The Facilitating Learning

1. Teacher A avoids giving out-of-context drills. Instead he makes use of real-world problems for his students to solve. Doing so makes Teacher A ______________ in approach.

A. Inquiry-based

C. Reflective

B. Constructivist

D. Developmentally

2. In the 4A’s of facilitating learning, the first thing that a teacher should do is:

A. Abstraction

C. Activity

B. Analysis

D. Application

3. In the 4A’s approach to facilitating learning, the students learn best to relate ideas to real life through ______________.

A. Abstraction

C. Activity

B. Analysis

D. Application

4. Which test measure is basic to select and connect ideas?

A. Multiple choice

C. Mapping

B. Matching type

D. Outlining

5. Which test a subjective and less reliable for scoring and grading?

A. Completion

C. True or false

B. Essay

D. Matching

6. Teacher Dada wants to test student’s acquisition of declarative knowledge. Which test is appropriate?

A. Performance test

C. Short answer test

B. Submission of a report

D. Essay

7. A seating arrangement that is used for a small group

A. Traditional

C. Circular

B. Horseshoe

D. Rectangular

8. Teacher A would like to cover a wide variety of objectives in the quarterly examinations in his English class lesson on subject verb agreement. Which of the following type of test the most appropriate?

A. True or False

C. Multiple choice

B. Essay

D. Matching type

9. Among the types of assessment below, which does not belong to the concept-group?

A. Multiple choice

C. True or false

B. Matching type

D. Completion test

10. Which type of test measures student’s thinking, organizing and written communication skills?

A. Completion

C. True or false

B. Essay

D. Matching

10. What is the highest career stage of a teacher in the PPST?

A. Distinguished

C. Highly Proficient

B. Proficient

D. Most Proficient

11. Senior high school student in private schools are given ______________.

A. Scholarship

C. Voucher

B. Low tuition free

D. Discount in tuition free

12. When a child says that the sun is sleeping at night, the child is in the pre-operational stage, particularly ______________.

A. animism

C. egocentrism

B. centration

D. reversibility

13. When the daughter is competing with the mother for the father's attention, the daughter is said to be

experiencing ______________.

A. Electra complex.

C. identity crisis.

B. Oedipus complex

D. Sexual deviation

14. According to Piaget’s cognitive concept, what is the learning experience structure during infancy and early

years.

A. Accommodation

C. Schema

B. Assimilation

D. Equilibrium

15. Bandura's theory, the teacher who can be observed in a school is ______________.

A. Symbolic model

C. Virtual model

B. Live model

D. Verbal model

16. Advance organizers use ______________ to make connections among various pieces of information for Efficient recall

A. Visual imagery

C. Organization

B. Elaboration

D. Rehearsal

17. Bruner said that there should be revisiting an old curriculum and for full understanding of ideas

A. Enrichment curriculum

C. Spiral curriculum

B. Advanced organizers

D. Concept mapping

18. A teaching cycle is not complete without ______________ of learning.

A. reviewing

C. planning

B. recycling

D. assessment

19. Among thinking skills, Analysis means ______________.

A. Comparing information proper choices

B. selecting relevant and important information

C. Breakdown complex information

D. placing information

20. Which cognitive ability is tested in the essay question. A listing of ways to tackle noise pollution.

A. Creating

C. Inferring

B. Classifying

D. Generalization

21 To learn complex subject matter, it is most effective to experience from information and ______________.

A. classify facts

C. construct meaning

B. organize ideas

D. divide elements

22 The promulgation of Code of ethics for professional Teachers under Resolution 435 of the PRC expressly

covers teachers in all educational intuitions at the following levels, and implicitly at the ______________.

A. Elementary

C. Preschool and Primary

B. Tertiary

D. Secondary

23. Based on bloom's taxonomy, this activity is suitable to contribute to comprehension and learning but not to include ______________.

A causal relationship

C. outline

B. analogy

D. text reading

24. How does a novice learner acquire information?

A. Selected information

C. All the information

B. Important information

D. Meaningful information

25. What kind of knowledge processing was involved when teacher when teacher A asked his students to

reflect on themselves as self-learners?

A. Deduction

C. Metacognition

B. Observation

D Induction

26. You are required to formulate your own philosophy of education in the course teaching profession, based on

Bloom's revised taxonomy, in which level of cognitive structure or processing are you?

A. Applying

C. Analyzing

B. Creating

D. Evaluating

27. Successful learners contribute to their own learning by assuming the following traits except?

A. Goal-directed

C. Docile

B. Active

D. Self-regulating

28. How would you describe teacher J initiative in relating to everyone in class without playing favorite?

A. Exclusive

C. Constructive

B. Inclusive

D. Competitive

29. What kind of multiple question is: "For an agricultural country like the Philippines, which should the

country advance for its economic development: (a) agriculture production (b) industrial development (c)

tourism (d) finance and banking"?

A. Application of a concept

C. Simple knowledge

B. Assessment of a problem

D. Application of a formula

30. Which standardized test is used to measure performance in completed subjects at various grade levels?

A. Remedial test

C. Aptitude test

B. Achievement test

D. Intelligence test

31. Along Piaget principles, what will you apply along the need to use props and visual aids to help children understand ideas?

A. introduce dialogue exchange

B. use drawing and illustrations

C. do drills and repetitive exercise

D. Send pupils in a field trip

32. Teacher A is sincere and honest in words and deeds as he has ______________?

A. Buoyancy

C. Intelligence

B. Innovativeness

D. Reliability

33. A teacher who is moody, a loner, easily giving up with poor interpersonal relationship?

A. Buoyancy

C. Intelligence

B. Innovativeness

D. Reliability

34. Open environment for discussing opinions without fear of being wrong.

A. Debate

C. Symposium

B. Buzz Session

D. Committee

35. Proponent of Learning by heart, heads and hands

A. Herbart

C. Pestalozzi

B. Froebel

D. Vygotsky

36. The professional standard in the PQF is best understood?

A. As by law

C. As by ethical code

B. As by benchmark

D. As by Civic conduct

37. Values of agreeable, disagreeable or strong sensual?

A. Vital Values

C. Pleasure Values

B. Psychic Values

D. Holy and Unholy Values

38. What type of test is National Career Assessment Examination (NCAE)?

A. Placement test

C. Formative test

B. Summative test

D. Aptitude test

39. According to Jean Piaget's, cognitive development theory a childlike Cinderella is in stage of ______________?

A. Sensorimotor

C. Egocentrism

B. Pre-operational stage

D. Formal operational

40. What is the lowest form of learning?

A. Perceiving

C. Conditioning

B. Responding

D. Teaching

41. Which of the following is the study of human behavior?

A. Philosophy

C. Ethics

B. Morality

D. Psychology

42. According to Maslow, the highest of the need in the Hierarchy of Needs theory is

A. Psychological need

C Belongingness

B. Self - actualization

D. Safety

43. More senses are involved in the learning process during:

A. Exhibit

C. Demonstration

B. Lecture

D. Field trip

46. Summative assessment is ______________?

A. Assessment in learning

C. Assessment for learning

B. Assessment as learning

D. Assessment of learning

47. ______________ is an actual concept sharing of teaching and student.

A. Inquiry-related

C. Metacognitive

B. Substitution learning

D. Constructivist

48. Technology advances in education by using ______________ devices

A. Audio visual

C. Improvised

B. Digital

D. Supplementary

49. The most important contribution of the Gestalt psychology to the theories of learning

A. Use of multimedia approaches

B. Importance of reinforcement

C. Concept of readiness in learning

D. Cognitive insight

50. If a student failed to pass 2 subjects, he or she will ______________.

A. Retain in the same level

B. Take remedial classes

C. Move to the next grade level

D. Transfer to another school

The Facilitating Learning

• The superego is primarily concerned with the idea of right or wrong and is often viewed as “conscience” of personality, according to Freud.

• based on Erikson’s theory on psychological development, a child who is cold towards the people around him failed in the basic goal of “trust” in the stage “trust vs. Mistrust”.

• under Freud’s phallic stage in the psychosexual development theory, a boy is closer to his mother (Oedipus complex) and a girl is closer to her father (Elektra complex).

• based on Piaget’s developmental stage, when a grade 1 pupil likes to play with his friends but gets angry when defeated is under the preoperational stage, which is characterized by egocentrism

• according to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, when one is asked to develop himself to the fullest, he is trying to satisfy his self-actualization, wherein the person strives to develop himself to his full potentials.

• according to Erikson, Piaget, and Freud, play allows the child to learn physical skills as well as social skills.

• a child that is 3-5 years old, according to Erikson, is ego-centric.

• children who are two years of age are labeled as “terrible twos” by Erikson because of the assertiveness and will of these children, illustrated by using the word “no!”

• the factors affecting individual differences are age differences and personal adjustments, sex differences, family and community background, physical conditions, emotional response and attitudes (eq), and mental abilities and specific aptitudes (iq).

• stimulus-response (s-r) or association theory of learning states that in every stimulus there is a corresponding response.

• the three fundamental laws of learning by the association theory are the law of readiness, the law of exercise and law of effect.

• law of readiness is when an individual is prepared to respond or act were allowing him to do so is satisfying, and preventing him would be annoying.

• law of exercise is where the constant repetition of a response strengthens its connection with the stimulus, while disuse of a response weakens it.

• law of effects is where learning is strengthened if it results in satisfaction but is weakened if it leads to vexation or annoyance.

• the theory of condition of learning states that the process of learning consists of the acquisition of new ways of reacting to stimuli developed through attaching new stimuli to established modes of behavior.

• there are two types of conditioning theory, which are classical condition and operant conditioning.

• classical conditioning consists of eliciting a response by means of a previously neutral or inadequate stimulus.

• operant conditioning is a theory that believes one can train an organism either by presenting him a reward or punishment as a consequence of his actions.

• social learning theory of learning viewed that children’s learning process involves observation and imitation.

• the cognitive field theory of learning defines learning as a relativistic process by which a learner develops new insights and changes the old ones.

• insight learning of cognitive field theory postulated that the more intelligent the organism and the more experiences he has the more capable he is of gaining higher insight.

• vector and topological theory of cognitive field theory state that individuals exist on a field of forces within his environment that move, change, and give him degree stability and substance or define his behavior.

• gestalt learning of cognitive field theory states that learning involves the catching, and generalization of insights, which often are acquired first on a nonverbal level or the level of feeling and maybe verbalized later or may not be verbalized at all.

• instrumental conceptualism of cognitive field theory believes that learning is thinking and thinking is the process whereby one makes sense out of the various and somehow unrelated facts through a process called conceptualization or categorization.

• the subsumption theory by David Paul Ausubel considered that a primary process in learning is subsumption in which new material is related to relevant ideas in the existing cognitive structure on a

• Substantive, non-verbatim basis.

• the theory on conditions of learning or the gagné assumption states that different types of learning exist and that different instructional conditions are necessary for each type of learning

• the five major categories of learning according to gagné are verbal information, intellectual skills, cognitive strategies, motor skills, and attitudes.

• transfer of learning occurs when a person’s learning in one situation influences his learning and performance in other situations.

• the major theories concerning transfer of learning are mental discipline, apperception, identical elements, generalization, the gestalt theory of transfer.

• mental discipline asserts that education is largely a matter of training or disciplining the mind with vigorous mental exercises in the classics, grammar, logic, mathematics, and science on the assumption that

• Such training makes a person equally effective in all areas where a given faculty is employed.

• identical elements are the theory of transfer of implies that school should list the aspects of situations that are important to the child even out of the school or in later courses and teach the pupils to cope with different identical experiences or situations in real life.

• generalization by Charles Judd said that there are two levels or kinds of knowledge –wrote learning or memorization without any meaning and generalized knowledge with many intellectual associations.

• gestalt theory of transfer is the belief that when the transfer of learning occurs it is in the form of generalizations, concepts, or insights, which are developed in one learning situation and employed in other situations.

• motivation is the stimulation of action toward a particular objective where previously there was little or no action toward that goal.

• the two types of motivation are intrinsic and extrinsic motivation.

• intrinsic motivation refers to the inherent or internal stimulus of individuals to learn.

• extrinsic motivation is based on incentives, which are artificial devices, which are employed to evoke attitude conducive to learning.

• insight learning is regarded as “serendipity” when an idea suddenly strikes the mind and a solution to a problem is arrived at.

• metacognition is where a teacher is attempting to develop the student to think about their thinking, or to reason about one’s own thinking.

• instincts are under the mental dimension of id according to Freud.

• according to Piaget, a child in the concrete operational stage cannot imagine the steps necessary to complete an algebraic equation.

• fear of something that was caused by painful experience in the past is an example of classical conditioning.

• operant condition theory is illustrated in a child who tries to complete all tasks given to him correctly to have candy as a “reward.”

• based on Thorndike’s theory that punishment will only weaken the response and not permanently remove it, a child punished for stealing money won’t steal in the near future but does not guarantee that the child won’t steal anymore.

• the association and cognitive theories of learning are

• Complementary meaning, they support each other in terms of principles and practice.

• rewarding a child for doing things correctly is a technique called reinforcement, where it is a behavioral consequence that strengthens a behavior.

• a person possessing interpersonal intelligence is characterized by “people-orientedness skills” and has the capacity to make people laugh.

• reading disability in children who are neglected and abused is related to emotional factors.

• the brain’s ability to change from experience is known as plasticity.

• john Watson’s quote, “men are built not born” came from his belief that environmental stimulation is directly affecting a person’s development.

• attention deficit disorder is usually characterized by impatience to wait for his/her turn during games, disregard for rules and show an inability to delay gratification.

• a child who always fights with his/her classmates, who has a very short attention span, and who has frequent tantrums is believed to be suffering from attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.

• a child who treats his friends aggressively due to his past experiences with his father who is also aggressive is demonstrated by the social cognitive theory.

• based on Jung’s theory, a child who prefers to be alone is an “introvert”

• based on gestalt’s psychology that states, “the whole is more than the sum of all its parts,” a piece of music may sound sad, but when each note is played, there is nothing sad about it.

• tabula rasa or the belief that the mind is a “blank sheet” will make the teacher conduct lessons that give sensory impressions because the teacher believes that by doing so, he/she imprints salient inputs in the students’ mind.

• society is a group of individuals with well-defined limits which persists in time, thus enabling them to develop a set of common ideas, attitudes, interact and of techniques for living and fitting together.

• a group is a unit of interacting personalities with the interdependence of roles and status existing between them.

• the seven kinds of groups, which are the primary group, secondary group, in-group, out-group, peer group, reference group, and voluntary associations.

• social stratification is the system or process of assigning men their respective ranks in a society based on income or wealth, education, occupation, and lifestyle.

• social mobility is the process of moving from one social stratus to another, it may either be horizontal, vertical, or lateral.

• socialization is the process by which the individual acquires the social and cultural heritage of his society.

• the three levels of socialization are vegetative level, sentient level, and a rational level.

• the vegetative level of the socialization process is the stage characterized by the preoccupation with food, where the desire is primarily for survival.

• the sentient level is geared towards the satisfaction of sensual passions and desire.

• the rational level is where a person has already acquired morality and a sense of justice.

• status is the position a person occupies in society by virtue of his age, birth, sex, marriage, occupation, and achievement.

• the two types of status are ascribed and achieved.

• ascribed status is a position assigned to an individual without reference to his innate differences and abilities and is assigned at birth.

• achieved status is not assigned to an individual at birth, but is left open for competition and individual effort.

• the role is the part that the individual is expected to play in his social group and is the sum of the cultural patterns associated with a particular status.

• social deviations refer to the failure of the individual to play the role expected from him by society.

• internalizations are the process of making an attitude or a practice a part of one’s automatic and unthinking responses.

• social order is the way the individual is expected to behave in a society where he belongs in order to preserve and maintain the tranquility of his social milieu.

• social control is the means by which people are led to fill their expected roles in society even against their will just to achieve social order.

• anthropology is the study of human differences, cultural and biological against the background of the nature all humans share.

• culture is the complex whole, which includes knowledge, belief, art, law, morals, customs, and other capabilities and habits acquired by man as a member of society as defined by Edward b. Taylor.

• the two kinds of culture are non-material culture and material culture.

• non-material culture is intangible, which includes beliefs, morals laws, customs, traditions, folkways, mores, etc.

• material culture is tangible and includes man’s technologies, etc.

• the characteristics of culture are it is learned, all people have varied culture, it is a group product and it is transmitted.

• the importance of culture is that through the development of culture man can set aside certain laws of nature to conform to his needs and man can overcome his physical handicaps.

• folkways are customary ways of behaving, which have become habitual and repetitive to an individual group such as caring for the elders and saying “po” and “opo”.

• mores occur when folkways become compulsive for the welfare of the society and it has acquired moral significance, where failure to conform to these results to ostracism or condemnation.

• sub-culture refers to the attitude of a certain group to deviate from the habitual practices of the majority.

• cultural relativism refers to the practices considered immoral or taboo to a certain group of people, yet moral to other societies, including polygamy and pre-marital sex.

• culture shock is the term used to denote the feeling of depression, often expressed as homesickness, caused by living in a foreign environment.

• cultural values refer to the collective ethical, aesthetics and religious values of the community including artistic inclination, poetry, music, painting, literature, and such other practices, which the entire society considers as vital elements of their existence.

• Filipino cultural values that make the Filipino unique and distinct from other peoples of the world includes non-rationalism, emotional closeness and security of the family, authority, economic and social improvement, utang na loob, personalism, indolence, ningas kugon, mañana habit, hospitality, and fiesta syndrome.

• non-rationalism is a Filipino cultural value that is the tendency to perceive thoughts, objects, events, and persons as sacred.

• non-rationalism includes animism, fatalism, social acceptance, pakikisama, euphemism, and go-between.

• emotional closeness and security of the family is a Filipino cultural value, which means there is a mutual dependence among relatives, granting special favors or privileges among the immediate or even

• Distant relatives.

• authority refers to the emphasis on the power and importance of authority figure.

• economic and social improvement is the desire to improve the standard of living of his family and his hometown.

• Utang na loob means sense of gratitude.

• personalism emphasizes the importance of the person with whom one has immediate face-to-face contact and connection, which includes pakiusap, lagay, areglo, and palakasan.

• indolence means laziness.

• ningaskugon means great enthusiasm at the beginning of a task but

• Gradually fades.

• mañana habit refers to procrastination or putting for tomorrow what can be done today.

• hospitality means cordially entertaining guests and visitors even to the point of sacrificing their own welfare.

• fiesta syndrome refers to lavish spending during fiestas and other occasions.

• Assessment of student learning

• Assessment of learning focuses on the development and utilization of assessment tools to improve the teaching-learning process.

• measurement refers to the quantitative aspect of evaluation where

• It involves the outcomes that can be quantified statistically.

• measurement is also defined as the process of determining and differentiating the information about the attributes or characteristics of things.

• evaluation is the qualitative aspect of determining the outcomes of learning and it involves value judgment.

• testing is a method used to measure the level of achievement or performance of the learners.

• test consists of questions or exercises or other devices for measuring the outcomes of learning.

• the three classifications of tests are according to the manner of response, according to the method of reparation, and according to the nature of the answer.

• objective tests are tests, which have definite answers and therefore are not subject to personal bias.

• teacher-made tests or educational tests are constructed by the teachers based on the contents of different subjects taught.

• diagnostic tests are used to measure a student’s strengths and weaknesses, usually to identify deficiencies in skills or performance.

• formative testing is done to monitor students’ attainment of the instructional objectives.

• summative testing is done at the conclusion of instructional and measures the extent to which students have attained the desired outcomes.

• a standardized test is already valid, reliable and objective and is a test for which contents have been selected and for which norms or standards have been established.

• standards or norms are the goals to be achieved, expressed in terms of the average performances of the population tested.

• the criterion-referenced measure is a measuring device with a predetermined level of success or standard on the part of the test takers.

• the norm-referenced measure is a test that is scored on the basis of the norm or standard level of accomplishment by the whole group taking the tests.

• the types of assessment are placement assessment, diagnostic assessment, formative assessment, and summative assessment.

• placement assessment is concerned with the entry performance of the student, where its purpose is to determine the prerequisite skills, degree of mastery of the course objectives and the best mode

• Of learning.

• diagnostic assessment is a type of assessment given before instruction where it aims to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the students regarding the topics to be discussed.

• formative assessment is a type of assessment used to monitor the learning progress of the students during or after instruction.

• summative assessment is a type of assessment usually given at the end of a course or unit.

• the modes of assessment are traditional assessment, performance assessment, and portfolio assessment.

• traditional assessment is in which student typically select an answer or recall information to complete the assessment.

• performance assessment is an assessment in which students are asked to perform real-world tasks that demonstrate meaningful application of essential knowledge and skills.

• portfolio assessment assumes that it is a dynamic assessment.

• the most reliable tool for seeing the development of a student’s ability to write is a portfolio assessment.

• the key to effective testing includes the objectives, instruction, assessment, and evaluation.

• objectives are the specific statements of the aim of the instruction, where it should express what the students should be able to do or know as a result of taking the course.

• instruction consists of all the elements of the curriculum designed to teach the subject, including the lesson plans, study guide, and reading and homework assignment.

• assessment is the process of gathering, describing or quantifying information about the performance of the learner and testing components of the subject.

• the factors to consider when constructing good test items are validity, reliability, administrability, scorability, appropriateness, adequacy, fairness, and objectivity.

• validity refers to the degree to which a test measures what it is intended to measure.

• to test the validity of the test, it is to be pretested in order to determine if it really measures what it intends to measure or what it purports to measure.

• reliability refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested using the same instrument or one that is parallel to it.

• the test of reliability is the consistency of the results when it is determined to different groups of individuals with similar characteristics in different places at different times.

• scorability states that the test should be easy to score, directions for scoring should be clear, and the test developer should provide the answer sheet and the answer key.

• appropriateness mandates that the test items that the teacher construct must assess the exact performances called for in the learning objectives.

• adequacy states that the test should contain a wide sampling of items to determine the educational outcomes or abilities so that the resulting scores are representative of the total performance in

• The areas measured.

• fairness mandates that the test should not be biased to the examinees.

• evaluation is used to examine the performance of students and comparing and judging its quality.

• the types of validity are content validity, criterion-related validity, and concurrent validity.

• content validity is a validation that refers to the relationship between a test and instructional objectives and it establishes the content so that the test measures what it is supposed to measure.

• criterion-related validity is a type of validation that refers to the extent to which scores from a test relate to theoretically similar measures.

• the two types of criterion-related validity are construct validity and predictive validity.

• construct validity is a type of validation that measures the extent to which a test measures a hypothetical and unobservable variable or quality, such as intelligence, math achievement, performance anxiety, etc.

• predictive validity is a type of validation that measures the extent to which person’s current test results can be used to estimate accurately what that person’s performance or other criteria, such as test score, will be at a later time.

• concurrent validity is a type of validation that requires the correlation of the predictor or concurrent measure with the criterion measure, which can be used to determine whether a test is useful to use as a predictor or as a substitute measure.

• objectivity is the degree to which personal bias is eliminated in the scoring of the answers.

• nominal scales classify objects or events by assigning numbers to them, which are arbitrary and imply no quantification, but the categories must be mutually exclusive and exhaustive.

• ordinal scales classify and assign rank order.

• interval scales also known as equal interval or equal unit is needed to be able to add or subtract scores.

• ratio scales where the zero is not arbitrary; a score of zero includes the absence of what is being measured.

• norm-referenced interpretation is where an individual’s score is interpreted by comparing it to the scores of a defined group, often called the normative group.

• criterion-referenced interpretation means referencing an

• Individual’s performance to some criterion that is a defined

• Performance level.

• the stages in test construction are planning the test, trying out the test, establishing test validity, establishing the test reliability, and interpreting the test score.

• the frequency distribution is a technique for describing a set of test scores where the possible score values and the number of persons who achieved each score are listed.

• measures of central tendency are computed to know where on the scale of measurement distribution is located.

• measures of dispersion are used to know how the scores are dispersed in the distribution.

• the three commonly used measures of central tendency are the mean, median and mode.

• the mean of a set of scores is the arithmetic mean and is found by summing the scores and dividing the sum by the number of scores.

• median is the point that divides the distribution in half, which is half of the scores fall above the median and half of the scores fall below the median.

• mode is the most frequently occurring score in the distribution.

• range is the difference between the highest score and the lowest score.

• the variance measures how widely the scores in the distribution are spread about the mean.

• variance is the average squared difference between the scores and the mean.

• the standard deviation indicates how spread out the scores are, but it is expressed in the same units as the original scores.

• a graph of a distribution of test scores is better understood that the frequency distribution or a table of numbers because the general shape of the distribution is clear from the graph.

• a teacher must use an essay type of test the student’s ability to organize ideas.

• NSAT and neat results are interpreted against a set mastery level, which means that the tests fall under the criterion-referenced test because it describes the student’s mastery of the objectives.

• the first step in planning an achievement test is to define the instructional objective.

• skewed score distribution means the score is concentrated more at one end or the other end.

• normal distribution means that the mean, median, and mode are equal.

• when the computed value or r for math and science is 0.90, it implies that the higher the scores in math, the higher the scores in science because r=0.90 means a high positive correlation.

• an objective that is at the highest level in bloom’s taxonomy is rating three different methods of controlling tree growth because it deals with evaluation.

• inferential is a type of statistics that draws conclusions about the sample being studied.

• generosity error is the error teachers commit when they tend to overrate the achievement of students identified by and aptitude tests as gifted because they expect achievement and giftedness to

• Go together.

• portfolio assessment measures the students’ growth and

• Development.

• formative testing is the test most fit for mastery learning because it is done after or during a discussion where the feedback can be used to determine whether the students have a mastery of the subject

• Matter.

• a characteristic of an imperfect type of matching set is that an item may have no answer at all.

• determining the effectiveness of distracters is included in item analysis.

• discrimination index is the difference between the proportion of high-performing students who the item right and the proportion of low-students who got an item right.

• a positive discrimination index means that more students from the upper group got the item correctly.

• a negative discrimination index takes place when the proportion of the students who got an item right in the low performing group is greater than the students in the upper performing group.

• zero discrimination happens when the proportion of the student who got an item right in the upper-performing group and the low-performing group is equal.

• when points in the scatter gram are spread evenly in all directions, this means that there is no correlation between two variables.

• a norm-referenced statement is comparing the performance of a certain student with the performance of another student/s.

• content is a type of validity that is needed for a test on course objectives and scopes.

• when there are extreme scores the mean will not be a very reliable measure of central tendency.

• the sum of all the scores in a distribution always equals the mean times the n because the sum of all the scores is equal to the product of the mean and the number of scores. Formula: mean = summation of scores/n

• a z-value can be used to compare the performance of the students, because it tells the number of standard deviations equivalent to a raw score, where the higher the value of z score, the better the performance of a certain student is.

• mean is the measure of the position that is appropriate then the distribution is skewed.

• the analysis of variance utilizing the f-test is the appropriate

• Significance test to run between three or more means.

• in standard deviation, the higher the value of standard deviation on the average, the scores are farther from the mean value, whereas the smaller the value of the standard deviation on the average, the scores are closer to the mean value.

• when the value of standard deviation is small, the scores are concentrated around the mean value because the smaller the value of the standard deviation the more concentrated the scores are to the mean value.

• when the distribution is skewed the most appropriate measure of central tendency is median.

• in the parlance of test construction, TOS means table of Specifications.

• range is a measure of variation that is easily affected by the extreme scores.

• mode is the measure of central tendency that can be determined by mere inspection because mode can be identified by just counting

• The score/s that occurred the most in a distribution.

• the description of each criterion to serve as a standard, very clear descriptions of performance level, rating scale, and mastery levels of achievement are considerations that are important in developing a scoring rubric.

• a rubric is developmental.

• performance-based assessment emphasizes process and product.

• Kohlberg and other researchers used a moral dilemma to measure the awareness of values.

• projective personality test includes sentence completion test, word association test, and thematic apperception test.

• an anecdotal report is a note written by the teacher regarding incidents at the classroom that might need special attention in the future.

• one of the strengths of an autobiography as a technique for personality appraisal is it makes the presentation of intimate experiences possible.

• carl roger is considered the main proponent of non-directive counseling.

• sharing the secrets of a counselee with other members of the faculty is in violation of confidentiality.

• counselors can break confidentiality rule in cases of planned suicide or planned hurting/killing of somebody.

• Sinforoso Padilla is considered the father of counseling in the Philippines.

• portfolio is the pre-planned collection of samples of student works, assessed results and other output produced by the students.

• assessment is said to be authentic when the teacher gives students real-life tasks to accomplish.

• the main purpose of a teacher using a standardized test is to engage in easy scoring.

• marking on a normative basis follows the normal distribution curve.

• a scoring rubric is important in a self-assessment to be effective.

• the main purpose of administering a pretest and a post-test to students is to measure gains in learning.

• an assessment activity that is most appropriate to measure the objective “to explain the meaning of molecular bonding” for the group with strong interpersonal intelligence is to demonstrate

• Molecular bonding using students as atoms.

• emphasis on grades and honors goes with the spirit of “assessment of learning”.

• split-half method and Kuder Richardson measure internal

• Consistency of the test scores of the students.

• test-retest measures the stability of the test scores.

• parallel method measures the equivalence.

• the expression “grading on the curve” means the performance of a certain student compared to the performance of other students in the group.

• scoring rubrics have criteria of level of achievement to serve as a standard, has a clear description of performance in each level, and has a rating scheme.

• when constructing a matching type of test the options must be greater than the descriptions, the directions must state the basis of matching, and the descriptions must be in column a and options in column b.

• extended essay test can effectively measure hots cognitive learning objectives.

• an objective test can cover a large sampling of content areas, time-consuming to prepare, and there is a single or best answer.

• objective tests measure low-level thinking skills, such as knowledge, comprehension, and application.