The Natural Science Reviewer Part II

Natural science is a branch of science concerned with the description, prediction, and understanding of natural phenomena, based on empirical evidence from observation and experimentation. Mechanisms such as peer review and repeatability of findings are used to try to ensure the validity of scientific. This is the natural science reviewer as part of the General Sciences reviewer compiled by LET Review University.

1. Ecology deals with the study of:

• Reciprocal relationship between living and non-living

2. Definition of ecosystem is

• The community of organisms together with the environment in which they live

3. In a food chain of grassland ecosystem, the top consumers are

• Carnivorous

4. The energy flow in ecosystem is

• Unidirectional

5. Which one is true?

• Symbiosis when the interaction is useful to both the populations

6. A high density of elephant population in an area can result in

a. Mutualism

b. Intraspecific competition

c. Interspecific competition

d. Predation on one another

7. Barnacles growing on the back of whale is an example for

a. Mutualism

b. Parasitism

c. Amensalism

d. commensalism

8. Penicillin does not swallow the growth bacterium Staphylococcus. This sort example of relationship called .

a. Commensalism

b. Predation

c. Amensalism

d. Mutualism

9. Symbiosis is shown by

a. E. coli

b. Cuscuta

c. Rafflesia

d. Monotropa

10. Which of the following interactions will not promote co-evolution?

a. Commensalism

b. Mutualism

c. Parasitism

d. Interspecific competition

11. The final stable community in an ecological succession is called

a. Final community

b. Ultimate community

c. Climax community

d. Serial community

12. The process of successful establishment of the species in a new area is called

a. Sere

b. Climax

c. Invasion

d. Ecesis

13. The order of basic processes involved in succession is

a. Nudation----invasion---- competition and co-action ---reaction --- stabilization

b. Nudation--- stabilization—competition and co-action---invasion—reaction

c. Invasion—Nudation—competition and co-action--- reaction- stabilization

d. Invasion—stabilization—competition and co-action—reaction—nudation

14. Organisms having the potential to interbreeding and producing fertile offspring is called

a. Class

b. Order

c. Genus

d. Species

15. The maintenance of relatively constant internal environment is called

a. Homeostasis

b. Exotherms

c. Homeobox

d. Endotherms

16. Ultraviolet radiation, which is not lethal but harm to the organism, is

a. 0.2 to 0.28 um

b. 0.28- 0.32 um

c. 0.32-0.4um

d. 0.4-0.5um

17. Ecological niche of an organism represents

a. The resource it utilizes

b. Functional role in the ecological system

c. The range of conditions that it can tolerate

d. All of these

18. The gradual physiological adjustment to slowly changing new environment conditions is known as

a. Selection

b. Introduction

c. Acclimation

d. Quarantine

19. The upper layer of water in a single body of water in known as

a. Hypolimnion

b. Epilimnion

c. Thermocline

d. Hydroline

20. The lower limit of water availability in soil is known as

a. Filed capacity

b. Hypolimnion

c. Thermocline

d. Wilting point

21. What is the animal symbol of W.W.F (World Wilf Fund)?

a. Red panda

b. Giant panda

c. Tiger

d. Kangaroo

22. The most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife, is

a. Pollution of wildlife

b. Hunting for valuable wildlife products

c. Introduction of alien species

d. Alteration and destruction of natural habitats

23. When is the World Wild week?

a. First week of September

b. Last week of September

c. First week of October

d. Last week of October

24. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species?

a. Mammals

b. Fishes

c. Birds

d. Reptiles

25. The unfavorable alteration of environment due to human activities is termed as

a. Ecological catastrophe

b. Catastrophe

c. Ecological degradation

d. Pollution

26. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution?

a. Bryophyte

b. Pteridophyte

c. Lichen

d. Algae

27. Heavy dust can cause

a. Leaf blights

b. Opening of stomata

c. Closure of stomata

d. Browning of leaves

28. Which of the following is the major cause of pollution?

a. Plants

b. Man

c. Fungi

d. Hydrocarbon gases

29. Minimata disease was caused by pollution of water by

a. Mercury

b. Lead

c. Tin

d. Methyl is cyanate

30. 5th of June is observed as

A. World forest day

B. World environment day

C. World wildlife day

D. World population day

31. Cement factory laborers are prone to

a. Leukemia

b. bone marrow disease

c. asbestosis

d. cytosilicosis

32. Noise is measured using sound meter and the unit is

a. Hertz

b. Decibel

c. Joule

d. Sound

33. The carrying capacity of population is determined by its

a. Population growth rate

b. Natality

c. Mortality

d. Limiting resources

34. The major pollutant automobile exhaust is

a. NO

b. CO

c. SO2

d. Soot

35. The major greenhouse gases, otherwise called radioactively gases includes:

a. Carbon dioxide

b. CH4

c. N2O

d. All of the above

36. Which of the following levels of organization is arrange in correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

a. Community, ecosystem, individual, population

b. Ecosystem, community, population, individual

c. Population, ecosystem, individual, community

d. Individual, population, community, ecosystem

37. What is probably the most important factor affecting the distribution of biomes?

a. Wind and water currents

b. Species diversity

c. Climate

d. Day length and rainfall

38. Which of the following abiotic factors has the greatest influence on the metabolic rates of plants and animals?

a. Water

b. temperature

c. Wind

d. all of the above

39. Which biome is able to support many large animals despite receiving moderate amounts of rainfall?

a. Tropical forest

b. taiga

c. Chaparral

d. savanna

40. An owl and a hawk both eats mice. Which of these terms describes the relationship between, hawk, and owl?

a. Predation

b. Competition

c. Parasitism

d. Mutualism

41. What are you acting as when you eat a cabbage?

a. Producer

b. Primary consumer

c. Secondary consumer

d. Tertiary consumer

45. Carbon dioxide traps heat and warms the atmosphere, what effect is this known as.

a. Warming

b. Carbon

c. Carbon dioxide

d. Greenhouse

46. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of population?

a. Sex ratio

b. Natality

c. Mortality

d. Stratification

47. Which decade has been designed as the Decade of Biodiversity “by United Nations?

A. 2021-2030

B. 2011-2020

C. 2001-2010

D. 1991-2000

48. Decomposers which specifically act on the fecal matter of other organisms are called as:

a. Heterophagic

b. Allophagic

c. Coprophagic

d. Paraphagic

49. In a pond ecosystem, the top area where the production is greater than respiration (P/R >1) is termed as:

a. Limnetic zone

b. Profundal zone

c. Benthic Zone

d. Tidal Zone

50. Which of the following bacteria is NOT involved in the nitrification process during nitrogen cycle?

a. Nitrosomonas

b. Nitococcus

c. Bacillus ramosus

d. Nitrospira

51. Which of the following is a” K” selected species?

a. grass

b. Aspergillus

c. Human

d. Taraxacum

52. Which of the following is not a denitrifying bacterium?

a. Thiobacillus

b. Psuedomonas aeruginosa

c. Thiobacillus denitrificans

d. Bacillus ramosus

53. The energy flow in an ecosystem is:

a. In any direction

b. Always unidirectional

c. Always bi-directional

d. Always down-directional

54. The term” allelopathy” describe:

a. Inhibition of the sporulation of pathogen by the host

b. Inhibition of growth of one species by another by producing toxins

c. Inhibiting the growth of one species by another by preventing reproduction

d. Altering the reproductive cycle of one organism by another

55. The ratio between energy flow at different points along the food chain is called:12

a. Ecological efficiency

b. Ecological capacity

c. Ecological-potential

d. Ecological assimilation

56. Species with wide geographical ranges which develop locally adapted populations are known as:13

a. Ecological species

b. ecotypes

c. Ecophenes

d. Sub-species

57. Lincoln Index is used to measure: 14

a. Population size

b. Population mortality rate

c. Population natality rate

d. Population density

58. The ability of a population of living species to increase under ideal environmental conditions is called:

a. Biotic potential

b. Carrying capacity

c. Natality

d. Absolute natality

59. The population of a widely distributed species gets into two sub-population due to the appearance of a mountain barrier. eventually these sub-population evolve two separate species, this is a case of:

a. Allopatric speciation

b. Parapatric speciation

c. Cybernetic speciation

d. Sympatric speciation

60. At the mid-latitude, which of the following is associated with hot dry summer and cool rainy winter?

a. Boreal Forests

b. Chaparal Forests

c. Temperate Broadleaf Deciduous Forests

d. Temperate Grassland

61. If serum is removed from the growth medium of human embryonic kidney cell line (HEK) then the cells will

a. proliferate faster

b. proliferate normally

c. undergo cell cycle arrest

d. undergo immediate apoptosis

62. Which one of the following techniques is use to monitor RNA transcripts, both temporally and spatially?

a. Northern blotting

b. In situ hybridization

c. Southern blotting

d. Western blotting

63. Which of the following microorganisms leach metals out of rock ores and can accumulate silver?

a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b. Thiobacillus

c. Pseudomonas putida

d. Zoogloea ramigera

64. Which of the protein is involved in Alzheimer's disease?

a. A4

b. Amylin

c. Fibrin

d. Alzhemin

65. Which of the modification in hemoglobin is the cause of sickle cell anemia?

a. A mutation in the beta chain

b. A deletion in the beta chain

c. Replacement of the B chain by D chain

d. None of the above

66. Klinefelter syndrome is a manifestation of which chromosome aneuploidy?

a. XXX

b. XYY

c. XXY

d. None of these

67. DNA staining is done by:

a. crystal violet

b. Geimsa staining

c. Methylene blue

d. Feulgen staining

68. Use of alkaline phosphate is to

a. remove terminal phosphates from 3 end

b. remove terminal phosphates from 5 end

c. remove terminal phosphates from both end

d. All of these

69. Taq polymerase is used in PCR because of its:

a. low thermal stability

b. high fidelity

c. high speed

d. High thermal stability

70. Introduction of recombinant DNA into bacterial cell by using current is called:

a. transformation

b. Electroporation

c. transportation

d. transduction

71. Plant biotechnology involves

a. Production of valuable products in plants

b. Rapid clonal multiplication of desired genotypes

c. Production of virus free plants

d. All of these

72. The most common solidifying agent in micropropagation is

a. Agar

b. dextran

c. mannan

d. All of these

73. The culturing of cells in liquid agitated medium is called

a. Liquid culture

b. micropropagation

c. agar culture

d. Suspension culture

74. Which of the following is best suited method for production of virus free plants

a. embryo culture

b. meristem culture

c. ovule culture

d. anther culture

75. All are plant derived except:

a. menthol

b. nicotine

c. quinine

d. codeine

76. The variation in invitro culture is called as

a. invitro variation

b. mutation

c. somaclonal variation

d. all of these

77. Haploid plants are produced in large numbers by:

a. anther culture

b. ovary culture

c. both A and B

d. embryo culture

78. Animal biotechnology involves

a. production of valuable products in animal using rDNA technology

b. rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes

c. alteration of genes to make it more desirable

d. all of these

79. Animal cell are used widely for the production of

a. insulin

b. somatostatin

c. mabs

d. thyroxine

80. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was

a. Hepatitis B vaccine

b. Influenza vaccine

c. Small pox vaccine

d. Polio Vaccine

81. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures

a. interferon

b. mab

c. vaccines

d. all of these

82. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was

a. Primate Kidney cell line

b. CHO cell line

c. Dog kidney cell line

d. Mouse fibroblast cell line

83. Recombinant proteins are

a. Proteins synthesized in animals

b. Proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by DNA technology

c. Proteins synthesized in cells that are produced by protoplast fusion

d. Proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines

84. Interferons are

a. anti-bacterial proteins

b. Anti-viral proteins

c. Bacteriostatic proteins

d. All of these

85. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the production of interferon is

a. Corona virus

b. sendai virus

c. poliovirus

d. Small poxvirus

86. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and production of animals with a desirable genotype is

a. protoplast fusion and embryo transfer

b. hybrid selection and embryo transfer

c. in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer

d. all of these

87. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is called

a. gene cloning

b. Animal cloning

c. cell cloning

d. All of these

88. the first successfully animal was

a. Monkey

b. gibbon

c. sheep

d. rabbit

89. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was popularly called as

a. In vitro babies

b. test tube babies

c. in vitro- in vivo babies

d. all of these

90. Two bacteria most useful in genetic engineering are

a. Rhizobium and Azobacter

b. Nitrosomonas and Klebsilla

c. Escherichia and Agrobacterium

d. Rhizobium and Diplococcus