדר את העניינים, כשם שפעלו האמהות.
במובן מסוים, יש כאן מידה כנגד מידה: יעקב יצר תקדים בכך שפעל נגד רצונו של אביו יצחק, ולכן בניו פעלו נגד רצונו ביחס ליוסף.
היתה כאן סטייה נוספת מדרך ההחלטות הרגילה: האחים פעלו בלי להיוועץ בראובן הבכור. אילו נועצו בו, היה מונע מהם לפגוע ביוסף. כנראה, שנאת החינם שלהם ליוסף העבירה את האחים על דעתם, ופעלו שלא בדרך הנהוגה, בלי להיוועץ בבכור.
"ונראה מה יהיו חלומותיו" (לז, כ)
בפשטות, האחים אומרים באירוניה: נהרוג אותו ואז נראה איך יתגשמו חלומותיו! כלומר, ברור שחלומותיו לא יתגשמו.
אבל יש בכך משמעות נוספת: הרי הגמרא (ברכות נה ע"ב) אומרת: "כל החלומות הולכים אחר הפה", כלומר, אופן ההתגשמות של חלום תלוי בצורה שבה פתרו אותו שומעיו ומפרשיו. בזה שהאחים עכשיו מחליטים שלא להרוג את יוסף, הם מראים שהם נותנים אפשרות של פירוש לא כל כך עויין לחלומותיו של יוסף.
בזה שהם הסכימו לא להרוג אותו, הם כבר רואים שה' מגן עליו, והוא לא נהרג, ואולי אפילו אכן יתגשמו החלומות - בצורה כל שהיא.
"וישבו לאכֹל לחם" (בראשית לז, כה)
מלים אלו מתפרשות בפשטות לגנותם של האחים, להראות שלא היה איכפת להם בצרת אחיהם. אבל אפשר לפרש שיש בכך שבח לאחים: אף על פי שהאחים דנו את יוסף למוות והשליכו אותו לבור, הם לא רצו שיוסף ימות. האחים ידעו שאין בבור אוכל - "והבור ריק אין בו מים" (פסוק כד) - ולכן החליטו לעשות מעשה שיאפשר להם לתת ליוסף אוכל, על ידי כך שיעוררו מצווה אחרת, שלקיומה נדרשת נתינת אוכל ליוסף.
הרי ראובן לא היה שם בשעה זו, ובנימין היה בבית עם יעקב, כך שלמעשה אכלו רק תשעה. כדי לקיים מצוות זימון בעשרה, נתנו ליוסף לחם, וכך הצטרף כעשירי לזימון. אף שהם פסקו שהוא חייב מיתה, סברו שמותר להאכילו כדי שיהיה להם עשירי לזימון, כמו שמותר לשחרר עבד כדי להשלים מנין (ברכות מז ע"ב).
אם האחים לא היו מתיישבים לאכול לחם, לא היו חייבים בזימון ולא הייתה מתעוררת מצווה חדשה, המאפשרת להם לתת ליוסף אוכל. אם כן, שבחם של האחים הוא ש"וישבו לאכֹל לחם".
"לכו ונמכרנו לישמעאלים" (לז, כז)
הישמעאלים היו קרובי משפחה של בני יעקב, ומן הסתם הכירו אותם. אם כן, הם ידעו שלפניהם אירוע נוראי של אחים המוכרים את אחיההם. מדוע לא סיפרו ליעקב על הדבר? הרי אלו "חדשות" חשובות, ועמי הסביבה ידעו בוודאי על האחים שהרגו את תושבי שכם, וגם בלי שיספרו ליעקב עצמו, הידיעה היתה מגיעה אליו? וכיצד לא פחדו האחים שהדבר ייוודע ליעקב?
ייתכן שאכן לא הכירו אותם בני ישמעאל. באותו זמן יוסף היה בן 17, ויעקב היה בן 108 (רש"י לעיל כח, ט), ויצחק היה בן 168. אם כן, עברו 181 שנה מלידת ישמעאל (שהיה בן 13 בלידת יצחק, ובינתיים כבר נפטר, בגיל 137). נולדו לו שנים עשר בנים, ושכנו על פני מצרים (כה, יז-יח). סביר להניח, שבגלל מרחק המקום והזמן, בני בניו של ישמעאל כלל לא הכירו את בני יעקב.
עוד ייתכן שהם ידעו במי מדובר, ובכל זאת לא סיפרו, מכמה סיבות:
א) הם שמעו על מה שהאחים עשו לשכם, ולכן פחדו מהם, ולכן לא סיפרו; והאחים ידעו על כך, וסמכו על כך שלא יגידו.
ב) הם רצו להרוויח כסף ממכירת יוסף למצרים, ואילו סיפרו ליעקב, היו מפסידים את הכסף.
ג) ישמעאל עצמו גורש לטובת יצחק, והנה בני בניו של ישמעאל רואים שאחד מצאצאי יצחק מגורש, והם שמחו בראותם בכך כעין נקמה, ולכן השתתפו במעשה ברצון.
שלוש סיבות אלה יכולות לשמש גם הסבר לכך שיוסף לא ביקש מקרוביו הישמעאלים שיביאו אותו הביתה (או שביקש ולא הסכימו), אף שהיה יכול להבטיח להם שאביו יעקב שהיה עשיר מופלג יתן להם הרבה כסף. על קושי זו אפשר להשיב עוד, שיוסף פחד שאחיו יהרגו אותו כשישמעו שהוא עדיין חי; או שפחד שיעקב יהרוג את אחיו אם ישמע על הנעשה; או שחשב שיעקב שלח אותו בכוונה אל אחיו כדי שימכרוהו, מתוך הסכמה איתם שהוא חייב עונש, ולכן לא רצה לחזור לביתו.
"וישב ראובן אל הבור והנה אין יוסף בבור" (לז, כט)
אחרי שראובן רואה שיוסף אינו בבור, הוא פונה לאחים ואומר "הילד איננו" (לז, ל); אבל הפסוק אינו מספר מה השיבו לו האחים, אלא רק מספר שטבלו את כתונת יוסף בדם. מהפסוק משמע שגם ראובן השדתתף בזה.
דבר זה אינו מובן, שהרי ראובן רצה להציל את יוסף (כאמור לעיל לז, כב), ואיך השתתף במעשה הטבילה שנועדה לרות את מיעקב? מדוע לא רדף אחרי המדנים-הישמעאלים כדי לקנות את יוסף בחזרה?
נראה שראובן אכן לא ידע שמכרו אותו. האחים לא רצו שידע שמכרו אותו, כדי שלא ינסה לקנות אותו חזרה מהישמעאלים. לכן לא ענו לו כלום כשאמר להם "הילד איננו", כדי שיחשוב שהם לא יודעים מה קרה. לכן הוא חשב שבאמת חיה טרפה את יוסף, והשתתף בטבילת הכותונת בדם כדי לשכנע את יעקב בכך.
בזה מובן מדוע האחים, כשהיו במאסר במצרים, אמרו זה לזה "אשמים אנחנו על אחינו אשר ראינו צרת נפשו בהתחננו אלינו ולא שמענו" (מב, כא), ולא אמרו "אשר מכרנוהו" - מפני שראובן היה שם, ולא רצו שידע שהם מכרו את יוסף.
עוד מובנת בזה תגובת ראובן לדברי האחים שם: "הלא אמרתי אליכם אל תחטאו בילד... וגם דמו הנה נדרש" (מב, כב) - משמע שהוא באמת חשב (ועדיין חושב, יותר מעשרים שנה לאחר מכן) שיוסף נטרף ע"י חיה.
המדרש (ילקוט שמעוני, רמז קמב) אומר: "אמרו: נחרים בינינו שאין אחד ממנו מגיד את הדבר הזה ליעקב... הגידו לראובן שעשו את החרם, ושמע החרם ושתק". לכאורה משמע מזה שראובן ידע על המכירה. אבל אפשר לפרש שלא ידע, ואמרו לו שהחרימו שלא לגלות ליעקב שום דבר שעשו, והוא הבין שהחרם הוא שלא לגלות ליעקב שהטבילו את הכותונת בדם.
"ויתאבל על בנו ימים רבים" (לז, לד)
לכאורה, היה ראוי שהאחים יחפשו את יוסף, כדי להקל מאבלו של יעקב.
ייתכן שלא רצו לחפש אותו, שמא כשימצאו אותו, יספר ליעקב מה עשו לו, ויעקב יעניש אותם; או שסברו שלמרות אבלו של יעקב, יוסף צריך להמשיך להיות עבד, מפני שהיה לו דין רודף, כפי שהסבירו המפרשים.
עוד ייתכן שלא חיפשו אותו מפני שחשבו שהוא כבר מת, כיון שתוחלת החיים של עבדים במצרים היתה קצרה. כך משמע מדברי ראובן לאחים: "הלא אמרתי אליכם אל תחטאו בילד... וגם דמו הנה נדרש" (מב, כב) - משמע שחשבו שהוא מת (אבל לעיל לז, כט, הסברנו שרק ראובן חשב שהוא מת, מפני שלא ידע שהוא נמכר).
אבל מדברי חז"ל עולה שאכן חיפשו אותו. כך כותב רש"י (מב, ב), שכשירדו למצרים לקנות אוכל בשנות הרעב, התכוונו גם לחפש את יוסף ולפדות אותו; והוא אף כותב (מב, יד) שהתכוונו להוציא אותו בכוח, אם יהיה צורך בכך. אם כן, מסתבר שעוד לפני כן הם חיפשו אותו, ולא מצאו אותו.
ומדוע לא מצאו אותו? נראה שהיתה כאן יד ה', שרצה שהדברים יתפתחו כך שישתחוו ליוסף, ולכן מנע מהם מלמצוא אותו ולפדות אותו מעבדות. זאת במקביל ליד ה' שהביא לכך שכשיוסף חיפש את אחיו בשכם, פגש "איש" (לז, טו) שאמר לו היכן אחיו רועים, אף שבדרך הטבע לא היה מוצא אותם. ברצות ה', הוא עוזר למצוא; וברצותו, הוא מפריע למציאה.
........
"ולא ידע אתו מאומה כי אם הלחם אשר הוא אוכל" (לט, ו)
לפי הפשט, כפי שמפרש אבן עזרא, הכוונה היא שפוטיפר לא היה יכול לאכול לחם עם יוסף, מפני שהמצרים לא היו אוכלים לחם עם העברים, כמו שכתוב: "כי לא יוכלון המצרים לאכל את העברים לחם" (מג, לב).
אבל רש"י מפרש, ש"הלחם" שהיה כל כך חשוב לפוטיפר, עד שלא נתן אותו להשגחת יוסף, הוא אשתו. פירוש זה מסתמך על דברי חז"ל (יומא עה ע"א; כתובות יג ע"א) שתשמיש נכתב לפעמים בלשון "אכילה" כלשון נקיה, כמו בפסוק: "כן דרך אשה מנאפת אכלה ומחתה פיה" (משלי ל, כ).
יש רמזים לפירוש זה גם בלשון הפסוקים:
א. דברי יוסף לאשת פוטיפר: "ולא חשך ממני מאומה כי אם אותך" (לט, ט), מקבילים למלים: "ולא ידע אתו מאומה כי אם הלחם", משמע ש"לחם" כוונתו לאשת פוטיפר.
ב. לשון הפסוק "ויעזֹב כל אשר לו ביד יוסף ולא ידע אתו מאומה" רומזת ללשונות אישות באדם וחוה: "על כן יעזב איש את אביו ואת אמו ודבק באשתו" (ב, כד), וכן: "והאדם ידע את חוה אשתו" (ד, א).
"ולא זכר שר המשקים את יוסף וישכחהו" (מ, כג)
לפי חז"ל, שכחת שר המשקים את יוסף היתה עונש ליוסף, על חוסר בטחונו בה', בכך שסמך על שר המשקים לעזור לו. פירוש זה קשה, שהרי ייתכן שיוסף הבין שזוהי חוליה בשרשרת האירועים שיביאו להגשמת חלומותיו, שבזכות זה שהוא פותר חלום לאיש שמשרת כל יום את המלך פרעה, הוא יגיע לקירבת פרעה; ואין בכך עבירה של הסתמכות על אדם.
אפשר למצוא סיבות נוספות לשכחתו:
(א) כדי שחלומותיו של יוסף יתגשמו, וכדי שיחזרו בתשובה שלמה, האחים היו חייבים לבוא למצרים ולהשתחוות ליוסף. דבר זה היה יכול להתקיים רק אם זהותו של יוסף לא תיוודע. אבל יוסף סיפר לשר המשקים שהוא נגנב מארץ העברים, ואולי אף סיפר לו (במשך שהותם המשותפת הממושכת בבית הסוהר) שנמכר ע"י אחיו וכו'. אילו שר המשקים היה מספר לפרעה על יוסף עם הפרטים הללו, זהותו היתה עלולה להתגלות. לכן היה צורך ששר המשקים ישכח את סיפורו של יוסף.
ייתכן ששני הטעמים נכונים, ו'לא זכר' היה עונש ליוסף, ו'וישכחהו' היה מהסיבה שהסברנו.
אפשר לצרף את שני ההסברים בדרך אחרת: כשיוסף סיפר שנגנב מארץ העברים, סיפר לו גם שנמכר ע"י אחיו, והיתה בכך הוצאת דיבה רעה על אחיו (ולא היה צורך שיספר פרט זה), והראה בכך שהוא ממשיך במידתו הרעה של "ויבא יוסף את דיבתם הרעה אל אביהם" (לז, ב); ועל זה נענש יוסף שנשאר שנתיים בבית הסוהר, עד שיספיק לשכוח את פרטי הסיפור. בכך יש תשובה לשאלה, שאם השכחה היתה רק כדי שלא תיוודע זהותו של יוסף, די היה שישכח את הפרט של מכירת האחים בלי שאר הסיפור. זה ששכח גם את שאר הסיפור היה עונש ליוסף כאמור.
(ב) כדי לספר את סיפור יוסף לפרעה, שר המשקים היה חייב להזכיר לפרעה את חטאיו שלו, כמו שאמר: "את חטאי אני מזכיר היום" (מא, ט), ודבר זה עלול היה לסכן אותו. לכן הוא לא הזכיר את יוסף לפרעה. הסיכון אף גרם לו, בתת המודע שלו, ממש לשכוח את בקשת יוסף. גם לא היתצה לו מחויבות מוסרית כלפי יסף, לקים את בקשתןו, שהרי מה שפתר לו את חלומו לא הביא לו שום תועלת (מלבד רגיעה נפשית למשך שלושת הימים שנשארו לו בבית הסוהר)
הוא הזכיר את יוסף לפרעה רק כשהיה יכול לעשות זאת תוך כדי שהוא מספק לפרעה מידע שיועיל לו, שפרעה נזקק לפותר חלומות, כך שאיזכור חטאיו לא סיכן אותו.
אפשר לצרף הסבר זה להסבר שיוסף נענש בזה: למעשה, יוסף ביקש משר המשקים לסכן את עצמו, וזאת בקשה לא ראויה, ועל כך הוא נענש בכך שהשר 'שכח' אותו, עונש שהוא תוצאה טבעית מהחטא.
אפשר שהיה כאן גם עונש על כך שלא עזר לשר האופים שנגזר עליו למות, לשנות את רוע הגזירה (אבל להלן, על פסוק מא, לג, נסביר מדוע יוסף לא נתן לו שום עצה להינצל).
(ג) שר המשקים עשה זאת מתוך רשעות, מתוך שנאה לעברים. רק כשהדבר היה לטובתו, לעזור לפרעה בפתרון חלומו (שאולי חשב שפרעה יתגמל אותו על כך), הזכיר את יוסף.
לפי הסבר זה, לא היתה זו שכחה במובן הרגיל, שהרי הוא באמת זכר, אלא "לא זכר" פירושו שלא הזכיר אותו כפי שיוסף ביקש (ויש רמז לכך בדברי שר המשקים לפרעה, כאשר הזכיר את יוסף: "את חטאי אני מזכיר היום" - מא, ט). עוד מצאנו "זכירה" במובן של עשיית מעשה, בפסוק: "ויזכר אלקים את נח" (ח, א); וגם כאן הכוונה היא ששר המשקים לא פעל כפי שיוסף ביקש ממנו לפעול מתוך זכירתו "והזכרתני אל פרעה" (מ, יד) - לומר לפרעה את מצבו. גם "וישכחהו" לפי זה הוא השכחה אקטיבית, במובן של "שישב ויסירם מליבו" (אבות פ"ג מ"ח).
(ד) אילו שר המשקים היה מספר לפרעה מיד על פתרון החלומות שיוסף פתר להם בבית הסוהר, הדבר לא היה מביא תועלת ליוסף, שהרי אין סיבה לפרעה לרחם עליו - הרי כל אדם שנמצא בבית סוהר חושב שלא מגיע לו להיות שם.
יתר על כן: הדבר היה עלול אף לסכן את יוסף: איזו חוצפה היא מצד אסיר-עבד לטעון שהוא יודע מה יחליט פרעה לעשות עם שריו, שעה שיתכן שאף פרעה עצמו טרם החליט על כך! ועוד לטעון שזה בא אליו מה'! פרעה היה עלול להוציא אותו להורג בגלל חוצפתו.
ומדוע יוסף לא חשב על סכנה זו? ייתכן שלא היה מודע לכך שאחרים מתייחסים אליו כגאוותן, כפי שרואים מכך שסיפר את החלומו לאחים ולא צפה את תגובתם. ועוד, הוא ביקש משר המשקים רק לספר לפרעה שיש עבד הכלוא על לא עוול בכפיו, ולא התכוון לבקש ממנו לספר על החלומות; ולא העלה על דעתו שאולי שר המשקים יספר לפרעה גם על החלומות, וזה עלול לסכן אותו.
כדי למנוע סכנה זו מיוסף, השכיח ה' משר המשקים את בקשת יוסף.
רק אחרי שפרעה חלם את חלומותיו, הגיע הזמן ששר המשקים יספר לו על יוסף. הרי פרעה הבין שחלומותיו נועדו לתת לו מסר כלשהו, ותיאר לעצמו שיש מישהו שיכול לפתור את חלומותיו כדי להבהיר מהו המסר. לכן, כששמע על הפתרונות של יוסף לחלומות השרים, הוא הבין את זה כיד ה', ולא כגאווה מצד יוסף. עכשו, דווקא העובדה שיוסף ידע מה פרעה עתיד להחליט, הראתה שהוא מתאים לפתור את חלומות פרעה. דווקא אז היתה תועלת בכך ששר המשקים יזכור את יוסף ויזכיר אותו לפרעה.
Older version of the material, but maybe some is more edited?:
AR to AR: check if anyhting is in here that isn't in the file above
It’s absurd to think that these great men said one to the other: “Let’s kill our brother because our father loves him the most”. Really! Even the most base of people would never say such things. What they might say is “let’s kill our brother because he’s a traitor to the cause” or “We’d better kill him before he kills us” or some such thing. That’s more believable. But because of a nice coat, or a few arrogant dreams? For ten grown men to connive together and agree on such action without fear that one of them would reveal the plan to their father? It’s barely credible.
I believe instead that the brothers were convinced of the justice of their actions, however the Torah reveals the inner depths of their true motivations. God REVEALS to us that they acted out of jealousy and hatred,NOT that this was their conscious openly-stated reason for killing Joseph.
The uniqueness of the Torah is that it is written from the perspective of God. Even those of our motives of which we are unaware are apparent to God, and when a story is recounted in the Torah it is from the perspective of the One who knows what we are truly thinking and feeling.
The brothers would have totally dismissed the notion that they were acting from any but the purest motivations, and perhaps had I been there I would have been convinced of the need to expel Joseph as Yishmael and Esav had been cut off.
However the message that the Torah is giving us here is that even grown men, leaders, sophisticated people, idealists acting seemingly from the purest of motives, can be actually motivated deep down by jealousy and hate. No one is too great to be above scrutiny, especially not self-scrutiny. And when human lives are involved, we must dig deep to expose any possible ulterior motives.
The brothers’ uncharitable interpretation of Joseph’s dreams were self-fulfilling.
Joseph’s first dream [37:7] clearly did not necessarily mean what the brothers read into it, that they would eventually come to bow before him [37:8]; the dream included Joseph and his brothers and in the dream none of them bowed to him. Instead it was only the brothers’ sheaves which bowed, not the brothers themselves; furthermore their sheaves bowed to his sheaves, not to him.
Had the dream not included Joseph and his brothers, just their sheaves, one could claim that their sheaves were symbolic of them, and that the bowing of the brothers’ sheaves to Joseph’s sheaf symbolized their bowing to Joseph, but if they themselves were in the dream and did not bow, why give this interpretation!?
Just as translators actually are engaging in interpretation, and any reading of the Torah’s often ambiguous passages involves interpretation as well, the events in our lives, and their meanings are open to ‘interpretation’, with the interpretation we choose eventually affecting the actuality
Had the brothers been more open and less hateful, they would have understood the dream more charitably, and would not have eventually sold him. He would have arrived in Egypt somehow, not as a slave, and would have saved civilization and his family from famine without them having ever to bow to him. But their uncharitable interpretation caused a chain of events leading up to the eventual concretization of this very interpretation, so that they indeed ended up bowing to him [44:14].
Beyond Astrology: The Correct Interpretation of the Dreams
From later events it is clear that the dream meant that Joseph would one day be providing them with food, that their food supply, their sheaves, would be dependent on his supply, his sheaves, as indeed later happened.
After the first dream was interpreted as it was, the reality was set to some degree, and the second dream already reflected some of this new reality: now we see entities bowing to Joseph himself.
And, it was the sun and moon and stars, potent symbols, which were doing so. This seemed to them even more arrogant.
However we see later what the correct interpretation was: that the seasons, symbolized by the sun and moon, were to some degree put under Joseph’s control, in that he was able to rise above them and profitably manage the series of years of plenty and famine; and furthermore the dream symbolized Joseph’s ability to know the future, symbolized by the stars.
When the brothers later decided to kill him they said : “now we will see what will be of his dreams”: but Joseph was given the power to rise above plain destiny, whether his brothers tried to kill him or have him be a slave in a strange land for the rest of his life, or whether he would be framed and sent to prison, in every situation his destiny would be above that fated in any reading of the stars.
Since the stars symbolize also fate, their bowing to Joseph symbolized his ability not only to predict the future but also to use this knowledge of the future to overcome fate and change destiny.
The dreams of Pharaoh’s ministers later on in the story did not help them in any way, since there was no way for them to know whether the interpretation was accurate until the events themselves unfolded, and in any case even if they believed the interpretation, how could they beneficially use this knowledge? In any event we’re not told that they benefited from the knowledge. But the purpose of their dreams was not for their benefit but rather to prove to the surviving minister that Joseph was capable of interpreting dreams, so that he would mention this to Pharaoh at the appropriate time.
Joseph’s reception of prophetic dreams had a purpose: the brothers were to have helped Joseph fulfill these dreams rather than attempt to foil them. The dreams were meant to test both Joseph and those around him: to see whether Joseph was sufficiently sensitive to the feelings of others to relate the dreams in a way that would not seem arrogant, and to test the reactions of the brothers.
The purpose of the second Dream
After the reaction of the brothers to the first dream, the second dream may have been a warning to them, it being influenced by their inappropriate interpretation of the first dream.
Life’s Ambiguous Challenges:
A psychology experiment testing people’s ability to cooperate will obtain the most accurate results when the subjects are not aware of what is really being tested – it may involve people who believe they are part of an experiment testing something else entirely. The same with divine challenges: it is not always easy to know what the test is, what the real event is, what is the challenge.
When God asked Abraham to sacrifice Isaac, was the challenge that God was posing perhaps for Abraham to come up with a telling argument against child sacrifice, as he had tried to argue against the destruction of Sodom – perhaps God saw that he was a good defense attorney and wanted to see if Abraham would know how to refuse an immoral command. Or was the challenge to show that he believed fully in God’s promises regarding Isaac as the father of generations that he would not sacrifice Isaac – bringing him to sacrifice might indicate that he didn’t really believe in the promise. Abraham it seems correctly interpreted the challenge as being doing exactly what was requested without argument, but this would not necessarily have been clear to all (and maybe it WAS multiple choice, with several correct answers.)
The brothers and Joseph however did not respond correctly. The content of the dream referred to the future, and the brothers and Joseph related to it as though that was the essential element, but in actuality the entire purpose of sending the dreams may have been to test the reactions of the brothers and Joseph in the present.
Dreamland Causation
For the past two portions Yakov was dreaming everywhere, various intriguing encounters with God, and with him Lavan. Now it is Joseph’s turn to dream. And with him, the two ministers in jail, and then Pharaoh.
Joseph’s dreams land him in Egypt where the minister’s dream is the catalyst of Joseph’s interpetation of Pharaoh’s dream which leads to the fulfillment of Joseph’s original dream. And the dreams are fulfilled not according to some preordained fate, but rather according to the interpretation they were given.
I believe it is likely that the brothers felt themselves justified in killing Joseph; they suspected him of idolatry due to the content of his dreams (people and vegetation, even celestial entities, were bowing to him). Moreso, they felt that his dreams indicated an attempt on his part to seduce them to idol worship.
In their interpretation of Joseph’s dreams they themselves were bowing to him, and seducing others to idolatry is an act that according to halacha is punishable by death without the usual legalistic proceedings.
(Of course it is a common failing of people to accuse others of actions that they themselves did not do, or opinions they did not espouse, simply because the accusers have a particular interpretation of events or meanings.)
There are many parallels between the passages in the Torah warning against solicitation to idolatry and the passages in the Joseph story, and there are references to idolatry all throughout the story of Yakov and his children, such as the idol of Lavan stolen by Joseph’s mother Rachel; the luz and the place Luz; the idolatrous artifacts and clothing the brothers divested themselves of shortly before the Joseph story [35:2]; according to commentators this clothing had pictures of the sun and moon, and perhaps the dreams of sun and moon and stars led the brothers to suspect that the coat of many colors had some connection to the idolatrous clothing. [see my article on this subject]
How is it that the brothers decided on such a momentous course of action as to sell Joseph without consulting their oldest brother Reuven – who would indeed have been against it?
Perhaps the willingness to kill their brother, and to cause untold anguish to their father, broke down the family power structure; after this, taking action without consulting the eldest was not taboo. And, as all throughout Genesis, tragedy arises as the younger sibling usurps authority from the eldest.
How could it be that the brothers considered Joseph deserving of death if Yakov, a highly spiritual human being, loved him so much?
Answer: They knew that their granduncle Yishamel had been ejected from the family in favor of their grandfather Yitschak, over the protests of his father, the highly spiritual Abraham, who loved him, and that in the next generation their uncle Esav was actually unfitting despite his father’s love.
They may therefore have believed that Joseph was the unfitting one of his generation despite his father’s love.
Family tradition of forced Exile
Even if Joseph was evil, a seducer to idolatry, how could they allow themselves to exile or kill their brother rather than leaving the matter to their father, the head of the household?
In the matter of exiling or disenfranchising a member of the household against the wishes of its head there was a long family tradition! It was Sarah not Abraham the head of the household who wanted Yishmael exiled, and God intervened on her side, over Abraham’s protestations. And it was Rivka, and not Yitschak (Isaac) the head of household, who intervened to have Yakov obtain the blessings, going so far as to deceive her husband and disenfranchising her eldest son, and causing intense jealousy and hatred thereby.
And the irony (midah kneged midah)is that it was Yakov himself who in that incident had set a precedent in acting against his father, and so they presumed to act to him as he had acted to his own father.
Joseph was sold to Yishma’elim, descendants of his grandfather’s brother Yishmael; they were thus his second cousins. Would they not recognize Joseph as a family member?
Although they were second cousins which is technically three generations removed from the common ancestor, since they all lived very long, the generations were long, and enough years had passed since Yishmael was expelled from the family for many sub-generations to have grown up in the meantime. Thus, they did not necessarily recognize who they were dealing with.
On the other hand, populations then were not large and there were not so many people living in that area and one would have imagined that such a large family with 12 brothers (ten of them selling the eleventh) would be recognizable to second cousins. But even if not, Joseph had enough time on the way to Egypt to reveal who he was, to figure out the family connection, and to ask for help!
How come they didn’t help him, perhaps freeing him, or at least allowing him to buy his freedom via work?
Perhaps they did not consider second cousins to be so close a relationship, but this is unlikely in desert clans. However, there was clearly good reason for the Yishmael side of the family to resent the Yakov side for being Yitschak’ s descendants, and not desire to help.
Why did the story the treachery in their extended family not spread to the rest of the family, so that Yakov would find out?
There was clearly good reason for the Yishmael side of the family not to be in close personal contact with the Yakov side of the family.
Also, they presumably heard that the very same Yitschak who was their grandfather’s rival had two sons, Yakov and Esav who were intense rivals as well, and so they may not have been surprised to see the phenomenon repeated in a third generation, that of the children of Yakov!
Furthermore: Perhaps they were happy at this turn of events, in revenge for their grandfather’s humiliation.
Perhaps this irony of exile of Joseph at the hands of the descendants of the exiled Yishmael was a karmic effect of the necessary and divinely-sanctioned, but nevertheless problematic, exile of Yishmael.
At the very least it was a sign.
Having caught this irony and understanding it as a sign, the brothers had two choices in interpreting it: that they were in error, that if it was Yishmael’s descendants who would be carrying out the exile by taking Joseph then clearly they were wrong in doing this;
or the reverse: that this was an indication that Yosef belonged with the exiled side of the family such as the Yishmaelites.
Clearly they made the wrong choice.
He didn’t want to reveal their crime to Yakov before they had a chance to do teshuva.
If he’d contact his father Yakov and tell him what had transpired, likely the result would have been the complete banishment of the brothers who had been involved
It is likely that Yosef told the minister that he was a slave only as the result of having been kidnapped by his brothers and sold as a slave, then being framed etc: it was certainly pertinent to mention that his brothers had been jealous of him etc and had acted unjustly.
In order for Joseph to accomplish his plan of tricking his brothers into a situation where they had the opportunity to do teshuva it was necessary that they not know his identity, and thus it was important that the minister not remember him and his request because this would end up revealing all the identifying biographical information so that it became common knowledge in Egypt. And so the minister’s “not remembering” was an act of God, but one which was to Joseph’s ultimate benefit, and of importance for the future of the whole Jewish people and the existence of the 12 tribes, and not a punishment for asking the minister to intervene on his behalf.
Why however did it turn out this way? Why could God not make the minister forget only the biographical information but not forget to intervene on Joseph’s behalf?
Answer: One of the reasons Joseph initially earned the enmity of his brothers was that he “brought bad tales of their doings to his father” [37:2], loshon hara. In jail, Joseph told loshon hara regarding his brothers, that he was kidnapped and sold; even if this was true, and even if he did not go into specifics about the identity of his kidnappers, there was perhaps no need to mention this, especially as it would have been impossible for Pharaoh to ever establish the truth of the matter, and in any case in ancient societies slaves were often obtained in this way. We can speculate that as a leader Joseph would need to be held to a higher standard, and so as long as Joseph was still in the habit of mentioning the bad deeds of his brothers, no matter how true or justified or even necessary for his well-being, he was not ready for his destiny as a leader to unfold .
Later though, he corrects this imperfection and reaches his potential, acting with complete forgiveness towards his brothers, and does not even tell his father what they had done to him.
So:
“didn’t remember him” = he was made to forget Joseph’s biographical details so that when he would eventually speak to Pharaoh he would not reveal information which could later on identify Joseph to his brothers.
“forgot him” = as a result of Joseph’s loshon hara God caused the minister not to even remember to bring up Joseph’s situation to Pharaoh.
The Importance of Timing: why the minister forgot him 40:23.
Had the minister mentioned Joseph to Pharaoh right away as Joseph requested, he might have mentioned Joseph’s interpretation of his own dream, but ironically this might have been very detrimental to Joseph. What arrogance it would have seemed to Pharaoh for this prisoner slave to claim to know what Pharaoh himself was going to decide about the minister’s fate!
However after Pharaoh later had his own dreams and sought an interpreter, it was exactly the appropriate time to be told about Joseph: not merely that he knew how to interpret dreams, but more so, that he was able to know what Pharaoh himself was going to do, and probably know it even before Pharaoh himself did! What more appropriate person could there be to interpret correctly Pharaoh’s own dreams.
“the minister did not remember him and forgot him” 40:23
· “zechira” = action: when we are told that the minister “did not remember” perhaps the meaning is that he did not act on Joseph’s request.
· “remember me to so-and-so” : remember me = mention me: so “he forgot” = he deliberately didn’t mention Joseph to Pharaoh, not as a result of forgetting. [The minister didn’t really owe Joseph anything at all, since the release from jail had nothing to do with Joseph, therefore he had no reason to risk his freedom by reminding Pharaoh of his stay in jail.]
· when the minister eventually does indeed act, he says to Pharaoh “I remind you of my misdeeds, We can therefore interpret “the minister did not remember him” not as forgetting Joseph, but rather that he did not remind Pharoah
Joseph asked the minister to mention him to Pharaoh, but in order to do so the minister would have to remind Pharaoh that he was once thrown by him into jail! Why would he want to do this, and why would Joseph even think that he had the right to ask the minister to mention this self-incriminating reminder to Pharaoh?
Furthermore, had the minister brought it up to Pharaoh as Joseph had requested, there would have been no real reason for Pharaoh to do anything about the matter. Virtually everyone in every jail everywhere feels that they were put there unjustly!
In any case, the minister didn’t really owe Joseph anything at all, since the release from jail had nothing to do with Joseph. The only thing Joseph had done was give him peace of mind for three days, and even that was not likely since there was no way that the minister could have known it was a correct interpretation of his dream until he was actually pardoned. So what did he actually gain from Joseph?! Nothing! And therefore the minister had no reason to risk his freedom by reminding Pharaoh of his stay in jail.
the story of Joseph and that of Megilat Esther:
the selling of Joseph and the story of Yehuda and Tamar
the Yehuda/Tamar story and parsha of tsitsit.
[See my article on the subject.]
On the other hand one can view this act of requesting the minister’s intervention as a reasonable one, and as the personal effort a person should indeed make on their own behalf in addition to prayer.
What then is the reason for this doubled phrase?
The people of Egypt knew that he was an Ivri, but as we saw this was not an unusual thing. As far as they knew, Joseph was in jail due to the incident in Potiphar’s household: they did not necessarily know how he had arrived in Egypt, that he had been kidnapped by his kinsmen and sold as a slave to traders going to Egypt. Had this been generally known it might have come to the attention of the brothers when they arrived in Egypt, and they might have asked questions and discovered his identity.
However, Joseph and the ministers shared a jail cell for a while, and as evidenced by the exchange about the dream, and even by the fact that Joseph recognized their distress that day and asked about it, one can assume that they had real and meaningful conversations and perhaps learned Joseph’s story in detail.
In fact, it is likely that he told the minister that he was sold by his brothers for what was it that Joseph asked the minister to mention? Not the dream, for that had nothing to do with the matter, but rather simply the facts of Joseph’s case, that he was in jail unjustly as the result of having been kidnapped and sold as a slave, and then about his having been being framed while working as a slave in Egypt: it was certainly pertinent in establishing his innocence to mention that his brothers had been jealous of him and had acted unjustly.
In order for Joseph to accomplish his plan of tricking his brothers into a situation where they had the opportunity to do teshuva it was necessary that they not know his identity, and thus it was important that the minister not remember him and his request because this would end up revealing all the identifying biographical information. And so the minister’s “not remembering” was an act of God, but one which was to Joseph’s ultimate benefit, and of importance for the future of the whole Jewish people and the existence of the 12 tribes, and not a punishment for asking the minister to intervene on his behalf.