What is the primary function of phylogenetic trees in molecular epidemiology?
a) To describe bacterial shapes
b) To show evolutionary relationships
c) To measure disease prevalence
d) To analyze environmental data
Which molecular tool is used to detect specific pathogens in an outbreak?
a) DNA metabarcoding
b) PCR/qPCR
c) Restriction enzyme cutting
d) Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis
What do nodes on a phylogenetic tree represent?
a) Present-day species
b) Evolutionary divergence points
c) Virus strains
d) Disease incidence
Which factor does not influence the choice of a molecular epidemiology tool?
a) Cost-effectiveness
b) Ability to detect risk factors
c) Discriminatory power
d) Sample storage requirements
In the 2016 Connecticut E. coli O157 outbreak, how was the source traced?
a) Through environmental sampling
b) By patient interviews alone
c) Using PFGE to identify the outbreak strain
d) By PCR
Which of the following is a key drawback of Pulsed-Field Gel Electrophoresis (PFGE)?
a) It's not discriminatory enough
b) It takes 3-5 days to complete
c) It can't identify bacterial strains
d) It requires full genome sequencing
What was the likely transmission route for Foot-and-Mouth Disease in the 2007 UK outbreak?
a) Animal movement
b) Aerosol or human movement
c) Water contamination
d) Milk transmission
What is one benefit of using full genome sequencing in epidemiology?
a) It's the cheapest method
b) It provides detailed strain information
c) It's faster than PCR
d) It’s only useful in viral outbreaks
What term refers to the evolutionary relationships among haplotypes in a population?
a) Haplotype network
b) Cladogram
c) Genome sequencing
d) PCR/qPCR
In molecular epidemiology, what does “level of discrimination” refer to?
a) How accurately a tool measures pathogen spread
b) The ability of a tool to differentiate between genetic variants
c) The cost of the tool
d) The time it takes for results
What is the primary effect of DNA methylation on gene expression?
a) Activates gene expression
b) Silences gene expression
c) Has no effect on gene expression
d) Destroys the DNA sequence
In what region of the genome is DNA methylation most commonly found?
a) Coding regions
b) Promoter regions
c) Exons
d) Introns
Which of the following is a consequence of histone acetylation?
a) DNA becomes tightly packed
b) Gene transcription is suppressed
c) Chromatin structure loosens
d) DNA is degraded
What mechanism is responsible for X-chromosome inactivation in female mammals?
a) DNA methylation
b) RNA interference
c) Histone modification
d) Genomic imprinting
Which protein regulates the degradation of the extracellular matrix in dogs, and how is it epigenetically altered in cancer?
a) TFPI-2, hypermethylation
b) MMP, acetylation
c) TFPI-2, hypomethylation
d) MMP, phosphorylation
What type of RNA can degrade mRNA or inhibit its translation?
a) miRNA
b) tRNA
c) rRNA
d) snRNA
Which of the following animals demonstrates the phenomenon of genomic imprinting?
a) Tortoiseshell cats
b) Ligers and tigons
c) Tasmanian devils
d) Dairy cows
What is the result of reduced histone acetylation in tumor cells of Tasmanian devils?
a) Increased immune recognition
b) Activation of tumor suppressor genes
c) Decreased MHC expression
d) Enhanced immune response
How does the environment influence the epigenome?
a) By changing the DNA sequence
b) Through mutations
c) By altering chemical marks such as methylation
d) By increasing gene mutations
What type of study analyzes epigenetic modifications and their association with disease?
a) GWAS
b) EWAS
c) RNA sequencing
d) CRISPR analysis
Which of the following is NOT a common application of recombinant DNA technology?
A. Vaccine production
B. Oil extraction
C. Genetic modification of crops
D. Therapeutic protein production
What is the purpose of a plasmid in recombinant DNA technology?
A. To cut DNA at specific sites
B. To act as a host for recombinant DNA
C. To serve as a vector carrying foreign DNA
D. To provide nutrients to bacterial cells
What is the key feature that distinguishes E. coli from mammalian cells in recombinant protein production?
A. Faster cell division
B. High protein yield with post-translational modifications
C. Ability to perform glycosylation
D. Suitable for only non-medical applications
Which of the following insulins has been engineered for prolonged release?
A. Regular Insulin
B. Insulin Lispro
C. Insulin Glargine
D. First-generation Insulin
Why are restriction enzymes important in recombinant DNA technology?
A. They replicate DNA.
B. They cut DNA at specific sites.
C. They insert DNA into host cells.
D. They act as carriers for DNA segments.
Monoclonal antibodies used in veterinary medicine are modified by:
A. Combining canine and feline antibody regions.
B. Using murine antibody structures only.
C. Fusing variable murine regions with canine antibody segments.
D. Removing all murine DNA sequences.
In recombinant DNA technology, transformation of bacterial cells is confirmed by:
A. PCR and sequencing
B. Restriction enzyme analysis
C. Ligase activity monitoring
D. Cell replication rates
Which vector allows the largest DNA insert?
A. Plasmid
B. Cosmid
C. Artificial chromosome
D. Viral vector
What is a notable disadvantage of using E. coli for protein production?
A. Requires high-cost culturing
B. Cannot perform post-translational modifications
C. Has slow cell division
D. Low yield of proteins
How is insulin Lispro designed to act faster than natural insulin?
A. Added amino acids increase glycosylation
B. Prevents dimerization by altering amino acids in chain B
C. Increases protein folding speed
D. Uses additional stabilizing zinc ions
31. What is the primary purpose of somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT)?
A) To create transgenic plants
B) To reprogram somatic cells to an embryonic state
C) To produce an exact clone of existing embryos
D) To synthesize genetically modified proteins
32. What is a key challenge associated with the random integration of transgenes in animals?
A) Predictable transgene expression
B) Risk of genetic silencing or overexpression
C) Enhanced genetic diversity
D) Stability across generations
33. Why is CRISPR/Cas9 considered more flexible than zinc finger nucleases (ZFNs) and transcription activator-like effector nucleases (TALENs)?
A) It uses protein-based DNA recognition
B) It utilizes guide RNA
C) It depends on the FokI endonuclease
D) None of the above
34. In the context of animal welfare, why is breeding hornless cattle beneficial?
A) They can be used as bioreactors
B) They help reduce injuries among cattle
C) They increase meat production
D) They do not require vaccination
35. Which of the following correctly describes non-homologous end joining (NHEJ) DNA repair?
A) It is precise and error-free
B) It involves homologous DNA sequences
C) It is prone to indel (insertion-deletion) mutations
D) It is used exclusively in bacterial systems
36. Which protein is commonly used in zinc finger nuclease (ZFN) and TALEN systems for DNA cutting?
A) Cas9
B) FokI
C) CRISPR
D) Polymerase
37. What does Cas9 require to target a specific DNA sequence accurately?
A) A protein recognition motif
B) A guide RNA that is complementary to the target DNA
C) A transgene
D) A plasmid vector
38. Why do some interspecies SCNT cloning attempts fail?
A) Differences in mitochondrial DNA compatibility
B) High genetic diversity between species
C) Insufficient reprogramming of donor cells
D) Slow cellular growth rates
39. What is the role of the PAM sequence in CRISPR/Cas9 technology?
A) It recognizes the RNA
B) It binds with proteins to initiate transcription
C) It helps Cas9 bind to DNA and start cutting
D) It marks the gene for replication
40. Which of the following is a notable application of genome editing in pigs?
A) Resistance to Porcine Reproductive and Respiratory Syndrome Virus (PRRSV)
B) Improved milk production
C) Increased body size
D) Enhanced fertility
What is the key feature of stem cells?
A. Unlimited differentiation
B. Self-renewal and differentiation
C. Only differentiation
D. Immortality
Which cells are pluripotent?
A. Skin cells
B. Hematopoietic stem cells
C. Embryonic stem cells
D. Neurons
What assay is used to confirm pluripotency in vivo?
A. Western blot
B. PCR
C. Teratoma assay
D. Northern blot
Who discovered iPSCs?
A. Gurdon
B. Yamanaka
C. Wilmut
D. Evans
What is the potency level of hematopoietic stem cells?
A. Totipotent
B. Pluripotent
C. Multipotent
D. Unipotent
What is a key advantage of iPSCs?
A. Require embryos
B. Autologous use
C. Limited differentiation
D. Only useful in mice
Which condition was first treated with hiPSCs?
A. Parkinson’s disease
B. Macular degeneration
C. Diabetes
D. ALS
What defines the “ground state” of pluripotency in mice?
A. Cytokine BMP4
B. LIF and 2i inhibitors
C. Oct4 overexpression
D. 3D culturing
What challenge exists for iPSCs in conservation?
A. Lack of genetic stability
B. Species-specific adaptations
C. Ethical concerns
D. Insufficient funding
What is unique about totipotent cells?
A. Can only form extraembryonic tissues
B. Can form all body and extraembryonic tissues
C. Limited to a single lineage
D. Found only in adults