How do the consequences of Olympic athletes, that have used steroids, differ in first-world countries when compared to third-world countries? Throughout the Olympic games, various athletes have tried to gain advantages. Many of these athletes are considered some of the best in the world in their events however their attempts to cheat by using steroids have always been prevalent. The first case of doping in the Olympics was during the 1936 Olympics when German athletes used steroids for horses to better their performance. Though out the games Germany won almost all of the medals and were finally caught when officials became suspicious of all of their winnings and their medals were taken. However, athletes still continue to dope with their punishments becoming worse and worse. This can recently be seen with the Russian Olympic team who had more than half of their athletes doping. Their punishment however was not as bad as most athletes due to their appeal to the Olympic committee and being pardoned for some of their actions. The issue with this consequence was that other smaller nations have had athletes that have been banned from the Olympics for the same reason and their appeals have been denied. This has caused these smaller countries to question the legitimacy of the Olympics and if these larger nations receive less punishment due to their world status. This has brought me to my final question of if athletes from smaller countries receive more punishment for doping in the Olympics when compared to athletes from larger nations.
Flip video about my project:https://flip.com/s/HLTLhYTeFreT