Quizes

 

 QUIZ I

1. Use caution if decision is made to accomplish the Smoke Removal procedure, as moving the PRESS DUMP switch to DUMP will cause HALON in the cargo compartment to be vented overboard through the outflow valve.
True_____ False____

2. The lavatory waste receptacle is equipped with a self-contained HALON Extinguisher System, that requires the Flight attendant to active it when the temperature has risen to 500 c or higher.
True____ False

3. After discharging CARGO FIRE EXTG (1), you can expect to wait _______ before the CARGO EXTG light comes on.

4. CARGO EXTG light illumination within __________ of activation indicates a malfunction. Wait _________ and select other EXTG switch to ON. 

5. If the volume of smoke in the lavatory is sufficient, the ____________ light may illuminate.

6. If during an air conditioning smoke event, the smoke is in the cabin only, it is coming from the _______ ACM. 

7. During the CABIN or COCKPIT FIRE/SMOKE/FUMES memory items, how do you establish communications?

8. If necessary to assist in smoke removal, the cockpit escape hatch may be opened to the vent position below________KIAS and the Window exits may be removed below _________KIAS.

9. Consider extending flaps if airspeed will be decreased below ____ kias.

10. If the left and right avionics switches are both turned off, you will lose _________, __________, _________, _________, and _________. 

ANSWERS
1. True
2. False
3. 15 minutes.
4. 5 minutes: 2 minutes
5. AVIONIC SMOKE
6. Left
7. Ensure that both pilots' ACP BOOM/MASK switches are selected to MASK
8. 160:120
9. 160
10. AP/YD, rudder limiter, both EADI's, both EHSI's and the MFD

 QUIZ II

1. Yaw Damper operation is not authorized for __________, ________, or _______.

2. For back course approaches, set the EHSI course arrows to the localizer ____ course heading.

3. If climbing during ice accretion or with residual ice on the airframe, _____ is the only FD mode authorized.

4. Autopilot may be engaged above _______ or _________ whichever is higher.

5. Takeoff with the FD bars displayed is ________.

6. MSP mode selections must be confirmed and __________ must be displayed prior to engaging autopilot. 

7. For coupled ILS approaches the _______mode shall be used. 

8. Any time the autopilot is engaged below _____ AFL the PF shall keep one hand on the yoke.

9. Level off may be accomplished by selecting he ____ mode, which commands the FD/AP to hold the altitude present when the mode is selected. The rate of climb/descent must be less than 1500 fpm when ___ is selected.

10. To prevent deviation from altitude assignments when leveling off using ALTS mode, do not adjust the altitude set knob on the APA until capture is complete indicated by the display of the _____________ on the EADI.

Answers
1. Takeoff,Go-Around,Landing;
2. front
3. IAS
4. 500 FT AFL, Acceleration Altitude
5. Prohibited
6. FD command bars
7. APPR
8. 1500 FT
9. ALT, ALT
10. Advisory speed 

QUIZ III

1. If "TOO LOW GEAR"/"TOO LOW FLAPS" warning is given, the crew is to correct the ____________ or ___________.

2. If the GPWS warnings Terrain/Whoop Whoop Pull Up/ Too Low Terrain are heard in other than clear daylight VMC when the flight crew can immediately and unequivocally confirm safe terrain clearance, the flying pilot will call out _________, disconnect the autopilot, set max power, initiate pitch up to 15 degrees and turn off the flight director.

3. "ESCAPE" during landing. Without delay press the GA button while simulataneously advancing the Power Levers. If the Captain has any doubt that the airplane can safely fly or remain airborne, maximum power lever travel should be used.
True________ False________

4. During all escape maneuvers, always respect _______________.

5. The first step when hearing a TCAS Climb Climb or Descend Descend command is to ___________________.

6. If the _____________ fails, all GPWS warning modes are lost and nuisance alerts and warnings may occur.

7. Which cautions are not inhibited by the T/O INH Function?

8. The flying pilot’s call out for SINK RATE, DON’T SINK and GLIDE SLOPE warnings should be _______________.

9. If windshear is encountered during takeoff and the decision to continue is made, rotate no later than _________ from the end of the runway even though normal VR has not been attained.

10. During an aborted takeoff, after the aircraft is stopped or slowed to normal taxi speed, the FO should select ___________ and CTOT to off.

ANSWERS
1. Configuration, perform G0-around;
2. Escape
3. True
4. The stick shaker
5. Disconnect Autopilot
6. Radio Altimeter
7. PARK BRAKE, GUST LOCK and AUTO COARS
8. Correcting
9. 2000 ft
10. GND OP


QUIZ IV

1. Pulling the fire handle will close the engine’s fuel shut-off and engine bleed valves, open the starter-generator relay, arm the fire extinguisher squibs, silence the firebell and feather the prop.
True_________ False__________

2. The most obvious indicator of negative autocoarsen is _________________________. 

3. Rapid movement of the ENG OIL pressure to _______ or to the ___________ of the gauge may indicate oil pressure transducer failure.

4. If the autocoarsen is on, a compressor stall may trigger the autocoarsen system especially during deceleration from takeoff power to climb power. TRUE__________ FALSE__________ 

5. What light/lights will illuminate after the landing gear is down and locked if the FI STOP override is pulled while airborne? 

6. After an aborted engine start, motor the engine until ITT decreases below ______ or for a minimum of ____________. Do not exceed ________ total starter engaged time limit. 

7. The SINGLE ENGINE PROCEDURE checklist replaces the normal _________, ___________, __________ and ______________checklists.

8. In order to minimize parallax errors during trend monitoring, engine data will always be observed and recorded by the First Officer. Also, the FO must be seated properly and aligned with the Eye Position Indicator. TRUE_________ FALSE___________

Saab Answers
1. False 
2. The lack of aircraft performance.
3. Zero/upper limit 
4. TRUE 
5. Both the FI STOP and FI STOP OPEN lights. 
6. 175degrees/10secs/70secs. 
7. CLIMB, DESCENT, APPROACH and BEFORE LANDING 
8. TRUE  

QUIZ V

1. The maximum pressure for refueling is _______PSI.

2. During the first flight of the day check, the fuel quantity gage should read ________lbs.+/- _____ and the fuel flow indication should be _______lbs/hr +/- ____lbs/hr.

3. True / False During the fuel qty check on the before start checklist, both pilots are required to check that the fuel load is sufficient in accordance with the dispatch release, state amount of fuel on board and check the fuel totalizer reset to zero.

4. The minimum and maximum temperatures celsius for Jet A are ______ and _____.

5. The right side fuel quantity gages are inoperative and the magnetic dipstick indicates that there is 810 lbs of fuel in the tank. In order to bring that tank up to 1300 lbs of fuel, how many gallons should be ordered (rounded up)?

6. In order to assist in defueling 500 lbs from the left side, how should the cockpit switches be set?

7. Illumination of the fuel low level light indicates that the fuel in that tank is _____lbs +/- ______lbs.

8. True / False Takeoff with the fuel low temp light on is permitted.

9. Maximum fuel imbalance is ________lbs.

10. Landing with the XFEED switch on during OEI conditions is acceptable.
True_______ False________

ANSWERS
1. 50 PSI
2. 1000+/- 50, 760 +/- 35
3. True
4. -40 +43
5. 74 gallons based on a fuel density of 6.7 lbs/gal (490/6.7= 73.134).
6. XFEED switch/light on, Conn valve closed and left standby pump switch to OVRD
7. 300 +/- 70
8. False
9. 200 

QUIZ VI

1. If, while wearing an oxygen mask, interphone communication with the flight attendant is desired, connect the oxygen mask microphone plug
into the boom microphone connection and place the boom/mask switch to the ______ position.

2. A faulty PTT can block the system but will automatically stop transmitting after ___ minutes

3. If the ACP NORM/EMER switch is in the EMER position, the associated PTT function is only available ______________.

4. The CVR begins continuous operation when the ____________ and _____________ switches are selected on.

5. To test the CVR, press and hold the CVR test button and observe ___ monitor needle pulses within the green band (A/C 398 and
below). On A/C 400 and above, observe _________________.

6. To improve flight crew communication and reduce fatigue, FAR 121.359 requires the use of headsets with boom
microphones during all operations below ___________ including taxi.

7. An aircraft may be dispatched with an inoperative interphone provided the_____________________ operates normally.

8. During a GROUND EVACUATION, if the P.A. System is inoperative, the Alternate Evacuation Command Signal is
__________________________.

9. If the Code 7500 Page is selected on the ACARS, it will automatically transmit in two minutes unless _________ is selected or
__________ page is displayed.

10. Volume on the Ground Crew Jack Panel is fixed and cannot be changed. TRUE__ FALSE___

ANSWERS
1. boom
2. 2
3. on the Control Yoke
4. L BAT; ESS AVION
5. 4; green test light comes on
6. 18,000' MSL
7. Passenger Address System
8. FASTEN SEAT BELT SIGN…OFF; EMERGENCY LIGHTS….ON; F/A EMGCY CALL BUTTON ...PRESS.
9. DESEL; the INDX .
10. False  

QUIZ VII

1. For shutdown, allow engine to stabilize at GND IDLE, with HP bleed CLOSED, for at least ______ minutes before moving CL to FUEL OFF.

2. If the Oxygen Mask microphone is in use when the ACP NORM/EMER switch is place in EMER, the mask microphone plug
must be connected to the _________ microphone connection.

3. When operating in the manual pressurization mode, there is no automatic dump function at touchdown.
True_______ False_______

4. To complete the Bleed Leak Test, _____________ power is required.

5. High Pressure bleed operation is not authorized for cabin environmental conditioning when OAT is at or between ____ and ______.

6. Maximum altitude when aircraft is dispatched for unpressurized flight is ___________.

7. The HP HIGH light will come on if ______________________________________________.

8. The ground communication hatch can be opened at ______ differential pressure without excessive pilot force.

9. If dispatched with one air conditioning pack inoperative, operations in known or forecast icing conditions is prohibited.
True_______ False________

10. Engine starts with the HP valve open are prohibited.
True______ False _______

ANSWERS
1. Two 
2. BOOM 
3. True 
4. 28V DC 
5. 0C
6. 10000 FT 
7. the HP valve did not close on command
8. 1.5 psi 
9. True 
10. True  

 

QUIZ VIII

1. Yaw Damper operation is not authorized for _____, ________, or _______.

2. For back course approaches, set the EHSI course arrows to the localizer ____ course heading.

3. If climbing during ice accretion or with residual ice on the airframe, _____ is the only FD mode authorized.

4. Autopilot may be engaged above _______ or _________ whichever is higher.

5. Takeoff with the FD bars displayed is ________.

6. MSP mode selections must be confirmed and __________ must be displayed prior to engaging autopilot.

7. For coupled ILS approaches the _______mode shall be used.

8. Any time the autopilot is engaged below _____ AFL the PF shall keep one hand on the yoke.

9. Level off may be accomplished by selecting he ____ mode, which commands the FD/AP to hold the altitude present when the mode is selected. The rate of climb/descent must be less than 1500 fpm when ___ is selected.

10. To prevent deviation from altitude assignments when leveling off using ALTS mode, do not adjust the altitude set knob on the APA until capture is complete indicated by the display

ANSWERS
1. Takeoff, Go-Around, Landing
2. front
3. IAS
4. 500 FT AFL, Acceleration Altitude
5. Prohibited
6. FD command bars
7. APPR
8. 1500 FT
9. ALT, ALT; AOM Vol1
10. Advisory speed  


QUIZ IX

1. If the aircraft has been coldsoaked to below ________ warm up the area where the LG piston goes into the LG housing on all three gears.

2. If dispatched with nosewheel steering inoperative use a _____________ ___________ takeoff and lead power application with the __________ engine by 5 –10 percent torque until reaching 40 – 50 KIAS.

3. When dispatched with the antiskid inop takeoffs must be made with ___________.

4. When dispatched with the gear secured extended, flight into _____________is prohibited.
 
5. What is the maximum permissible contamination depth for landing?
 
6. Hydroplaning on the S340 may begin at approximately _______ knots.

7. With antiskid inop, maximum speed for use of wheel brakes is ______.

8. With a properly functioning antiskid system, wheel brake application is normally inhibited for _______ after touchdown or until reaching ______.

9. Pulling the Emergency Extension Handle will relieve any ____________ lock; ________________on the main
gear door; and _______________________.

10. During an approach with landing gear that will not retract, an additional _________ weight must be used when computing climb limited landing weight performance.

ANSWERS
1. –40C 
2. Method C 
3. Flaps 15 
4. Known or forecast icing conditions
5. None. However consideration should be given to the takeoff limitations as they apply to departure
6. 95 
7. 40 kt.
8. 3 secs: 50kts.  
9. Hydraulic pressure; discharge explosive bolts : release the uplocks via Emergency Accumulator pressure.
10. 4000 pounds


QUIZ X

1. Alternate supply of air to test the deice boots: If single engine procedure does not supply enough bleed air for boot test, ____________.

2. Engine anti-ice system must be activated prior to all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated and remain on for at least __________ after exiting icing conditions.

3. The _____________________ must be operative prior to flight in icing conditions at night.

4. With ice on the wing it is possible to encounter a stall before the artificial stall warning is activated.
True________  False_________

5. The AC generator will drop off the line if PROP RPM is less than ___________ and will automatically reset when RPM is increased above___________.

6. If an AC GEN drops off line, current will be automatically supplied to all heating elements except _______ by the other AC GEN.

7. With an AIR VALVE light on, if the Torque drops by more than ________ and ITT increases by more than ________ the air valve is functioning.

8. The AIR VALVE light will illuminate if the valve didn’t open when the Engine antiice was selected ON or did not close when selected off.
TRUE_______ FALSE______

9. Normally the air stream in the bird catcher will prevent ice from being sucked into the engine compressor.
However, reverse power operation below ________ will cause a reverse flow through the bird-catcher.

10. The standby Pitot light indicates that either _______ power has been lost or ____________________

ANSWERS
1. With two engines running, open both HPs with Ng set to approximately 75%
 2. 5 minutes
3. Wing inspection lights
4. True
5. 1000/1000
6. Engine intake
7. 2%/5 degrees C
8. True
9. 50 KT
10. 24V DC; the switch is off

QUIZ XI

1. During the Captain's cockpit scan, the test of the ADC airspeed indicator is accomplished by pressing the test button on the ASI and noting ____________ and ______________________.

2. Testing the Captain's altimeter is accomplished by pressing the test button--noting the warning

3. The VSI indicators are tested via the________________.

4. The Off Flag will appear on the Altitude Preselector/Alerter Panel if power is lost or _______________________.

5. Visual indications of an ADC failure include the appropriate flags on each indicator and the left altimeter pointer driven to the nearest _________, the ASI pointer driven to _________, the IVSI pointer indicating ___________________ and the SAT and TAS indications replace by ____________________.

6. A Comparator Caution is generated when the system compares LEFT and Right side data with the ________________ to determine the faulty side.

7. With an AHRS failure, the ________________ cannot be use due to loss of pitch and roll comparator

8. The EFIS __________________ is inhibited with the autopilot engaged.

9. Classic AHRS failure is indicated by loss of blue sky and brown  earth accompanied by red ATT and HDG flags. EADI and/or EHSI may also "freeze" indicating failure and should not be used for reference. 

TRUE_______ FALSE_________

10. The limitations section prohibits takeoff if the heading on the EHSI is slewing away from the aircraft's heading. How can you tell if the heading is slewing to or away from the aircraft's heading?

ANSWERS
1. The warning flag; both pointers move to 170 knots and then to zero.
2. The sweep pointer goes to the nine o'clock position
3. The TCAS test
4. The captain altimeter fails
5. 250'; zero; 6000FPM descent; red dashes.
6. STANDBY instruments
7. Autopilot
8. HDG slave
9. TRUE
10. During initialization, the EHSI compass cards rotate clockwise from north to the aircraft heading



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