Embedded Files
RAJBHASHA
RAJBHASHA
CONSTITUTIONAL PROVISIONS OF OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
1. What is the Official Language of Union of India?
Hindi in Devanagari Script
2. Which form of numerals are to be used for official purposes of the Union?
International form of Indian numerals
3. Which part of the Constitution contains provisions regarding Official Language?
Part XVII
4. On which date Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament?
14.09.1949
5. How many chapters are there in Part XVII of the Constitution?
4 Chapters
6. How many articles are there in the Part XVII of the Constitution?
9 Articles
7. What are all the nine Articles covered under Part XVII of the Constitution?
Article 343 to 351
8. In which part and in which article of the constitution provision regarding the language to be used for Transaction of business in Parliament exists?
Article 120 of Part V
9. In which part and in which article of the constitution provision regarding the language to be used for transaction of business in State Legislatures exists?
Article 210 of Part VI
10. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the language to be used in courts etc.?
Article 348 & 349
11. Which article of the constitution contain provision regarding the official language of Union of India?
15. In which part of the constitution are the articles 343-351, that gives information about Official Language available?
Part XVII (In the Seventeenth Part)
16. At present how many languages are enlisted in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution?
Twenty-two
17. When the Constitution was adopted, how many languages were included in the Eighth Schedule initially?
Fourteen
18. In which year Maithili, Bodo, Dogri and Santhali were added to the Eighth Schedule later?
2003
19. In which year Sindhi was added to the Eighth Schedule?
1967
20. In which year Nepali, Konkani & Manipuri were added to the 8th Schedule?
1992
21. Which one is the foreign language included in the 8th Schedule?
Nepali
22. Which is the Official Language of Arunachal Pradesh?
English
23. When was Official Language Act 1963 passed?
10.05.1963
24. when did the section 3(3) of the Official Language Act take effect?
26 January 1965
25. When was the official Language Act, 1963 was amended?
1967
26. How many sections are there in the Official Language Act 1963, as amended in the year 1967?
9 Sections
27. Name the sections of Official Languages Act 1963(as amended in 1967) which are not applicable to Jammu & Kashmir?
Section 6 & 7
28. With which section 7 of Official Language Act,1963 is concerned?
It is concerned with optional use of Hindi or other Official Language in Judgements in High Courts.
29. Why was the Official Languages Act 1963 passed?
For making provision regarding continued use of English along with Hindi even after 1965
30. When was Resolution on Official Language passed by Parliament?
18.01.1968
31. When was Official Languages Rules passed?
1976
32. When was Official Languages Rules amended?
1987
33. Into how many Regions Indian states have been classified, according to Official Languages Rules?
Three Regions
34. What are all the 3 Regions as classified under Official Languages Rules?
A, B & C Region
35. How many States and Union Territories are there in Region ‘A’?
9 States & 1 NCT Delhi, 1 Union Territory.
36. How many States and Union Territories are there in Region ‘B’?
States & 2 Union Territory
37. When is “Hindi Day” celebrated every year?
14th September
38. Which are the states that come under Region ‘A’?
States: (i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Uttaranchal (iii) Bihar (iv)Jharkhand (v) Haryana
(vi)Himachal Pradesh (vii)Madhya Pradesh (viii)Chhattisgarh
(ix) Rajasthan
Union Territory: (i) Andaman & Nicobar Island group
NCT:(i) Delhi
39. Which are the states that come under Region 'B'?
States:
(i) Maharashtra (ii) Gujarat (iii) Punjab Union Territory: (i) Chandigarh (ii) Daman and Diu and
(iii) Dadar and Nagar Haveli
40. Which are the states that come under Region ‘C’?
States: (i) Karnataka (ii) Tamilnadu (iii) Kerala (iv) Andhra Pradesh (v)Telangana (vi) Odisha (vii)West Bengal (viii)Goa (ix)Jammu and Kashmir (x) Assam (xi) Nagaland (xii) Meghalaya (xiii) Arunachal Pradesh (xiv) Sikkim (xv) Tripura (xvi)Mizoram (xvii) Manipur
Union Territory: (i) Puducherry (ii) Lakshadweep
41. Who is responsible for the compliance of provisions of Official Languages Act and rules?
Administrative Head of each Central Government Office
42. Which Ministry takes important decisions pertaining to Official Language?
Ministry of Home Affairs
43. According to Official Languages Rules, Tamilnadu falls under which region?
Region 'C'
44. According to Official Languages Rules, Andaman & Nicobar Islands fall under which region?
Region ‘A’
45. Which are the Union Territories classified under Region "B”?
Chandigarh, Daman & Diu, Dadar and Nagar Haveli
46. States in which Urdu has been declared as one of the Official Language?
Telangana, Bihar, Jharkhand, Uttar Pradesh and Delhi.
47. Who was the Charmian of the First Official Language Commission?
Shri Bal Gangadhar Kher
48. Who was the First Chairman of the Committee Which was formed on the recommendation of the Official Language Commission?
Shri Govind Ballabh Pant
49. Who was the First Chairman of the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted in the year 1976?
The then Home Minister Shri Om Mehta
50. Who chaired the First Railway Hindi Salahakaar Samiti constituted in 1973?
Shri Lalit Narayan Mishra
51. As per the Constitution, who is translating the Statutory Rules, Regulations and Orders?
Law Ministry
52. Which was the Main Language and Co-Official Language used for the Official Purpose of the Union of India up to 1965?
English was the Main Language and Hindi was the Co-Official Language.
53. Which Committee of the Committee on Parliament on Official Language prepared the Draft?
Drafting & Evidence Sub-Committee of the Committee of Parliament on Official Language.
40. In which year the post of Hindi Assistant was created in Railway Board in compliance of President's order?
In the General Branch of Railway Board in the year 1952.
41. In which year, Hindi (Parliament) Section was established in Railway Board?
In the year 1960.
42. In which year, the Hindi Translation of Railway Budget was prepared and who was the Railway Minister?
In the year 1956, Late Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri.
COMMITTEES ON OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
COMMITTEES ON OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
1. Who is the Chairman of Central Hindi Samiti (Committee)?
Prime Minister
2. The Central Hindi Samiti (Committee) comes under which Ministry?
The Ministry of Home Affairs
3. After Independence, initially which Ministry was entrusted the duty of training Central Government Staff in Hindi?
Education Ministry.
4. Which committee review the progress made in the propagation of Hindi in a particular Ministry/Department?
Hindi Salahakaar Samiti
Rajbhasha Organization/Hubballi Division
5. When was the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language constituted?
January 1975
6. How many members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
30 Members
7. How many Lok Sabha members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
20 Members
8. How many Rajya Sabha members are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
10 Members
9. At present, how many Sub-Committees are there in the Parliamentary Committee on Official Language?
3 Sub-Committees
10. Which Sub-Committee of Parliamentary Committee on Official Language, inspects the offices of Railway Ministry?
2nd Sub-Committee
11. What is the expansion for OLIC used by Dept. of Official Language?
Official Language Implementation Committee
12. What is the main duty of Official Language Implementation Committee?
To review the progressive use of Hindi
13. Who is the Chairman of the Divisional Official Language Implementation Committee?
Divisional Railway Manager (DRM)
14. Who is the Chairman of the Zonal Official Language Implementation Committee?
General Manager/SWR/UBL
15. Who is made as the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee Constituted? in major cities?
Senior most Central Govt. Officer of the City
16. Who is the Chairman of the Town Official Language Implementation Committee functioning in Hubballi City?
General Manager of South Western Railway
17. What is the periodicity of the meetings Official Language Implementation Committee?
Once in 3 months
18. What is the periodicity of the meetings of Town Official Language Implementation Committee?
Once in 6 months
19. What is the periodicity of the meetings Hindi Salahkar Samiti?
Twice in a year.
20. Who prepares Annual Programme on Official Language?
Ministry of Home Affairs
21. What is the periodicity for the reconstitution of Official Language Implementation Committees constituted at Stations/Offices?
Once in Three years
22. What is the honorarium given to the OLIC part-time Clerk for looking after the work relating to Official Language Implementation Committees constituted at Stations/Offices?
Rs.300/-per month
23. How much amount can be spent for the supply of coffee, biscuits to the members present in the Official Language Implementation Committees meetings conducted at Stations/Offices?
Rs.30/- per member
24. Who is responsible for the violation of Section 3(3) of Official Language Rules, 1963?
The Officer signing such Documents.
25. The Question Papers of departmental examination must be provided in which languages?
Hindi and English, bilingual form.
26. The Annual Programme on Official Language is prepared by whom?
The Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Official Language.
27. Why are the Central Government staff given Hindi Training?
In order to facilitate them to do their Official Work in Hindi.
28. Who are eligible for training in Hindi Workshop?
All staff and Officers who possess working knowledge/proficiency in Hindi.
HINDI TRAINING
HINDI TRAINING
1. How many Hindi courses are prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Four
2. What are all the four Hindi courses, prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Prabodh, Praveen, Pragya and Parangat
3. Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Prabodh
4. Which is the final Hindi course prescribed for Central Govt. employees?
Pragya
5. What are all the training facilities available to a Central Govt. Employee to get trained in these Hindi courses?
Regular, Intensive, Correspondence & Private
6. What is the duration of each Hindi course? (Except Intensive Training)
Six months
7. How many times Hindi examinations (except Intensive Training) are conducted in a year?
Two Times.
8. What are all the months in which Hindi examinations are usually conducted?
May & November
9. How long is the Prabodh course conducted under Intensive Training?
25 Working Days
10. How long is the Praveen course conducted under Intensive Training?
20 Working Days
11. How long is the Pragya course conducted under Intensive Training?
15 Working Days 12. Who are eligible to be trained in the above Hindi courses?
All the Central Govt. employees in Group 'C' & above Service
13. What is the minimum qualification required to be eligible to attend Hindi Typewriting examination?
A pass in Praveen Course of Hindi Teaching Scheme, or its equivalent standard
14. Who conducts the Hindi examinations for Central Govt. employees?
Hindi Teaching Scheme under Department of Official Language
15. In accordance with the Hindi Teaching Scheme, into how many categories the Central Govt. employees have been classified? What are they?
Four. They are A, B, C & D
16. Who are all the employees classified under Category "A”?
Whose mother tongue is Hindi or Hindustani or its dialect.
17. Who are all the employees classified under Category "B”?
Whose mother tongue is Urdu, Punjabi, Kashmiri, Pushto, Sindhi or other allied language.
18. Who are all the employees classified under Category "C"?
Whose mother tongue is Marathi, Guajarati, Bengali, Oriya, or Assamese
19. Who are all the employees classified under Category "D"?
Whose Mother Tongue is South Indian Language or English.
20. Name the Category of employee for whom Hindi training is not required?
Category "A" 21. In which course a Category "B" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be trained?
Pragya course
22. From which course a Category "C" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be trained?
Praveen course
23. From which course a Category "D" employee, defined under Hindi Teaching Scheme required to be trained?
Prabodh course
INCENTIVES GIVEN FOR PASSING HINDI EXAMINATIONS
INCENTIVES GIVEN FOR PASSING HINDI EXAMINATIONS
1. What are all the incentives given for passing Hindi Examinations?
Cash Award, Lumsum Award & Personal Pay
2. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Examinations?
On obtaining 55% or above marks in written examination
3. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Typewriting
Examination?
On obtaining 90% or above marks
4. When will an employee become eligible for Cash Award for passing Hindi Stenography
Examination?
On obtaining 88% or above marks
5. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 55% or more but less than 60% of marks?
Rs.400
6. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 60% or more but less than 70% of
marks?
Rs.800
7. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Prabodh with 70% or more marks?
Rs.1600
8. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 55% or more but less than 60% of marks?
Rs.800 9. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 60% or more but less than 70% of
marks?
Rs.1200
10. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Praveen with 70% or more marks?
Rs.1800
11. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 55% or more but less than 60% of
marks?
Rs.800
12. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 60% or more but less than 70% of marks?
Rs.1600
13. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Pragya with 70% or more marks?
Rs.2400
14. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 90% or more but less than 95% of marks?
Rs.800
15. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 95% or more but less than 97% of marks?
Rs.1600
16. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Typing with 97% or more marks?
Rs.2400
17. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 88% or more but less than 92% of marks?
Rs.800
18. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 92% or more but less than 95% of marks?
Rs.1600
19. What is the amount of Cash Award for Passing Hindi Stenography with 95% or more marks?
Rs.2400
20. Who are all eligible for Lumpsum Award?
Operational & Open line staff who pass Hindi examination through private efforts
21. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Prabodh course?
Rs.1600
22. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Praveen course?
Rs.1500
23. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Pragya course?
Rs.2400
24. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Hindi Typewriting exam?
Rs.1600
25. What is the amount of Lumpsum Award for passing Hindi Stenography Exam?
Rs.3000
26. Who are all eligible for Personal Pay?
Employees who pass the Hindi course prescribed for their Designation
27. What is the minimum percentage of mark to be obtained by an employee to become eligible for Personal Pay, for whom the prescribed course is Prabodh or Praveen?
55% marks in written examination
28. What is the minimum percentage of mark to be obtained by a Gazetted Officer, in Pragya course to become eligible for Personal Pay?
60% marks in written examination
29. What is the amount of Personal Pay given for passing prescribed Hindi course?
Personal Pay equivalent to one increment for a period of 12 months
30. What is the Personal Pay given for passing Hindi Stenography, to a Stenographer whose mother tongue is not Hindi?
Personal Pay equivalent to two increments for a period of 12 months
31. Why training in Hindi is imparted to Central Government Officers/Employees?
By which they can do their day-to-day official work in Hindi
32. Is there any special training facility available to make the Hindi knowing officer/staff to do their dayto-day work in Hindi?
This is being imparted in the Hindi Workshops
33. Who are eligible to undergo training in Hindi Workshops?
All Class III & Gazetted staff who has working knowledge/proficiency in Hindi.
AWARDS GIVEN FOR DOING OFFICIAL WORK IN HINDI
AWARDS GIVEN FOR DOING OFFICIAL WORK IN HINDI
1. What is the name of the scheme introduced by Railway Board for doing official work in Hindi?
Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme
2. How many employees/officers are awarded under Railway Board's Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme from South Western Railway every year?
Five 3. What is the amount of prize money given under Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.1500
4. How many prizes are given under Collective Cash Award Scheme for doing official work in Hindi?
Three
5. To whom Collective Cash Award is given?
The department, which do progressive use of Hindi in the Official work
6. What is the amount of First prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.9000 (6xRs.1500)
7. What is the amount of Second prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.6000 (5xRs.1200)
8. What is the amount of Third prize, given under Collective Cash Award Scheme?
Rs.4000 (5xRs.800)
9. How many First prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year?
Two
10. How many Second prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year?
Three
11. How many Third prizes are given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi, in a year?
Five
12. What is the amount of prize money for First prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi in a year?
Rs.5000
13. What is the amount of prize money for Second prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi in a year?
Rs.3000
14. What is the amount of prize money for Third prize, given for writing more than 10,000 words in Hindi in a year?
Rs.2000
15. What is the additional weightage given to a Non-Hindi speaking employee for assessing awards under 10,000 words Award Scheme?
Weightage up to 20%
16. In which region of the Non-Hindi speaking participants be given ‘Grace Marks' for participating in Hindi Essay/Elocution/Noting & Drafting competitions.?
'C' Region
17. What is the percentage of Grace Marks given to a Non-Hindi speaking employee who is participating in Hindi Essay, Elocution and Noting & Drafting Competitions?
10% of the Total Marks obtained.
18. What is percentage of questions relating to Official Language policy and Rules should be asked in departmental examinations?
10% marks out of the total prescribed marks.
19. Is it mandatory to answer the questions relating to Official Language policy (Hindi) In Departmental Examinations?
No./It is Optional.
20. Is it mandatory to prepare Departmental Examination Question Papers in Hindi along with English?
Yes.
21. Are candidates allowed to opt Hindi Medium in oral test or viva-voce conducted for departmental
selection.
Yes.
22. What is the quantum of Hindi Typing work to be done by a Typist/Steno to become eligible for Hindi Incentive Allowance?
5 notes in Hindi in a day or 300 notes in Hindi in a quarter
23. What is the amount of Incentive Allowance given to a Stenographer?
Rs.240/- per month
24. What is the amount of Incentive Allowance given to a Typist?
Rs.160 per month
25. What is the name of the award given for writing original books in Hindi on technical Railway Subjects?
Lal Bahadur Shastri Technical Puraskar
26. What is the name of the award given for writing Hindi poetry books?
Mythili Sharan Gupta Puraskar
27. What is the name of the award given for writing Hindi Novel & Story books?
Premchand Puraskar
Cash Awards for above Questions 25, 26 & 27 Prizes:
Ist
Prize: 15,000/
IInd
Prize: 7000/
IIIrd
Prize: 3300/
28. Which Award is given to a Zonal Railway/Productions Unit situated in Region ‘A’ ‘B'& 'C' for best record in a year for Propagation and use of Hindi?
Railway Minister's Rajbhasha Shield & Trophy respectively for 1st and 2nd place.
29. Which award is given to a Adarsh Division situated in Region ‘A’ & 'B' for best record in a year for Propagation and use of Hindi?
Acharya Mahaveer Prasad Running Shield.
30. Which award is given to a Adarsh Division situated in Region 'C' for best record in a year for Propagation and use of Hindi?
Acharya Raghuveer Running shield.
31. What award is given to a Adarsh Station/Workshop situated in Region 'C' for best record in a year for Propagation and use of Hindi?
Rail Mantri Rajbhasha Shield+Rs.7000/
IMPLEMENTATION OF OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
1.What is the target fixed for letters in Hindi sent from 'C' region to ‘A’ ‘B' and 'C' region?
55%
2.What is the target fixed in Annual Programme for writing noting in Hindi?
30%
3. What is the Target fixed in Annual Programme for letters received in Hind to be answered in Hindi?
100%
4.What is the significance of Section 3(3) of O.L. Act?
The documents that are to be issued in bilingual form are mentioned in the Section 3(3) of OL Act.
5.What is the target fixed for documents coming under Section 3(3) of O.L. Act?
100%
6.Who is responsible to ensure that the documents coming under Section 3(3) are issued in bilingual form?
The Authority signing on such documents.
7.In which form the General Orders (Office Orders, Allotment orders, Memorandum, Circular etc.) are to be issued?
In Hindi & English bilingual form
8.In which form the letter received in Hindi should be replied to?
In Hindi only
9.In which form Application/Appeal/Representative made or signed in Hindi should be replied to?
In Hindi only
10. In which form Office/Station Name boards, sign boards, Designation Boards and Forms used by public are to be prepared?
Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)
11. In which order of languages the Name boards, sign boards, and Designation boards should be exhibited?
Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)
12. In which order forms used by Public are to be prepared?
Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)
13. In which order of languages the Station Announcements are to be made?
Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)
14. In which language Roof Boards of Coaches are to be exhibited?
Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)
15. In which proportion the Roof Boards are to be displayed?
Equal proportion of all the languages.
16. In which form Panel Boards of Train are to be exhibited?
Trilingual Form (Regional Language, Hindi & English)
17. In which form Name Badges are to be prepared?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
18. In which form subject on the Files/Registers are to be written?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
19. In which form Rubber Stamps are to be prepared?
Hindi & English – Bilingual Form
20. In which form Standard Forms (which are not used by public) are to be printed?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form 13
21. In which form Manuals, Codes and other literatures on Procedures are to be printed?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
22. In which form Letter Heads and Visiting Cards are to be printed?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
23. In which form Train Time-Tables are to be printed?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
24. In which form Invitations are to be issued?
Regional language, Hindi & English – Trilingual Form
25. In which form Telephone Directories are to be prepared?
Hindi & English – Diglot Form
26. In which order inscription on Govt. Vehicles, Walls & Furniture are to be written?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
27. In which order Name and Designation Boards kept on conference tables are to be exhibited?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
28. In which order Minutes and Agenda-Notes are to be prepared?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
29. According to Annual Programme, in which order Advertisement (Tender Notice etc.) of Central Offices are to be published in News Papers?
Hindi & English - Bilingual Form
30. In which order Reservation Charts of Trains are to be prepared and displayed?
Hindi & English – Bilingual Form
31. According to Official Language policy, what is to be ensured while purchasing Computer System?
Facility to do Hindi & English Data Entry
32. When ‘World Hindi Day' is observed?
On 10 January
33. When was first time ‘World Hindi Day’ is observed?
10 January, 2006
34. Why “Hindi Day/Divas” is celebrated every year?
To create awareness of Official Language
35. Why Hindi Libraries are opened in various Offices and /Stations?
To propagate Hindi through books and Magazines.
36. What is the amount of honorarium given to Part Time OLIC Part Time clerk?
Rs.300 per month.
DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ON OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS ON OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
1. What are the sources of information regarding the Government of India's Official Language Policy?
The Government of India accepted Hindi in Devanagari Script as the Official Language of the Union of India and made necessary provision for the same in the constitution. The provisions made in Part XVII of the Constitution which contains Articles 343 to 351. The provisions made in Article 120 of Part V and Article 210 of Part VI of the Constitution. The provisions made in the Official Languages Act 1963 as amended in 1967. The provisions made in the Resolution No. F/5/8/65-OL dt. 18.1.68 as adopted by both the Houses of Parliament. The provisions made in the Official Languages (use for official purposes of the Union) Rule 1976. The instructions contain in circulars issued from time to time by the Official Language department of Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Railways.
2. Give complete list of Languages included in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution? Also point out significance of this Schedule?
At present following 22 Languages are included in the Schedule VIII (Article 344(1) and 351) of Constitution.
Assamese
Bengali
Bodo (Ninety Two Amendment) Act, 2004)
Dogri(Ninety Two Amendment) Act, 2004)
Gujarati
Hindi
Kannada
Kashmiri
Konkani(Seventy-first Amendment) Act, 1992)
Malayalam
Manipuri (Seventy-first Amendment) Act, 1992)
Marathi
Maithili(Ninety Two Amendment) Act, 2004)
Nepali(Seventy-first Amendment) Act, 1992)
Oriya
Punjabi
Sanskrit
Santhali(Ninety Two Amendment) Act, 2004)
Sindhi(Twenty-first Amendment) Act, 1967)
Tamil
Telugu
Urdu
Initially 14 major Languages are included in Eighth Schedule. Later in 1967 Sindhi and in 1992 Nepali, Konkani and Manipuri and in 2003 Maithili, Bodo, Dogri and Santhali were added to the list.
Eighth Schedule of the constitution specifies 22 major languages of India besides Hindi and it is necessary in the interest of the education and cultural advance of the country that concerted measures should be taken for the full development of these languages.
3. Explain the circumstances in detail that led to the introduction of Official Languages Act, 1963?
The Official Language Commission had inter-alia recommended that provision should be made to allow the use of the English language for the official purposes of the Union beyond 26th January 1965. The Parliamentary Committee also endorsed this recommendation of the Language Commission. The important points in this regard included in the report of the committee are as follows: - i) English should be the principal Official Language and Hindi the subsidiary Official
Language till 1965, when Hindi becomes the principal Official Language of the Union, English should continue as the subsidiary Official Language.
ii) No restriction should be imposed for the present on the use of English for any of the
purposes of the Union and provision should be made in terms of clause (3) of Article 343 for continued use of the English even after 1965 for purposes to be specified by
Parliament bylaw for as long as may be necessary. Hence, in accordance with the provisions made in Article 343(3) of the Constitution, Parliament enacted the Official Languages Act-1963 for continued use of English.
4. What are the main points of the “Official Language Act, 1963” as amended 1967?
The aforesaid Act was passed by the parliament as per article 343(3) of Part XVII of our constitution. There are 9 Sections and 11 Sub-Sections. The important points of the Act are as follows:
1. This Act gives permission for continuous use of Hindi for the official language of the
Union and for the proceedings of the parliament. 2. This Act fixes the use of Hindi and English for the correspondence between the Union
and states and also amongst the states. 3. This Act under the section 3(3) has made the following documents issued or made by the
Central Government or by a Ministry, Department or Office thereof or by a corporation or company owned or controlled by the Central Government or by any office of such corporation or company, shall be both in Hindi and English.
1) General Orders, Circulars, Office Orders, etc. 2) Notifications 3) Press Communiques/Releases 4) Contracts 5) Agreements 6) Licenses 7) Permits 8) Tender Form and Tender Notices. 9) Resolutions 10) Rules 11) Official Papers laid before a House or both the Houses of Parliament. 12) Administrative and other Reports laid before a House or both the Houses of
Parliament. 13) Other than those laid before a House or both the Houses of Parliament.
It shall be the responsibility of the person signing such documents to ensure that such documents are made, executed or issued both in Hindi and English.
5. Describe about “General Orders” mentioned in documents coming under Section 3(3) Of the
Official Language Act, 1963? All orders, decisions, instructions and circulars intended for departmental use and which are of standing nature and all such orders, instructions, letters, memoranda, notices, circulars etc., relating to or intended for a group or groups of Government employees are known as “General Orders” under Section 3(3) of Official Language.
6. What do you understand by Article 343 of our constitution?
(i) According to Article 343(1) out constitution the official language of the Union shall be Hindi
in Devanagari script. The form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union
shall be the international form of Indian numerals. (ii) Article 343(2) states that for a period of 15 years from the commencement of this
constitution, the English language shall continue to be used for all the official purposes of the
Union for which it was being used immediately before such commencement. (iii) Article 343(3) says that the president may during the said period, by order authorize the use
of the Hindi language in addition to the English language and of the Devanagari form of numerals in addition to the international form of Indian numerals for any of the official purposes of the Union.
7. Who is responsible for the compliance of Official Language Act, Rules, Orders and Instructions?
As per Rule 12 of Official Language Rules 1976, it is the responsibility of the Administrative Head of the Office to ensure that the Official Language Act, Rules are followed properly and also ensure implementation of effective check points to ensure the compliance.
Also the official signing the documents falling under Section 3(3) of Official Language Act, 1963 is responsible to ensure that it is in Bilingual form.
8. What do you understand by the Rule 8(4) of Official Language Rules, 1976?
Certain works done in all the Central Government Offices have been specified under the Rule 8(4) of Official Language Rules, 1976. These works are to be done by the staff having working knowledge of Hindi and those who are proficient in Hindi. These works include notings on files, drafting, originating correspondence in Hindi, daily routine work done in registers and files.
9. What do you understand by the rule 10(4) of Official Language Rules, 1976?
As per this Rule Central Government Offices, wherein 80% of the employees are having working knowledge of Hindi are to be notified. Such Offices will be notified in the Gazette by the Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs. It is remarkable that almost all Central Government offices, Nationalized Banks of the Offices situated in the ‘A’ and 'B' have been notified under Rule 10(4) of Official Language Rules, 1976.
10. What are the dimensions of Official Language Policy?
The Official Language Policy of the Union upholds the Bilingualization, in the same sense that there is provision for both Hindi and English for the official purposes of the Union. The Government of India has been putting efforts for enhancing use of Hindi. Also the official work should be executed smoothly and efficiently. The employees, who are not proficient in Hindi they should be trained under various Training Programmes. The Government of India has adopted the policy of giving incentives to such staff. The following are the salient features of the same:
1. Provisions regarding Official Language in the Constitution. 2. Official Language Act, 1963, as amended 1967. 3. Official Language Resolution, 1968 4. Official Language Rules, 1976 as amended 1987 5. The orders, instructions issued by the department of Official Language from time to time. 6. The Provisions regarding Official Language have been made in the Part XVII from
Article 343 to 351 i.e. under 9 Articles.
11. What do you know the article 351 of our Constitution?
Instructions for the development of Hindi have been given in the article 351. The Union has given the following instructions:
“It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi Language, to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India and to secure its enrichment by assimilating without interfering with its genius, the forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and in the other languages of India specified in the Eighth Schedule, and by drawing, wherever necessary or desirable, for its vocabulary, primarily on Sanskrit and secondarily on other languages. ”
The makers of Constitution opined that Hindi Language should be developed in such manner that it is acceptable to all the people of all the states shall adopt Hindi for Official purposes.
12. Explain the Check Points prescribed for the effective implementation of Hindi as Official Language?
As per the Rules 12(1) and (2) of Official Language Rules, 1976, responsibility to ensure the compliance of Constitutional provisions, Official Language Act, Official Language Rules lies on the Administrative Head of each Central Government Offices. Hence it is necessary that he implements certain Check Points in order to ensure effective implementation of Official Language policies as follows:
1. The Official signing the documents: The Officials signing the documents should ensure
before singing that the document is issued in compliance of Official Language policy. 2. Desk Officer/Section Officer/In charge: He shall ensure that the Hindi version of the
document is prepared and they also issued simultaneously. 3. Despatch Section: The Despatch Section before dispatching should ensure that the
documents falling under Section 3(3) are in Hindi and English, bilingual form. It should also be ensured that the prescribed no. of letters going to Hindi Speaking Region are sent
to in Hindi, or else the signing authority should be informed about that. 4. Government Press: The printing and Stationery Manager of the Govt. Press shall ensure
that the Codes, Manuals, Forms etc. are printed in Hindi and English, bilingual form. 5. Stores Department and Finance/Accounts Department: The stores and finance/accounts
department shall also act as Check Points and ensure the bilingual availability of Computers.
13. What do you understand by Official Language Resolution, 1968?
Soon after the amendment of Official Language Act, 1963, both Houses of Parliament passed a Resolution in December, 1967, which was notified on 18th January, 1968. This was called Official Language Resolution, 1968. This projects the entire picture of Official Language Policy. It was in this resolution that the first time in the parliament the executive/Government was instructed to prepare an intensive and comprehensive Programme for propagation of Hindi for Official purposes and also implement the same. Also a detailed annual assessment report in this regard may be tabled in both the houses of Parliament. Since then every year the Ministry of Home Affairs, Department of Official Language is preparing Annual Programme for improving the use of Hindi in Government Offices, the assessment report on implementation will be tabled in both Houses of Parliament. The targets for quantum of work to be done in Hindi are decided in the Annual Programme.
The Trilingual formula prepared by the Government of India in consent with the states needs to be in implemented effectively. In the Hindi speaking states apart from Hindi and English, a South Indian Language may be given priority.
14. Write a Short Note on the Committee of Parliament on Official Languages constituted under
section 4 of Official Languages Act 1963(as amended in 1967)?
The Committee of Parliament shall consist of 30 members, of whom 20 shall be members of the House of the People and 10 shall be members of the Council of States, to be elected respectively by the Members of the House of the People and the members of the Council of States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
It shall be the duty of the Committee to review the progress made in the use of Hindi for the official purpose of the Union and submit a report to the President making recommendations thereon and the President shall cause the report to be laid before each House of Parliament, and sent to all the State Governments.
At present there are 3 sub-committees for this Parliament Committee. The Second Subcommittee inspects and review the progress of Hindi in Ministry of Railways and its allied offices.
15. Name the States and Union Territories grouped under Regions A, B & C as per the provisions
made in the Official Languages Rules, 1976(as amended in 1987)?
The Indian States and Union Territories have been classified into three Regions. They are A, B, & C. Region ‘A’: States: (i) Uttar Pradesh (ii) Uttaranchal (iii) Bihar (iv)Jharkhand (v) Haryana
(vi)Himachal Pradesh (vii)Madhya Pradesh (viii)Chhattisgarh (ix) Rajasthan
Union Territory:
(i) Andaman & Nicobar Island group
NCT:
(i) Delhi
Region ‘B':
States of Gujarat, Maharashtra and Punjab and the Union Territory of Chandigarh, Daman & Diu and Dadar and Nagar Haveli.
Region ‘C': States and Union Territories other than those referred to in Region 'A' & 'B'.
(States: (i) Karnataka (ii) Tamilnadu (iii) Kerala (iv) Andhra Pradesh (v)
Telangana (vi) Odisha (vii)West Bengal (viii)Goa (ix)Jammu and Kashmir (x) Assam (xi) Nagaland (xii) Meghalaya (xiii) Arunachal Pradesh (xiv) Sikkim (xv) Tripura (xvi)Mizoram (xvii) Manipur
Union Territory: (i) Puducherry (ii) Lakshadweep)
16. In terms of the Official Language Rules who are all the employees who can be classified as
having proficiency in Hindi? Proficiency in Hindi: -
An employee shall be deemed to posse's proficiency in Hindi if: - (i) he has passed the Matriculation or any equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as
the medium of examination; (or) he has taken Hindi as an elective subject in the degree examination or any other
examination equivalent to or higher than the degree examination; (or) (iii) he declares himself to possess proficiency in Hindi in the prescribed format.
17. In terms of the Official Language Rules who are all the employees who can be classified as
having Working knowledge in Hindi?
Working knowledge in Hindi: -
An employee shall be deemed to have acquired a working knowledge of Hindi(a) if he has passed: -
(i)
the Matriculation or an equivalent or higher examination with Hindi as one of the subjects (or) the Pragya examination conducted under the Hindi Teaching Scheme of the Central Government or when so specified by the Government in respect of any particular category of posts, any a lower examination under that scheme; (or) any other examination specified in that behalf by the Central Government; or
(iii)
(b) if he declares himself to have acquired such knowledge in the prescribed format.
18. Give details of various Committees formed to ensure proper implementation of the provisions
of Official Language Policy?
There are many committees constituted to inspect and assess the position regarding compliance of Official Language Policy. They are:
i) Central Hindi Committee ii) Hindi Salahkar Samiti iii) Central Official Language Implementation Committee iv) Official Language Implementation Committee (constituted at Rly. Bd level, Zonal Level,
Divisional Level and at various Stations and Offices) V) Town Official Language Implementation Committee vi) Committee of Parliament on Official Language
19. Write a Short note on Hindi Day/Hindi Week.
It was decided to make Hindi the Official Language on 14 September, 1949. Hence every year 14 September is celebrated as Hindi Day. With a view to create a conducive environment for Hindi implementation amongst the officers and staff, various programmes are organized during Hindi Week/Fortnight etc. Organization of various competitions, technical seminar in Hindi, cultural programmes, Hindi Exhibition etc. form part of the Programme. The winners of the various competitions held and the officers and staff doing their official language in Hindi are generally warded during the concluding function. Scholars in Hindi are generally invited for the function, their meaningful and inspirational speech play their own role creating a favorable atmosphere for Hindi.
20. Write a Short note on ‘World Hindi Day'.
The first World Hindi Conference was held on January 10, 1975. In order to commemorate this special day, World Hindi Day has been celebrated every year on January 10. On this day Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) through its missions/posts abroad and the Department of Official Language (Rajbhasha) conducted special events to spread the greatness of the Hindi language, a language spoken by more than 250 million people in the World. It is in addition to the National Hindi Divas that is being celebrated annually on 14 September. While the focus of the World Hindi Day is the promotion of the at the global stage, the National Hindi Divas is held across the country.
orvento te importe
or as a means in a
21. Write a short note on Central Hindi Committee.
Central Hindi Committee: -
Central Hindi Committee functions under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister decides policies and provides co-ordination in the programme for the propagation and development of Hindi by the various Ministries of the Government of India. This Committee consists of Ministers of all important ministries as members and has some non-official members also.
In order to establish co-ordination between Central Government offices and for the propagation of usage of Hindi, a Central Hindi Committee was formed in the year 1967 under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister. This is the supreme committee for issuing important directions regarding Official Language Policy. Apart from the Prime Minister, there are 8 central ministers (Home Minister is the Vice-Chairman and the Minister in charge of Department of Official Language, Ministry of Home Affairs is the Minister Member) 6 state Chief Ministers, 4 MPs and 22 Scholars of Hindi and another Indian Languages i.e. this committee consists of totally 20 Members.
22. Write a short note on Hindi Salahakaar Samiti.
Hindi Salahakaar Samiti: -
Hindi Salahkar Samiti have been constituted in all Ministries/Departments under the Chairmanship of respective Ministers. These Samitis review the progress made in the use of Hindi in their respective Ministries/Departments, suggest ways to increase the use of Hindi and ensure effective steps for implementation of Official Language Policy. They are required to meet twice in a year as per rules.
23. Write a Short note on Parliamentary Committee on Official Language.
This committee was constituted under the provisions of Section 4 of Official Language Act, 1963, in the year 1976. This Committee constituted of 30 Members of Parliament, of whom 20 shall be Members of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and 10 shall be members of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) to be elected respectively by the members of the House of the people and members of the Council of States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The duty of this committee is to review the progress in usage of Hindi for the official purpose of the union and submit the recommendations to the President of India.
24. Write a short note on Central Official Language Implementation Committee/
Central Official Language Implementation Committee: -
This committee, reviews the position about the progressive use of Hindi for Official purposes of the Central Government, the training of employees and implementation of the orders issued from time to time by the department of Official Language with regard to the above and suggests measures for removing the shortcomings and difficulties noticed in implementing these orders. Secretary, Dept. of Official Language is the Chairman of this Committee while Chairman of the Official Language Implementation Committees of various Ministries/Departments are its members.
25. Write a short note on Town Official Language Implementation Committee. Town Official Language Implementation Committee: -
Town Official Language Implementation Committees (TOLIC) have been constituted in major towns. The TOLIC is presided over by one of the senior most officers of the Central Government/Undertakings/Banks etc. located in that particular town. The Chairman is required to organize two meetings of TOLIC every year and ensure his representation in these meetings. The administrative heads of Central Government offices/Undertakings/Banks etc., located that particular town must also take part in person, in these meetings.
The objective of formation of TOLIC is to provide a joint forum for encouraging the use of Official Language in the offices of the Central Govt./Undertakings/Banks across the country and for removing the difficulties being faced in the implementation of the Official Language policy. In this forum member offices through deliberations and exchange of information of the best practices adopted by them for increasing the use of Hindi can improve the level of their respective achievement. In order to conduct the proceedings properly, checklist of the relevant points to be considered in the meetings of the TOLIC is provided at the time of formation of the TOLIC.
26. Write a short note on Official Language Implementation Committees constituted at Stations/Small Offices.
In Railways, Official Language Implementation Committees are formed at major Stations having ten or more Central Govt. offices. Usually senior most official available at a particular Station/Office will be the Chairman of such committee and the Heads of individual offices of all the branch function in the vicinity are made as the members of the Station OLICs. These committees will meet once in three months and discuss about the progress made in the direction of implementation of Official Language. These committees will have to be reconstituted once in three years with the existing members or with the addition of new members also.
On the recommendations of the Chairman a Railway employee is made as Part Time OLIC Clerk to look after the duties of OLIC. Such Part Time OLIC clerks are eligible for monthly honorarium for looking after the duties of OLIC. At present the honorarium for OLIC clerk is Rs.300/per month.
Chairman can spend an amount of Rs.30/- per head towards supply of coffee etc., to the members present for the quarterly meetings. The actual amount spent by the Chairman will be reimbursed.
27. What is the Annual Programme regarding use of Hindi?
As per the Official Language Resolution, 1968 passed by both the houses of Parliament in December 1967, the Home Ministry of Government of India (Department of Official Language) shall prepare and issue an Annual Programme every year, which is applicable for all the Ministries/Departments/ Central Government Offices, Corporations, Undertakings. Different Targets have been fixed for Hindi work to be done in ‘A’ 'B' and 'C' regions. It is mandatory to comply with these instructions and achieve the targets.
28. Give details of various incentives for learning
(i) Hindi (ii) Hindi Typing (iii) Hindi Shorthand
The various incentives given for learning Hindi, Hindi Typing and Hindi Shorthand are as follows: - 1) Cash Award 2) Lumpsum Award 3) Personal Pay
1) Cash Award: -
The amount of Cash award given on passing the Hindi examinations are given below: -
Marks obtained in written exam. 55 % or more but less than 60% 60% or more but less than 70% 70% and above
Amount of Cash Award Eligible Prabodh
Praveen Rs.400
Rs.600 Rs.800
Rs.1200 Rs.1600
Rs.1800
Pragya Rs.800 Rs.1600 Rs.2400
Hindi Typing 97% or more 95% or more but less than 97% 90% or more but less than 95%
Hindi Stenography 95% or more 92% or more but less than 95% 88% or more but less than 92%
Amount Rs.2400 Rs.1600 Rs.800
2) Lumpsum Award: -
Operational staff and staff working in Open Line are eligible for Lumpsum Award on passing Hindi examination through their own efforts as private candidates.
Name of the examination
Prabodh Praveen Pragya Hindi Typing Hindi Stenography
Amount of Lumpsum Award
Rs.1600/Rs.1500/Rs.2400/Rs.1600/Rs.3000
3) Personal Pay: - i) Employees on passing prescribed Hindi course are eligible for Personal Pay equivalent to one
increment for a period of 12 months. Typist and Stenographers are eligible for Personal Pay equivalent to one increment for a period of 12 months on passing Hindi Typewriting examination. Stenographers whose mother tongue is a language other than Hindi, are eligible for Personal Pay equal in amount to two increments for a period of twelve months and then a personal pay equal in amount to one increment for the next 12 months. Employees who pass Hindi/Hindi Typewriting/Hindi Stenography examinations simultaneously or in succession, are eligible for personal pay equal in amount to two, or three increments, as the case may be, but such personal pay will however be granted to them
specifically for each examination one after another. NOTE: - 1) Non - Gazetted employees, for whom the prescribed course is Prabodh or Praveen, are eligible
for Personal Pay only on obtaining 55% or more marks in the written examination. 2) Gazetted Officers are eligible for Personal Pay only on obtaining 60% or more marks in the
written examination.
29. Give details of various awards/incentives for doing official work
employees/officers:
in Hindi by
(i) (ii) (iii)
10,000 words Award Scheme Collective Cash Award Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme
(i) 10,000 words Award Scheme: -
This scheme is introduced by Ministry of Home Affairs. All the Employees and Officers working in the Central Government are eligible to participate in this scheme. A person, who writes 10,000 words or more in a year, will be eligible to compete for the prize. Following prizes are given under this scheme.
FIRST PRIZE (2 Prizes)Rs.5000/- each
SECOND PRIZE (3 Prizes)Rs.3000/- each
THIRD PRIZE(5 Prizes)Rs.2000/- each
An Evaluation Committee will assess the work done by the employee based on the quality and quantity of the work and decide the prizes. The Competitors whose mother tongue is Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Bengali, Oriya or Assamese may be given additional weightage upto 20% at the time of assessment.
(ii) Collective Cash Award Scheme: -
Under this scheme, three Collective Cash Awards of Rs. 9,000 (6 Staff) Rs.,6000 (5 Staff) and Rs. 4,000 (5 Staff) to those Departments, which are adjudged as having made the maximum use of Hindi in their official work. This scheme is being introduced as an incentive to the officers/staff for making progressive use of Hindi in their work.
(iii) Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award Scheme: -
Rajbhasha Individual Cash Award is given by Railway Board. It is given in recognition of the individual efforts for creating a sense of awareness and enthusiasm for the progressive use of Rajbhasha Hindi for official purposes. Under this scheme Five (5) Employees/Officers are given Rs.1500/- as Cash Award from South Western Railway every year.
30. Give the cases where Hindi alone should be used?
Following are the cases where Hindi alone should be used: 1) Letters received in Hindi should be replied to in Hindi only. 2) Applications, Appeals, Representations made or signed in Hindi should be replied to in
Hindi only.
31. Give the cases where Hindi and English bilingual form should be used?
Following are the cases where Hindi and English bilingual form should be used: 1) All the Letter-Head-Pads in use in Central Government Offices 2) Headings of Registers and subject on File Covers 3) All Rubber Stamps 4) All the printed forms (not used by public) 5) Name Badges 6) Name and Designation Boards exhibited in the conference tables. 7) Agenda notes and Minutes of all the official meetings 8) Time-Table 9) Telephone Directory 10) Visiting Cards 11) Documents coming under Section 3(3) of OL Act.
NOTE:
In all the above cases English version should be below Hindi version.
32. Give the cases where Regional Language, Hindi and English should be used?
Following are the cases where Regional Language, Hindi and English should be used:
1) Name Boards, Sign Boards exhibited at stations and outside offices of Central
Government 2) Forms that are to be used by the Public 3) Name Boards, Designation Boards exhibited out-side the rooms of officers. 4) Station Announcements 5) Invitation Cards 6) Banners/Plaque displayed at Official Functions/celebrations/Jayantees/Weeks etc.
NOTE:
In all the above cases under mentioned order should be followed: 1) Regional Language 2) Hindi 3) English
33. Write a short note on Article 351.
Article 351 - Directive for development of the Hindi Language: -
It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India and to secure its enrichment by assimilating without interfering with its genius, the forms, style and expressions used in Hindustani and in the other languages of India specified in the Eighth Schedule and by drawing, wherever necessary or desirable, for its vocabulary, primarily on Sanskrit and secondarily on other languages.
34. Write a short note on Hindi Training.
In accordance with the provisions of Article 343 of the Constitution, Hindi was to be used for official purposes of the Union. Hence it is decided to impart training in Hindi Language to all the Central Government employees. In the beginning it was voluntary for the employees to attend Hindi classes and learn Hindi. But as per Presidential order of 27th April 1960, in service training Hindi was made obligatory for all the Central Government employees in class III services and above. Similarly training in Hindi typing and Hindi Stenography was also made obligatory.
Hindi Teaching Scheme (HTS), functioning under Ministry of Home Affairs, has taken over the work of training Central Government Employees. Following are the three courses in Hindi, prescribed by Hindi Teaching Scheme for Central Government Employees.
i) PRABODH - Elementary Course ii) PRAVEEN - Second or Middle Course
PRAGYA - Final Course iv) PARANGAT-To make personnel having working knowledge in Hindi to proficient
in Hindi. Since Hindi Teaching Scheme has taken over the training work, Railways are concerned only with co-ordination in respect of nomination, enrolment and attendance of the Railway staff in Hindi classes run under the Hindi Teaching Scheme and ensuring their appearance at the periodical examinations.
The books are supplied to the nominated trainees free of cost and no examination fee is charged.
35. Write a Short Note on various Hindi courses prescribed by Hindi Teaching Scheme.
Following are the three courses in Hindi, prescribed by Hindi Teaching Scheme for Central Government Employees.
PRABODH - Elementary Course ii) PRAVEEN - Second or Middle Course
PRAGYA - Final Course iv) PARANGAT – To make personnel having working knowledge in Hindi to proficient
in Hindi.
PRABODH: -
This is the first or Elementary Course prescribed by Hindi Teaching Scheme. Employees who has no prior knowledge in Hindi and whose mother tongue is a South Indian Language or English can be admitted to this course. The curriculum for Prabodh course comprise, from Alphabets of Hindi to Grammar.
PRAVEEN: -
This is the Second or Middle Course prescribed by Hindi Teaching Scheme. Employees who have passed Prabodh course or its equivalent or employees whose mother tongue is Marathi, Guajarati, Bengali, Oriya or Assamese, can be admitted to Praveen course.
PRAGYA: -
This is the Final course prescribed by Hindi Teaching Scheme which is of High School standard. Employees who have passed Praveen course or its equivalent or employees whose mother tongue is Urdu, Punjabi, Kashmiri, Pushto, Sindhi or other allied languages can be admitted to Pragya course. The duration of each course is six months under regular stream.
Parangat: The parangat course introduced from the year 2015-16 for all the personnel of Central Government offices, Undertaking offices and Nationalized Banks owned or controlled by the Union Government. The purpose of the course is to make Central Government personnel, who possess 'Working knowledge of Hindi' to make them proficient to carry out their official wok in Hind. This course is mainly based on practice, in which 80% of training time will be scheduled for practice and 20 % time to discuss the theoretical aspects of the course.
Contents of Course: The course will focus on the following topics: 1Administration 2. Finance 3. Banking 4. Science & Technology 5 Glossary of Terms.
Course Duration:
(1) Intensive Training – 20 Working days (160 Hrs.) (2) Regular Training - 5 Months (1 hour or 1 1/2 on alternative days.
36. Write a short note on various facilities available to get trained in Hindi courses.
Following are the facilities to get trained in the Hindi courses: i) Regular Course ii) Intensive Course iii) Correspondence Course iv) Private Study
i) Regular Course:
This is conducted by Hindi Teaching Scheme at selected places in major cities. The employees nominated by various Government offices are pooled at a particular place and Hindi Pradhyapak of HTS will conduct the classes. The classes are conducted daily with one to two hours' duration and the employees have to attend the classes without fail. The duration of course under this stream will be six months. Examinations are conducted twice in a year, one during May and other in the month of November.
ii) Intensive Course:
This is also conducted by Hindi Teaching Scheme at selected places in major cities and the Pradhyapak of HTS will conduct the classes. Hindi Training is imparted intensively under this stream. Following are the duration of each course.
1) Prabodh - 25 Working Days 2) Praveen - 20 Working Days 3) Pragya
15 Working Days The examinations are conducted at the end of each course and the results are declared within a week time. This course is conducted thrice in a year.
iii) Correspondence Course:
This is conducted by Central Hindi Directorate at New Delhi. The study materials together with response sheet are mailed to the nominated staff directly by the Directorate and the employee have to submit the filled in response sheet to the directorate for correction. Examination under this stream is conducted once in a year during November month.
iv) Private Study:
Employees can write the examination through private study also. Employees can seek the assistance of Hindi organization functioning at Divisional/Zonal Railway Office to appear as private candidate for Hindi examination. The duration of each course will be six months.
Remarks: The candidates who qualify the Hindi Language, Typewriting and Stenography examinations of the Hindi Teaching Scheme through own efforts will be eligible for the financial benefits even if they secure 5% less marks than the prescribed percentage, while granting them the Cash Award in addition to Lumsum Award.
37. Write a Short Note on Hindi Workshop.
Hindi Workshops are organized regularly for officers/employees, who have working knowledge or proficiency in Hindi, to overcome their hesitation of doing work in Hindi and also for employees who are required to do their day to day official work in Hindi. Every possible efforts are made that every Hindi knowing employee could participate in these workshops at least once in a year and could get an opportunity for the practice of doing work in originally in Hindi.
In Hindi Workshops emphasis should be placed on Hindi writing exercise and use of Unicode-encoding, emails and dictations should be taught. According to new guidelines, the duration of Workshop should be minimum one working day. Minimum two third of the time of workshop shall be devoted to the actual practice of doing the official work in Hindi on the subjects related to that of office.
38. Write a Short Note on Language of the advertisements published in Newspapers.
The advertisements published in English/Regional language shall mandatorily be published in Hindi also. In the Hindi Newspaper, advertisement should be given in Hindi only and in English newspaper these should be only in English. When advertisements are given in English newspapers, then at the end of the advertisement, it should be invariably mentioned that the Hindi version of the notification /advertisement/circular regarding vacancy is available on the website. For this complete link should be provide.
39. Write a Short Note on Training Materials in Railway Training Institute.
For increasing the use of Official Language Hindi in Official work, inter alia, it is necessary to impart training through Hindi Medium to all the employees in all the training institutes of the Central Government. Every type of training, whether of long-term or short term, should be imparted through Hindi Medium in ‘A’ and ‘B’Regions. To impart training in ‘C'Region the training materials should be prepared both in Hindi and in English and made available to the trainees in Hindi or in English as per their requirements. By imparting induction training and in-service training through Hindi medium, employees and officers will be capable of carrying out the work originally in Hindi.
42. Write a Short Note on Violation of Official Language Rules and Policy?
The official Language Policy of the Union is based on encouragement and motivation. However, the compliance of the instruction relating to Official Language should be ensured strictly. In case any officer or employee violates the provisions regarding Official Language intentionally the action can be taken against him/her on the basis of violation of rules and orders in the context thereof
SPECIFICATION OF BALLAST
SPECIFICATION OF BALLAST
1. Aggregate impact value of ballast for MG & NG (other than those planned for conversion) is Ans-30% Max
2. Test sample of ballast to carry out impact test on ballast should be – Ans- About 5 Kg
3. Generally, limit of water absorption of ballast should not be more than – Ans-0.01
4. Aggregate abrasion value of ballast for MG & NG (other than those planned for conversion) is Ans-35% Max
5. The side slopes of stack should not be flatter than______(Horizontal:Vertical) Ans-1.5:1
6. Cubical content of each stack shall normally be not less than ____cum in plain areas Ans-30
7. Cubical content of each stack shall normally be not less than __ cum in hilly areas. Ans-15
8. when ballast supply is made in wagons, shrinkage shall be permitted ________at destination while verifying the booked quantities by the consignee. Ans-upto 8%
9. On supply of the first 100 cum, the tests for Size & Gradation, Abrasion Value, Impact Value and Water Absorption (if prescribed) shall be carried out by Ans-Railway.
10. CTE in open line/CAO on construction for specified areas may allow water absorption limit upto- Ans-2.5%.
11. Ballast retention on 65mm Sq. mesh sieve- Ans-5% Max
12. Ballast retention on 40mm Sq. mesh sieve- Ans-40% to 60%
13. Ballast retention on 20mm Sq. mesh sieve for machine crushed ballast – Ans-not less than 98%
14. Ballast retention on 20mm Sq. mesh sieve for hand broken ballast – Ans-not less than 95%
15. If retention on 40mm square mesh sieve is between 60%(excluding) and 65%(Excluding), deduction in payment- Ans-5% reduction in contracted rate.
16. If retention on 40mm square mesh sieve is between 65%(excluding) and 70%(Excluding), deduction in payment- Ans-10% reduction in contracted rate.
17. If ballast retained on 40mm Square sieve is -______ is called Oversize ballast. Ans-70% or more
18. Retention on 20mm square mesh sieve is less than 98% (for machine crushed) or 95% (for hand broken) is called Ans-Undersize ballast.
19. After supply of first 100 cum of ballast, subsequent test for size and Gradation tests, one for each _____cum or part there of in any stack if supply is taken in stack. Ans-100
20. After supply of first 100 cum of ballast, subsequent test for size and Gradation tests, one for each _____cum or part there of in any stack if supply is taken in wagons. Ans-100
21. After supply of first 100 cum of ballast, subsequent test for Abrasion value, Impact Value , one test for each _____cum if supply is taken in stack. Ans-2000
22. After supply of first 100 cum of ballast, subsequent test for Abrasion value, Impact Value , one test for each _____cum if supply is taken in wagon. Ans-2000
23. _______sample is taken for stack upto 100 cum. Ans-1
24. The thickness of plate used for making test sieve fro 65 mm Square mesh Sieve is Ans-3mm
25. The thickness of plate used for making test sieve fro 40 mm and 20mm Square mesh Sieve is Ans-2mm
26. The perforated plate for test sieves used for sieve analysis of ballast is manufactured from______ Ans-Any of above
27. In the given formula, Water Absorption={(A-B)/B}x100 , A denotes Ans-Weight of aggregate after complete surface dry without exposing in oven
28. Hand broken ballast can be used in exceptional cases with prior approval of Ans-CTE
29. Hand broken ballast can be used in exceptional cases with prior approval of CAO(C) Ans-Prior to invitation of tender
30. Aggregate abrasion value of ballast for BG, MG & NG (planned/sanctioned for conversion) is_____% max. Ans-30
31. Aggregate impact value of ballast for BG, MG & NG (planned/sanctioned for conversion) is Ans-20% Max
32. The height of ballast stack shall not be more than Ans-2.0 m.
33. Top width of ballast stack shall not be less than Ans-1.0m
34. For water absorption test of ballast, aggregate is placed in over at a temperature______degree Celsius. Ans-100-110
35. Aggregate abrasion value of ballast for BG, MG & NG (planned/sanctioned for conversion) may be extended in exceptional cases on technical and/or economic grounds by CTE/CAO(c). Ans-35% Max
36. For water absorption test of ballast, aggregate is placed in over for ____hrs Ans-24
37. The nominal size of ballast used for points and crossings is Ans-25mm
38. Tolerance for test sieve of Square mesh Size of 65 mm is ___with respect to nominal size. Ans--1.5mm to 1.5mm
39. Tolerance for test sieve of Square mesh Size of 20 mm is ___with respect to nominal size. Ans--1.0mm to 1.0mm
40. Tolerance for test sieve of Square mesh Size of 40 mm is ___with respect to nominal size. Ans--1.5mm to 1.5mm
41. The Pitch of holes/apertures of 65mm, 20mm and 40mm square mesh size sieve is __mm,___mm and,__mm respectively. Ans-80,25,50
42. The internal size frame of test sieves should not be less than _____(LxBxH) on sides. Ans-100cm x 70cm x 10cm
43. ___sieve is used for machine crushed ballast only. Ans-40mm Sq. mesh sieve.
44. In case ballast retention on 65mm sieve exceeds 5% but does not exceed 10%, deduction in payment will be ____ of contract rate for full stack. Ans-0.05
45. Ballast retained on 65mm sieve exceeds - is called Oversize Ballast Ans-0.1
46. Retention on 40mm Square sieve is less than____ then it is called undersize ballast. Ans-0.4
47. The percentage passing through or retained on the sieve shall be determined by Ans-weight.
48. The height of stack shall not be less than _____ in plain area. Ans-1m
49. Aggregate Impact value of ballast for BG, MG & NG (planned/sanctioned for conversion) may be extended in exceptional cases on technical and/or economic grounds by CTE/CAO(c). Ans-25% Max
50. The height of stack shall not be less_____ than in hilly area. Ans-0.5m
BRIDGE
BRIDGE
1. Initial inspection for PSC girders / Welded girder bridges as per IRBM 1998
a) Within one year of installation b) Once in 3 years c) Once in 2 years d) Once in 5 years
2. Periodical inspection of Welded girders
a) Once in 3 years b) Once in 3 years d) Once in 2 years d) Once in 5 years
3 Periodical inspection of PSC & Composite girders
a) Once in 3 years b) Once in 5 years c) Once in 2 years d) Once in 5 years
4. The date of painting of steel work should be painted in white on the out side of the left girder
a) of the 1st span only b) first span only but on all spans for Imp. bridges c) of the all spans d) None of the above
5. Camber in steel triangulated girder is provided to compensate for deflection
a) Under live load and dead load b) Under live load c) Under dead load d) None of the above
6. The length of the snap head rivet shank is, when L = length of the rivet, G = length of grip in mm; D = Dia of rivet in mm
a) L =G +1.5 D + 1mm for every 4 mm of grip or part thereof b) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm c)L =G +0.5 D d)None of the above
7. The length of the countersunk head rivet shank is, when L = length of the rivet, G = length of grip in mm; D = Dia of rivet in mm
a)L =G +0.5 D + 1mm for every 4 mm of grip or part thereof b) L =G +0.5 D + 1mm c) L =G +0.5 D d)None of the above
8.A bridge is generally specified as “Br. No. 180 (5x9.10m G) at km 345/5-6”. In the above 9.10m refers to the
a) Effective Span b) Width of bridge c) Clear Span d) Overall length of bridge
9. The strength of a bridge is termed as MBG loading of 1987. MBG refers to
a) Model Broad Gauge b) Modified Budget Grant c) Model Budget grant d) Modified Broad Gauge
10.In a temporary signaling arrangement for a bridge work in BG section, caution board shall be placed in advance of ……. m from start of the bridge/ work spot.
a) 30 m b) 1200 m c) 677 m d) 1000 m
Free Board is the level difference between Formation Level and …………….
a) Rail Level b) HFL c) Bed Level d) Danger Level
12. Minimum Free Board required in a bridge is
a) 1 m b) 1.20 m c) 600 mm d) 300 mm
13. Vertical Clearance (VC) in waterway bridges is the level difference between
HFL and Formation level
Bed level and bottom of superstructure
HFL and bottom of superstructure
Rail level and Formation level
14. Depth of construction in a girder bridge means the depth from
a) RL to HFL b) RL to top of bed block
c) RL to bottom of bed block d) RL to Bed level
15. Skew of a bridge is the angle between
a) C.L. of water course to C.L. of track
b) C.L. of water course to C.L. of pier
c) C.L. of water course/road to normal (perpendicular) of C.L. of track
d) C.L. of abutment to C.L. of pier
16. Angle of crossing of a bridge is the angle between
C.L. of water course/road to C.L. of track
C.L. of water course to C.L. of pier
c) C.L. of water course to normal (perpendicular) of C.L. of track
d) C.L. of abutment to C.L. of pier
17. In a single span bridge, the clear span is the distance between
a) Centres of Abutments b) Inner faces of Abutments
c) Outer faces of Abutments d) Width of Abutment
18. Sub structure of a bridge does not include
a) Abutment b) Girder/Slab
c) Piers d) Wing and Return walls
19. Super structure of a bridge includes
a) Girder/Slab b) Abutment
c) Piers d) Bed block
20. Bearings are provided in bridges to transfer the load to
a) Super structure b) Track
c) Embankment d) Substructure
21. Wing walls and return walls are provided to retain
a) earth on approaches b) ballast
c) track on approaches d) none
22. In a temporary signaling arrangements for a bridge work in BG section, speed board shall
be placed in advance of 30 m from the
a) C.L. of the bridge b) Termination Board
c) Start of the bridge/work spot d) Caution Board
23. In shallow type girders, the rail level shall be
a) 25mm above the top flange of girder b) near the bottom of the girder
c) near the middle of the girder d) below the girder
24. The load transferred from rails to bottom flanges is in
a) deck type girder b) through type girder
c) semi-through type girder d) plate girder
25. The load transferred from rails to web of girders is in
a) deck type girder b) through type girder
c) semi-through type girder d) plate girder
26. The medium to transfer loads from superstructure to substructure is called
a) Abutment b) Bed block
c) Bearing d) Pier
27. Temporary staging for casting PSC Box Girder for a ROB over the Railway span shall be removed
a) after hardening of concrete b) before hardening of concrete
c) during concreting d) after stressing the cables.
28. The horizontal clearance of edge of foot over bridge structure from face of platform is
a) 6525 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 5330 mm d) 5300 mm
29. The vertical clearance of bottom most foot over bridge structure above rail level is
a) 6525 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 5330 mm d) 6250 mm
30. The minimum vertical clearance of foot over bridge gangway is
a) 2100 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 6525 mm d) 2710 mm
31. The horizontal clearance between guard rail and running rail in BG track is
a) 25 mm b) 250 ± 50 mm
c) 75 mm d) 200 ± 50 mm
32. The level of guard rail in bridges shall not be lower than that of running rail by more than
a) 25 mm b) 55 mm
c) 75 mm d) 65 mm
33. The guard rail is provided in bridges to
a) prevent derailment in bridges
b) prevent falling of vehicles during derailment
c) have good riding
d) guide the wheels
34. Steel channel sleepers are provided in bridges with superstructure of
a) PSC slab b) PSC girder
c) Steel girder d) RCC Box
35.Minimum earth cushion required over RCC Box is
a) 300 mm b) 600 mm
c) 0 d) 1000 mm
36.The minimum vertical clearance above R.L. to bottom of ROB near the yard shall be
a) 6525 mm b) 5870 mm
c) 2360 mm d) 6250 mm
37. The minimum vertical clearance in RUB in rural area shall be
a) 5870 mm b) 6525 mm
c) 5000 mm d) 5500 mm
38. The minimum vertical clearance in RUB in urban area shall be
a) 5870 mm b) 6525 mm
c) 5000 mm d) 5500 mm
39. The embankment width in approach of the bridge shall be
a) 5870 mm b) 6525 mm
c) 6850 mm d) 6000 mm
40. The height gauge need to be provided in
a) ROB b) RUB
c) FOB d) Fly Over
41. The CRS sanction is required in the ROB project for construction of
a) Approach spans b) Laying road
c) Railway spans d) none
42. The temporary girders are generally required for the bridge works
a) on traffic condition b) under mega block
c) in cut and open method d) in new route
43. The diameter of hole for 20 dia rivet shall be
a) 23 mm b) 18 mm
c) 21.5 mm d) 22 mm
44. IS code for Steel structures is
a) IS 236 b) IS 226
c) IS 456 d) IS 800
45. Pipe culvert is a/an
a) major bridge b) minor bridge
c) unimportant bridge d) important bridge
46. One of the following works does not require CRS sanction
a) Regirdering/ Rebuilding b) Erection of new FOB
c) Erection of platform shelter d) Pipe line crossing
47. Facia boards of platform shelters shall have a minimum horizontal clearance of ……. from C.L. of track at a minimum height of 4.61m above RL.
a) 2360 mm b) 3660 mm
c) 3000 mm d) 1600 mm
48. At FOBs in electrified section the electrocution by live OHE wires is prevented by providing
a) smoke guards b) Roofing
c) Bottom lateral bracings d) protective screens
49. One of the following is a shallow foundation
a) Pile foundation b) Raft foundation
c) Under reamed pile foundation d) Well foundation
50. Minimum vertical clearance (VC) for a slab/ girder bridges with discharge of 0-30 cumecs is
a) 300 mm b) 1500 mm
c) 1800 mm d) 600 mm
51. Maximum vertical clearance (VC) for a slab/ girder bridges with discharge above 3000 cumecs is
a) 300 mm b) 1500 mm
c) 1800 mm d) 600 mm
52. For end bearing piles, the minimum spacing of piles of diameter ‘d’ shall be
a) 3d b) 2d
c) 2.5d d) 5d
53. Weep holes are provided in
a) piers b) trestle piers
c) foundation d) abutments
54. The pressure on soil worked out shall be ……… the SBC of the soil.
a) more than b) equal to
c) not equal to d) less than
55. ………….. soil has the least SBC of the soil.
a) Hard moorum b) Stiff clay
c) Black cotton soil d) Soft rock
56. The minimum edge distance for rivets of diameter ‘d’ in steel plates shall be
a) 2 x d b) 3 x d
c) 1.5 x d d) 2.5 x d
57. The minimum pitch of rivets of diameter ‘d’ in steel plates shall be
a) 2 x d b) 3 x d
c) 1.75 x d d) 2.5 x d
58) Rail Cluster, as temporary arrangement can be used upto a span of
a) 3.66m b) 6.1m
c) 12.2m d) 18.3 m
59) Speed restriction required for using CC cribs as temporary arrangement is
a) 20 kmph b) 40 kmph
c) 35 kmph d) 30 kmph
60) The minimum cushion specified over an arch bridge is --
a) 0.5m b) 0.9m
c) 1.0m d) 1.2 m
61) In case of water crossing danger level in bridges
speed restriction be imposed
traffic be suspended till water recedes
traffic be suspended till a responsible person inspects the site and declares it safe for running traffic
bridge watchman is to be posted
62) From fatigue considerations, bridges are designed for --
a) 2 million cycles b) 1 million cycle
c) 10 million cycles d) 3 million cycles
63) Structural steel for railway loading above 0oC temperature conforms to --
a) IS 2062 grade A b) IS 2062 grade B
c) IS 2062 grade C d) None of the above
64) Bearings for plate girders are --
a) roller bearing b) sliding bearings
c) centralised articulated bearings d) None of the above
65) Bentonite is used in pile driving --
a) to facilitate pile driving b) to enable proper pile concreting
c) to stabilize the bore hole walls d) None of the above
66) In a routine pile load test the test load is --
a) 1.25 times the design load b) 1.5 times the design load
c) 1.75 times the design load d) 2 times the design load
67) In the eight digit code given in the rating system the first digit is called --
a) URN b) ORN
c) CRN d) None of the above
68) An important bridge is one which has total waterway of equal to or more than
a) 1000 sq.metres. b) 800 sq. metres
c) 500 sq. metres d) 300 sq. metres
69) Well foundation may be of the following type
a) circular b) D type
c) Double D type d) Any of the above
70) Maximum tilt specified during sinking of well foundation is
a) 1 in 10 b) 1 in 50
c) 1 in 100 d) 1 in 150
71) Foundation and substructure of the bridge should be inspected by SE/P.Way/Works
a) Once a year any time b) Once a year before monsoon
c) Once a year after monsoon d) Once in 3 months
72) For a major bridge, the URN would comprise of
a) single digit b) eight digits
c) six digits d) four digits
73) Speed restrictions is suggested for distressed bridges on Group I
a) upto maximum of 15 kmph b) 25 kmph
c) 50 kmph d) 60 kmph
74) Speed restrictions is suggested for distressed bridges on Group II
a) upto maximum of 15 kmph b) 25 kmph to 50 kmph
c) 75 kmph d) 60 kmph
75) Settlement of foundations or Tilted piers and abutments will be considered as distressed bridge as
a) Group I b) Group II
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
76) Progressive loss in camber of Prestressed concrete/ steel girders will be considered as distressed bridge as
a) Group I b) Group II
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
77) Cracks in return walls/ wing walls or Slight tilting/ bulging of abutments are the signs of distressed bridge under
a) Group I b) Group II
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
78) In arch bridges, Cracks/ lean/ bulge in parapet walls, Bulging or separation of spandrel from arch barrel, are the signs of distressed bridge under
a) Group I b) Group II
c) Both of the above d) None of the above
79) Special inspection of distressed bridges shall be carried out by Asst. Engineer is
a) Once in three months b) Once in two months
c) Once in a month d) Once in six months
80) Special inspection of distressed bridges Group II shall be carried out by Inspector (Concerned) is
a) Once in three months b) Once in two months
c) Once in a month d) Once in six months
81) Temporary arrangements for rebuilding of Railway bridges can be executed by providing
a) Temporary girder b) Temporary diversion
c) Any of the above d) None of the above
82) Calendar Hamilton spans are normally available maximum up to
a) 60 ft. b) 100 ft.
c) 150 ft. d) 200 ft.
83) In areas where there is no severe corrosion Finishing coat will be
a) Two coats of aluminium paint to IS : 2339
b) One coat of zinc chromate priming to IS : 104
(c) Two cover coats of red oxide paint to IS :123
(d) One coat of zinc chrome - red oxide priming to IS : 2074
84) In areas where there is severe corrosion Finishing coat will be
a) Two coats of aluminium paint to IS : 2339
b) One coat of zinc chromate priming to IS : 104
(c) Two cover coats of red oxide paint to IS :123
(d) One coat of zinc chrome - red oxide priming to IS : 2074
85) Entire steel work of girder bridge should be painted at regular interval; known as
a) patch painting b) periodical through painting
c) Any of the above d) None of the above
86) When as small area of girder bridge should be painted when requiring immediate painting; known as
a) patch painting b) periodical through painting
c) Any of the above d) None of the above
87) Elcometer is used to measure the ………..
a) cross level b) Gauge
c) Thickness of paint d) All the above
88) Repairing by cement pressure grouting can be adopted in case of
a) Honeycomb concrete b) Hollow masonry, Dormant cracks
c) Deep leached mortar joints d) all the above
89) Cement pressure grouting is suitable for
a) Very fine crack b) weathered concrete
(c) Active crack where cause of crack is known and remedial action has been taken
(d) Crushed masonry
90) Epoxy pressure grouting is suitable for
a) wide and deep crack b) fine and deep crack
c) fine but not very deep crack d) None of the above
91) Admixtures is added in cement pressure grouting mainly due to
a) increase initial setting time b) improve flowability
c) prepare non shrinkable grout d) Both b) and c)
92) In cement pressure grouting, pressure is kept as
a) 2 to 4 kg./sq cm. b) 3 to 6 kg./sq cm.
c) 3 to 10 kg./sq cm. d) 3.5 to 7 kg./sq cm.
93) In Epoxy pressure grouting, pressure is kept as
a) 2 to 4 kg./sq cm. b) 3 to 6 kg./sq cm.
c) 3 to 10 kg./sq cm. d) 3.5 to 7 kg./sq cm.
94) In cement pressure grouting, water cement ratio is kept as
a) 0.4 to 0.5 b) 0.3 to 0.4
c) 0.25 to 0.35 d) 0.35 to 0.5
95) In guniting/ shotcreting , water cement ratio is kept as
a) 0.4 to 0.5 b) 0.3 to 0.4
c) 0.25 to 0.35 d) 0.35 to 0.5
96) In cement pressure grouting holes should be drilled at spacing in both direction at
a) 150 – 500 mm b) 450 mm
c) 500 – 750 mm d) 1000 mm
97) In cement pressure grouting G.I pipes of diameter …… and ……length, should be fixed in drilled holes
a) 12 to 20 mm, 200 mm b) 12 to 20 mm, 300 mm
c) 12 to 25 mm, 500 mm d) 20 to 25 mm, 300 mm
98) Paint is the mixture of …….
a) Binder, Pigment & Solvent b) Binder & Pigment
c) Binder & Solvent d) None of the above
99) CC Crib stands for
a) Cement concrete b) Criss crossing
c) Christ church d) None of the above
100) While painting with red oxide paint, a little quantity of ………..shall be added to the paint while doing the first coat to distinguish it from the second coat
a) little blue paint b) lamp black
c) red paint d) green paint
101) While painting with Aluminium paint, a little quantity of ………..shall be added to the paint while doing the first coat to distinguish it from the second coat
a) little blue paint b) lamp black
c) red paint d) green paint
102) Shelf life of Paint Red Oxide Ready mixed (IS : 123)
a) 4 month b) 1 year
c) 6 month d) None of the above
103) Shelf life of Paint aluminium when paste and oil are mixed
a) Oneday b) 1 year
c) 6 month d) None of the above
104) The maximum time lag between surface preparation and the application of primer coat shall not exceed
a) 12 hours b) 24 hours
c) 48 hours d) 36 hours
105) The maximum time lag between the primer coat and the Ist finishing coat shall not exceed
a) 3 days b) 7 days
c) 4 days d) 12 days
106) For railway bridges with spans in excess of 30.5m, generally provided with
a) deck type girders b) open web through girders
c) semi through girders d) shallow type girders
107) Open web through girders are provided with
a) rocker & roller bearings b) Sliding bearings
c) centralised bearings d) electrometric bearings
108) Mostly long span rail-cum road bridges are provided with
a) rocker & roller bearings b) segmental roller with oil bath
c) Sliding bearings d) centralised bearings
109) The advantages of electrometric bearings are
(a) Permits movement of the structure in all directions
(b) Serves as a shock absorber due to anti-vibration properties of elestomeric
(c) better dispersion of longitudinal forces to the approaches
(d) All of the above
110) Dimensional Tolerances for Overall plan dimensions of electrometric bearing is
a) +3 mm b) -3 mm
c) +5 mm d) - 0, + 6 mm
111) Length of guard rails to be bent so as to be brought together at the middle of the track.(L2)
a) 3200 mm b) 4875 mm
c) 3655 mm d) None of the above
112) The size of bridge timber required for the standard spans up to 18.3 m
a) 250 x 150mm. b) 250 x 180mm.
c) 250 x 240mm d) 250 x 200mm
113) Rail joints should be avoided within ……………of a bridge abutment.
a) 6 m b) 3 m
c) 4 m d) 10 m
114) In case of LWR track, full ballast section as specified in LWR Manual should be provided up to ……….. from the bridge abutment.
a) 200 m b) 50 m
c) 300 m d) 100 m
115) Clear distance between consecutive sleepers not to exceed on bridges in BG is
a) 450 mm b) 600 mm
c) 510 mm d) 500 mm
116) Length of sleepers on BG Girder bridges should not less than
a) 2440 mm. b) 3660 mm
c) 3000 mm d) 2600 mm
117) In Girder and Slab Bridges Danger level should be marked below bottom of girders/slabs for water way is > 6.10 < 12.2 m
a) 300 mm b) 600 mm
c) 450 mm d) 500 mm
118) In Girder and Slab Bridges Danger level should be marked below bottom of girders/slabs for water way is > 12.20 < 30.5 m
a) 300 mm b) 600 mm
c) 500 mm d) 450 mm
119) For Box Culverts Danger level is to be taken as
a) at the top of slab b) one third height below bottom of slab
c) at the bottom of slab d) None of the above
120) The danger level should be marked with a bright red band …… wide centrally over a white band …… wide for a length of………
a) 5 cm, 10 cm, 60 cms b) 10 cm, 20 cm, 60 cm
c) 15 cm, 30 mm, 60 cm d) None of the above
121) Renewal of slack rivets should be taken up in steel girder bridges:
All rivets which are hand loose or which have lost 50% of their head by corrosion.
All hammer loose rivets where corrosion has set in between the head and the plate.
In end stiffeners when the percentage of hammer loose rivets is >30%
All the above
122) In flange splices when the number of hammer and hand loose rivets is 30% or more of the total rivets on any side of the splice location,
a) Need no be renewed b) wait for 100% loose rivets
c) all the rivets should be renewed. d) None of the above
123) Corrosion in Steel girder bridges may be prevented by :
a) Protective coatings by painting b) Metallising
c) Use of epoxy based paints d) All the above
124) Surface preparation for Metallising the abrasives used for final cleaning is
(a) Chilled iron grit G.24, as defined in BS : 2451
(b) Washed salt free angular silica sand of mesh size 12 to 30 with a minimum of 40% retained on a 20 mesh
(c) either (a) or (b) d) neither (a) or (b)
125) Minimum length of steel channel sleeper in BG
a) 2500mm b) 2440mm c) 2400mm d) 2600mm
126) Length of bridge timber in BG
outer to outer of girder plus 305mm
2440mm
whichever is more in a) & b)
whichever is less in a) & b)
127) Periodicity of Underwater inspection
Once in a year
Once in two years
Whenever high flood occurs
Along with detailed inspection of SE/Br
128) Definition of major bridge
Single span of 12m & above
Total linear water way more than 18m
Both a) & b)
None of the above
129) Definition of minor bridge
Single span less than 12m
Total linear water way less than 18m
Both a) & b)
None of the above
130) Permitted wind velocity for running of trains on the bridge
72 km/h
58 km/h
64 km/h
No limits
131) Periodicity of recording of camber in PSC girders
Once in a year
Once in two years
Once in three years
During the detailed inspection of SE/Br.
132) Weight of steel crib 75x75x10mm angles
200kg
187.2kg
210kg
185kg
133) Conventional method of camber recording
Piano wire with counter weight
By using leveling instrument
Offset method
None of the above
134) Flood level gauge to be marked in
All important bridges
All major bridges
All minor & major bridges
All bridges
135) Velocity of water can be measured by
Anemometer
Elco meter
Current meter
Thermometer
136) Flood level gauge to be marked
commencing from bed level to top
commencing from bottom of girder towards bed level
commencing from Rail level
commencing from Danger level
137) Shallow type girder can be used in
ROBs
RUBs
FOBs
None of the above
138) Under slung girders can be used in
Plain section
Ghat section
Aqueduct
Viaduct
139) Spacing of Trolley refuges
Every 100m
If span is more than 100m, on each pier
Ballasted deck bridges – every 50m
All the above
140) Testing of welds by
Dye penetrant test
Magnetic particle inspection
Radiographic inspection
All the above
141) Rebound hammer is used for
To find the strength of concrete
To form rivet heads
To break the concrete structures
None of the above
142) Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity test is meant for
Identifying the integrity of concrete
Finding the strength of concrete
To know the crack in steel structure
To know the flaw in rail
143) The clear distance between consecutive sleepers laid over unballasted bridge on BG should not exceed
a)300mm b)400mm c)450mm d)550mm
144) The total number of bridges on I.R.is about
a)1 Lac b)1.25 Lacs c)1.50 Lacs d)2 Lacs
145) Which para of Engineering code deals with cost sharing of ROB/RUBs
a) 1716 b) 1814 c) 1816 d) 1819
146) What is the carriageway of two lane ROB on National Highway
a)10.00m b)8.5 c)9.50 d)10.50
147) The depth of 19.81 mlong service girder is about………
a)1.67 m b)1.16 m c)0.95 m d)1.52 m
148) BGML loading stands for
a)Broad gauge mineral loading b) Broad gauge modified loading
c)Broad gauge mainline loading d) None of above
149) MBG loading stands for
a)Mineral Broad gauge loading b) Modified Broad gauge loading
c)Medium Broad gauge loading d) None of above
150) RBG loading stands for
a)Revised Broad gauge loading b) Rolling Broad gauge loading
c)Railway Broad gauge loading d) None of above
151) BGML loading caters for maaaaximum axle load of…….tonnes for locomotive with trailing load of………tonnes/metre.
a)22.9,7.67 b)22.5,7.67 c)25,7.67 d)None of above
152) RBG loading caters for maximum axle load of…….tones for locomotive with trailing
load of…… tonnes/metre of track with maximum axle load of…….tonnes for wagons
a)22.9,7.67,25 b)22.5,7.67,22.9 c)25,7.67,22.9, d)None of above
153) Piano wire is used for measuring the-
a) Distortion b)Camber in PSC girder c)Both a & b d)None of above
154) When the railway crosses a deep valley without perennial water,it is called…….
a)Aqueduct b)Causeway c)Via-duct d)River crossing
155) What is the clear distance between two consecutive bridges, Timbers or Girder bridge?
(a) 450 mm (b) 510 mm (c) 500 mm (d) 520 mm
156) What is the clear distance between two consecutive steel channel sleepers on Girder bridges?
(a) 450 mm (b) 510 mm
(c) 500 mm (d) 460 mm
157) For painting, the unit of rate is per
a) Sqm b) cum c) 10sqm d) 10cum
158) When proposed depth of construction of a bridge is more than the existing depth of construction in a bridge work, the existing rail level requires
a) Lowering b) Lifting
c) Slewing d) None
159) Which cement should not be used for bridge slabs ro RCC frames
a) OPC b) Portland Pozzolana cement
c) Portland furnace slag cement d) Rapid hardening cement
160) Standard bag of cement in ……… kg
a) 52 kg b) 30.5kg c) 10.7kg d) 50 kg
161) The concrete under water minimum grade of cement recommended by IS code
a) M 10 b) M 15 c) M 20 d) M 25
162) What is DPC?
a) Damp proof course b) weathering course
c) Treatment the foundation d) Treatment over the roof
163) Elastomeric bearings are made of natural or synthetic rubber of shore hardness of approximately.
a) 30 to 40 b) 50 to 70
c) 40 to 50 d) 60 to 70
164) Investigation for important bridges may be carried out in which stage
Technical feasibility study (reconnaissance survey)
Techno-economic feasibility study (preliminary engineering survey)
Detailed survey and project report stage (final location survey)
All the above
165) At locations where access to the new bridge construction is available by rail, the launching of girders upto 18.3 m which method is ideal.
a) slew in slew out method b) gantry method
c) Launching of girders with the help of a BFR:
d) Pantoon method
166) The normal procedure for promotion should be by …………..Qualified men will be entitled to promotion by seniority within their own groups.
a) Trade test b) Interview
c) Recommendation d) Random selection
167) Payment to bridge staff on the section will be made by the pay clerk in the presence of
a) SSE/SE/JE/ P.Way b) SSE/SE/JE/ Br.
c) SSE/SE/JE/ Works d) Office clerk
168) If the SSE/SE/JE/ Br. working in the section is not readily available, another SSE/SE/JE may be authorised by …………….. to witness payment on the section.
a) DEN b) SSE/SE/JE/
c) AEN (Bridges) d) Office clerk
169) The "Transfer of charge'' statement should be signed by both the SSE/SE/JE/ Brs. and forwarded to the ………….
a) Assistant Engineers (Bridges) b) Divisional Engineer (Bridges)
c) a) and b) d) None of above
170) The Indian Railways Way and Works Manual was first published in the year 1954.
a) 1956 b) 1999
c) 1954 d) 1998
171) Indian Railway Bridge manual established in
a) 1998 b) 1999
c) 1989 d) 1954
172) While finalizing the IRBM, which of the following have been taken into account.
a) Indian RailwaysGeneral Rules 1976 b) Indian Railways Code for Engineering Department 1993
c) Bridge Rules and Substructure d) All the above
173) A bridge having superstructure with “Single or duplicate girders with cross sleepers on top flanges” is classified as
a) RSJ girder bridge b) Cross Girder
c) Deck plate girder d) Open web girder
174) For assessing the strength of concrete structure by NDT method, the equipment used is
a) Echo sounder b) Anemometer
c) Schmidt's concrete testing hammer d) Volt meter
175) For assessing the cover available to reinforcement in existing RCC structures by NDT method, the equipment used is
a) Echo sounder b) Concrete cover meter
c) cover meter d) Volt meter
**********
LDCE JE PWAY RAIPUR 2020
LDCE JE PWAY RAIPUR 2020
[1] In levelling operation, if the first reading is more than the second, it represents
(a) Rise
(b) Fall
(c) Same level
(d) None
[2] Execution of work can be carried out by
(a) Verbal order
(b) Written order
(c) Verbal order by competent authority
(d) None of these
[3] Deficiency of ballast on LWR track during summer may result in
(a) Creep
(b) Buckling
(c) Sinking
(d) Cracking
[4] What is the full form UTS of rails
(a) Ultimate technical strength
(b) Ultimate tensile strength
(c) Upper top surface
(d) None of above
[5] Resolving disputes by non-judicial means is called
(a) Arbitration
(b) Appellate
(c) Quasi judicial
(d) None of these
[6] Material modification need approval of the estimate by
(a) Sanctioning authority
(b) Competent authority
(c) FA & CAO
(d) Railway Board
[7] Radius of a 5 degree curve is
(a) 1750
(b) 875
(c) 350
(d) 550
[8] Cant gradient is
(a) Actual cant / cant deficiency
(b) Actual cant / transition length
(c) Actual cant / cant excess
(d) Actual cant / length of a curve
[9] Maximum cant access permitted on BG root are
(a) 75
(b) 100
(c) 125
(d) 65
[10] When the turnout curve takes off from outside the main curve the effective radius of turnout in case of similar flexure turnout is given by
(a) Rt= Rm x Rs/(Rm+Rs)
(b) Rt= Rm + Rs/(RmRs)
(c) Rt= Rm x Rs/(RmRs)
(d) Rt= Rm/(Rm+Rs)
[11] Frequency of inspection of the curve by p w i in BG group A routes is once in
(a) 3 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 5 months
(d) 6 months
[12] Wagon used for carriage of ballast is
(a) BOXN
(b) BTPN
(c) BCNL
(d) BOBYN
[13] The PWI should check the equipment of all Patrolman and watchman once in a
(a) 1 months
(b) 2 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 4 months
[14] Chord length for measuring lead curvature of a turnout is
(a) 3 metre
(b) 4 metre
(c) 6 metre
(d) 9 metre
[15] The destruction of explosives should be in all cases be supervised by
(a) PWI
(b) IOW
(c) Sr. Den
(d) AEN
[16] Whistle indicator board on the approaches of unmanned level crossing should be provided at a distance of
(a) 200 metre
(b) 400 metre
(c) 600 metre
(d) 800 metre
[17] Minimum depth of space for Wheel flange from rail level in BG is ____mm
(a) 18
(b) 28
(c) 38
(d) 44
[18] For spans more than 6.1m rail joints should be preferably be provided at ____of span from either end
(a) Full length
(b) Half
(c) 1/3
(d) 2/3
[19] Full form of TTS
(a) Theoretical toe at switch
(b) Total toe of switch
(c) Theoretical toe of switch
(d) None of the above
[20] The schedule of inspection of ADEN for manned level crossing is
(a) Once a month
(b) Once in two months
(c) Once in three months
(d) Once in six months
[21] Full form MAS
(a) Management at site
(b) Manager at site
(c) Material at site
(d) None of these
[22] Push trolleys should be manned by atleast___ men
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
[23] Each blank master seat should be initially it on top by the
(a) PWI
(b) IOW
(c) Sr. Den
(d) AEN
[24] Alteration to point and crossing in running line will require
(a) CRS sanction
(b) Safety certificate by ADEN
(c) Safety certificate by DEN
(d) None of these
[25] Formation width on curve
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remain the same
(d) None of these
[26] Which are the union territories classified under region B
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(d) All of above
[27] Maximum permissible vertical wear on wing rail or nose of crossing
(a) 10 mm
(b) 5 mm
(c) 15 mm
(d) 20 mm
[28] Deep screening of entire track must be done at least
(a) Once in a quarter
(b) Once in a year
(c) Once in 5 years
(d) Once in 10 years
[29] A sleeper density of ____sleepers per kilometre is a must on Shatabdi /Rajdhani routes
(a) 1880
(b) 1760
(c) 1660
(d) 1720
[30] Service life of glued insulated rail joint of 60 kg rail is
(a) 300 GMT
(b) 200 GMT
(c) 400 GMT
(d) 150 GMT
[31] As per RDSO guidelines the permissible speed in case of 1 in 12 turn out with curved switch is ____kilometre per hour
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 25
(d) None of the above
[32] Maximum distance covered in a day by a patrolman should not normally exceed
(a) 2 km
(b) 5 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 20 km
[33] The ratio of wheel diameter to gauge is about
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.55
(c) 0.75
(d) 0.9
[34] What do you mean by BG
(a) Big gauge
(b) Broad gauge
(c) Buffer gauge
(d) None of these
[35] Hot weather patrolling is to be introduced in lwr territory
(a) When the rail temperature goes beyond tm + 10
(b) When the rail temperature goes beyond td + 10
(c) When the rail temperature goes beyond t d + 20
(d) When the air temperature goes beyond t m+ 20
[36] TGI can not assume the following value
(a) Less than 100
(b) Less than 50
(c) Less than 0
(d) Less than 25
[37] The width of ballast shoulder to be provided on the outside of the curve in case of LWR is provided on the reverse curve
(a) 500 mm
(b) 550 mm
(c) 600 mm
(d) 650 mm
[38] Quantity of ballast per metre on concrete sleeper track with 300mm ballast cushion on straight track
(a) 1.682 cum
(b) 2.158 cum
(c) 2.314 cum
(d) 1.962 cum
[39] Verification of imprest store is done
(a) Once in a year
(b) Once in two years
(c) Once in three years
(d) Once in 6 months
[40] What is the assessed GMT service life of 60 kg 90 UTS rail
(a) 650 GMT
(b) 600 GMT
(c) 800 GMT
(d) 500 GMT
[41] Can inadequate ballast depth affect maintenance of track?
(a) No it has no concern
(b) No but drainage will be affected
(c) Yes but the effect will be marginal
(d) Yes the formation pressure will increase
[42] Weight of concrete sleeper is
(a) 187 kg
(b) 287 kg
(c) 250 kg
(d) None
[43] The maximum degree of curve for BG curved track is
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 4
(d) 10
[44] The degree of curvature should be taken as the angle at the centre subtended by an Arc of ____metre in length
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 30.5
(d) 100
[45] When was the official language rules passed
(a) 1960
(b) 1964
(c) 1976
(d) 1980
[46] Each stockholder should verify his stock once every____
(a) Once in a year
(b) Once in two years
(c) Once in three years
(d) Once in 6 months
[47] Clearance between guard rail and running rail on bridges in case of BG track
(a) 300
(b) 225
(c) 275
(d) 50
[48] Radius of 3.5 degree curve will be
(a) 550
(b) 440
(c) 500
(d) 375
[49] Total number of sleepers required in 1 in 12 turnout____ in case of PSC sleepers
(a) 96
(b) 69
(c) 76
(d) 67
[50] They are____ in number approach sleepers are designed to run out cant from 1 in 20 to level
(a) 8
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 0
[51] What is the width of head of 52 kg rail section
(a) 70mm
(b) 75mm
(c) 67mm
(d) 60mm
[52] Station to station versine variations permitted for 110 kilometre per hour speed is____ mm
(a) 15 mm
(b) 10 mm
(c) 20 mm
(d) 40 mm
[53] The compensation for curve when added to the existing gradient should not exceed the
(a) Falling gradient
(b) Rising gradient
(c) Ruling gradient
(d) Exceptional gradient
[54] For level crossing with PSC sleepers in no case opening be delayed by more than years
(a) Half
(b) One
(c) One and half
(d) Two
[55] Which language is not included in the 8th schedule of the constitution
(a) Bodo
(b) Bhojpuri
(c) Dogri
(d) Nepali
[56] The maximum cant that can be provided on BG has to be
(a) 150mm
(b) 165mm
(c) 200mm
(d) 240mm
[57] The difference between actual cant provided on track and the cant calculated corresponding to minimum speed in the section
(a) Cant deficiency
(b) Cant excess
(c) Rate of change of cant
(d) Equilibrium cant
[58] Standard play in case of new wheel is
(a) 35 mm
(b) 38 mm
(c) 17.5 mm
(d) 19 mm
[59] Maximum length of LWR is
(a) 250 mtr
(b) 65 mtr
(c) 39 mtr
(d) One Block Section
[60] Full form of DMTR
(a) Detonator material transaction register
(b) Dead material transaction register
(c) Daily material transaction register
(d) None of these
[61] When more than one person holding competency certificate travels in a trolley, the _______is responsible for its safe working
(a) The head trolley man
(b) Trolley holder
(c) The man who is manning the brakes
(d) Higher official accompanying trolley
[62] After ignition of portion in a AT welding efforts should be made to follow a tapping time of very near to ___second
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
[63] An agreement enforceable by law is called
(a) Tender
(b) Contract
(c) Act
(d) Law
[64] Spacing between distance piece on platform platform line is
(a) 30 mtrs
(b) 20 mtrs
(c) 15 mtrs
(d) 45 mtrs
[65] What is the standard distance between lines in Broad gauge
(a) 1670 mm
(b) 1676 mm
(c) 1665 mm
(d) 1680 mm
[66] The maximum height above rail level for BG goods platform is ___mm
(a) 1500
(b) 1200
(c) 1065
(d) 1690
[67] Maximum gradient in station yard for new work
(a) 1 in 1200
(b) 1 in 260
(c) 1 in 400
(d) Ruling gradient
[68] In cuttings and high banks trolley refuges should be provided at ____meter interval
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
[69] What is the speed restriction on the deep screening site done by BCM and tamped by machine followed with DGS
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) 10
[70] In a straight line the maximum degree of turnout in the case of 1 in 12 is ____degree
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 4
(d) None of these
[71] Height of 60 kg rail is
(a) 150 mm
(b) 172 mm
(c) 167 mm
(d) 180 mm
[72] What is the maximum distance apart of trolley refuges in tunnels
(a) 30.5 mtrs
(b) 50 mtrs
(c) 80 mtrs
(d) 100 mtrs
[73] In which part of the Constitution are the article 343 to 351 that give information about official language available
(a) Part 3
(b) Part 10
(c) Part 15
(d) Part 17
[74] Minimum horizontal distance from centre of track to face of passenger platform coping
(a) 1670 mm
(b) 1680 mm
(c) 1675 mm
(d) 1905 mm
[75] Survey which is normally based on contour survey map is
(a) Preliminary
(b) Reconnaissance
(c) Detailed
(d) Final location
[76] Steep gradient which need extra engine for hauling is known as
(a) Pusher gradient
(b) Ruling gradient
(c) Reasonable gradient
(d) Momentum gradient
[77] According to official language rules under which region Andaman and Nicobar Island come
(a) Region A
(b) Region B
(c) Region C
(d) None
[78] Compensation on gradient for BG is ___ % of curvature
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
[79] Check rail should be provided on the ____inside of the rail of the curve
(a) Inner
(b) Outer
(c) Guard
(d) Inner and Outer both
[80] There should be no rail joint on running rails for a distance of____ metre on either side at a level crossing in SWR
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 6
[81] If the temperature rises above Td + 20 degree Celsius hot weather patrolling can be started by
(a) DEN
(b) AEN
(c) Keyman
(d) Gangmate
[82] Temporary diversion of more than ___kilometre in length with station will require CRS sanction
(a) 2
(b) 13
(c) 12
(d) Irrespective of length
[83] The minimum radius of the vertical curve on A route shall be kept as
(a) 4000
(b) 3000
(c) 175
(d) 2500
[84] Check rail gap in level crossing is ___to ___mm
(a) 41,44
(b) 51,57
(c) 55,59
(d) None
[85] Tilting of rails is done at a slope of
(a) 1 in 30
(b) 1 in 25
(c) 1 in 20
(d) 1 in 15
[86] The amount of earnest money to be deposited with tender is ____of tender value of work
(a) 0.05
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.03
(d) 0.02
[87] The top table of the guard rail should not be lower than that of the running rail by more than____ mm
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
[88] Which is the elementary Hindi course prescribed for Central Government employees
(a) Prabodh
(b) Praveen
(c) Pragya
(d) None
[89] ______Signal shows no light in on position
(a) Starter
(b) Home
(c) Distant
(d) Calling on
[90] Dynamic gauge for BG
(a) 1750 mm
(b) 1776 mm
(c) 1676 mm
(d) 1057 mm
[91] The contract shall not employ children below the age of ___as labourers
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 19
(d) 14
[92] In M + 7 sleeper density how many sleepers are there in a kilometre track
(a) 1660 numbers
(b) 1540 numbers
(c) 1310 numbers
(d) 1440 numbers
[93] Verification of tools and plant is done
(a) Once in a year
(b) Once in two years
(c) Once in three years
(d) Once in month
[94] At present how many languages are enlisted in the 8th schedule of the constitution
(a) 14
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 28
[95] What is the official language of the Union of India
(a) Hindi in devnagri script
(b) Hindi in Nandinagari script
(c) Maithili in devnagri script
(d) Sanskrit in Devanagari Script
[96] Lowest level of staff/ supervisor competent for renewal/ recoupment of fastening requiring lifting in lWR/CWR
(a) Gangmate
(b) Keyman
(c) Gangman
(d) PWS
[97] How many Hindi courses are prescribed for Central Government employees
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
[98] The maximum and minimum distance from centre of track to the face of any platform wall are ___mm and ___mm respectively
(a) 1540 and 1500
(b) 1905 and 1675
(c) 1680 and 1670
(d) 1690 and 1575
[99] CRS comes under the ministry of
(a) Ministry of Railway
(b) Ministry of Home affairs
(c) Civil aviation
(d) Ministry of Defence
[100] Formation slope is 1 in
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 40
[101] As per RDSO guidelines the permissible speed in case of 1 in 8.5 turnout curve switch is ___kilometre per hour
(a) 25
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) None of the above
[102] Maximum gradient in station yard for existing work
(a) 1 in 1200
(b) 1 in 260
(c) 1 in 400
(d) Ruling gradient
[103] Minimum clearance between Toe of open switch and stock rail for new works
(a) 115mm
(b) 120mm
(c) 95mm
(d) 110mm
[104] What do you mean by 60 kg rail
(a) Weight of rail in 1 metre
(b) Area of rail in one metre
(c) Weight of rail in 1 feet
(d) Volume of rail in 1 metre
[105] Height Gauge should be located at a minimum distance of ____metre from the get post
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 20
[106] When is Hindi Day celebrated every year
(a) 21.02.2020
(b) 18.04.2020
(c) 14.09.2020
(d) 24.10.2020
[107] In through packing ballast should be opened out on either side of rail seat to a depth of
(a) 15mm
(b) 25mm
(c) 35mm
(d) 50 mm
[108] ACD is
(a) Anti corrosion device
(b) Automatic corrosion detector
(c) Anti collision device
(d) None
[109] In store contracts where quantity is not specified is called
(a) Petty contact
(b) Zonal contact
(c) Rate contract
(d) None
[110] Flag man will take stand _____ from the last detonator
(a) 30 m
(b) Less than 45 m
(c) Not less than 45 m
(d) 5 m
WORKING PRINCIPLE OF TAMPING MACHINES
WORKING PRINCIPLE OF TAMPING MACHINES
WORKING PRINCIPLE OF TAMPING MACHINES
1. Lining systems are used on …………. machines
a) CSM & 3X only
b) UNO & DUO only
c) all tamping machines only
d) all track machines
2. ………….……………. Lining method/ methods are used on tamping machine
a) 3-point lining only
b) 4-point lining only
c) 3-point & 4-point
d) single chord & double chord
3. During lining machine measures deflection w.r.t. ………. & rectify it.
a) Reference rail
b) both rails
c) no rail
d) canted rail
4. During alignment machine corrects …………
a) Slew
b) versine
c) cant
d) cross level
5. Tamping machine can work on the horizontal curve having radius up to--
a) 100 mtrs
b) 150 mtrs
c) 200 mtrs
d) 176 mtrs
6. Tamping machine can work on the vertical curve having radius up to
a) 500 mtrs
b) 2500 mtrs
c) 3000 mtrs
d) 4000 mtrs
7. Tamping machine can normally work on max. gradient as per design
a) 1in 1000
b) 1in 100
c) 1in 150
d) 1in 400
8. Versine of curved track depends on …………….
a) radius of curve
b) measuring chord length
c) measurement method
d) all of a, b & c
9. Double chord lining system is used on …………… machine
a) UT Only
b) Old UNO & DUO only
c) CSM & Tamping Express
d) only CSM
10. In lining system, smoothing mode may be used in ……………….
a) 4 point lining method only
b) 3 point lining method only
c) 3 point & 4 point lining method both
d) None of these
11. Laser mode may be used in ……………….
a) 4 point lining method
b) 3 point lining method
c) 3 point & 4 point lining method both
d) None of these
12. Design mode may be used in ……………….
a) 4 point lining method
b) 3 point lining method
c) 3 point & 4 point lining method both
d) None of these
13. In 4-point lining method, no. of trollies used……………
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 1
14. In 4-point lining method, versine are measured at ………. points for comparison to control the lining
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
15. Standard formula for calculating versine, if chord length is BD & versine is required to be measured at point C in between BD is H=…………….
a) BCxCD/2R
b) BCxCD/R
c) BCxCD/4R
d) BCxCD/8R
16. What is versine ratio in four point lining method if front bogie is at D, lining bogie is at C, measuring bogie at B and rear bogie at A
a) i=ACxBC/ABxBD
b) i= AD xBD/ACxBC
c) i=ACxCD/ABxBD
d) i= AD xBD/ABxBC
17. Versine ratio in four-point lining method for CSM is ……………
a) 1.33
b) 1.2157
c) 1.62231
d) 1.507
18. In four point lining method, what assumption has been taken, if front bogie is at D, lining bogie is at C, measuring is at B and rear is at A
a) A & B are on corrected track and C & D is on incorrected track
b) A,B & D are on corrected track & C is on incorrected track
c) A,B are on corrected track & C&D is on incorrected track
d) A &D are on corrected track and B&C is on incorrected track
19. Residual Error or left over error in case of four point lining method in smoothing mode is ……….
a) Fd/n
b) 0
c) H1/H2
d) iH2
20. Residual Error or left over error in case of four point lining method in design mode is ……….
a) Fd/n
b) 0
c) H1/H2
d) iH2
21. error reduction ratio in case four point lining method is ……………………….
a) n=ACxBC/ABxBD
b) n= AD xBD/ACxBC
c) n=ACxCD/ABxBD
d) n= AD xBD/ABxBC
22. error reduction ratio in case of four point lining method for UNIMAT-3S (old)
a) 6
b) 6.47
c) 7.62
d) 6.276
23. The error reduction ratio is valid under the presumption that the Points ……. & ………. are on the perfect alignment
a) A&D
b) A,B & D
c) B&D
d) A &B
24. VERSINE COMPENSATION VALUE (Vm) is fed in ……………
a) 3 point lining only
b) 4 point lining only
c) 3 & 4 point lining
d) None of these
25.VERSINE COMPENSATION VALUE (Vm) is fed by……………
a) Slew potentiometer
b) Versine potentiometer
c) Correctionvalue potentiometer
d) cant potentiometer
26. Costant versine ratio is valid only for track having ……………radius
a) constant
b) variable
c) parabolic
d) Spiral
27. VERSINE COMPENSATION VALUE (Vm) depends on……………
a) Radius of curve only
b) Length of transition only
c) Radius and length of transition both
d) None of these
28. Direction of toggle switch for feeding vesine compensation value (Vm) when machine enters from Higher radius to lower radius is ……………
a) Outer side
b) Inner side
c) Any side
d) Don’t depend
29. Constant for VERSINE COMPENSATION VALUE (Vm) for CSM is ………………….
a) 83000
b) 82485
c) 88333
d) 84000
30. V- value for compound curve having radius R1 & R2 (R1 >R2) is ……………….
a) V2-V1
b) V1-V2
c) V1+V2
d) None of these
31. Residual error in the 4 point lining method is approximate…………of the 3 point lining method
a) Half
b) Two times
c) equal
d) 1.33 times
32. Why do we not use 4 point lining method in straight track in smoothing mode inspite of half residual error than 3 point lining method
a) Due to residual error
b) Due to Vm value
c) Due to error accumulation
d) None of these
33. Residual error or left over error in 4 point lining mehod in design mode is--
a) Fd/n
b) 1.33 H2
c) Zero
d) H1/H2
34. In 3 point lining method,number of trollies used…………
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
35. In 3 point lining method, versine is measured at ……………point
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) no need of measurement
36. In 3 point lining method, actual versine measured by lining transducer is compared with ………………….
a) H2
b) iH2
c) Theoretical value fed manually
d) None of these
37. In 3 point lining method, theoretical versine is being fed by …………….
a) Slew potentiometer
b) Versine potentiometer
c) Correction value potentiometer
d) None of these
38. What is versine formula for CSM in three point lining method
a) H=25000/R
b) H=23617/R
c) H=24000/R
d) H=29000/R
39. The trolleys in lining system are pneumatically pressed against……………
a) Datum rail
b) Opposite of datum rail
c) Any side
d) Both rail
40. what is error reduction ratio in 3 point lining method
a) n=BD/BC
b) n=BC/BD
c) n=ACxCD/ABxBD
d) n= AD xBD/ABxBC
41. Value of residual error in three point lining method for CSM is ……………….
a) 1/3
b) 1/3.138
c) 1/3.12
d) 1/2.91
42. Radius of straight track is ………………….
a) zero
b) infinite
c) Depend on length of track
d) None of these
43. Versine of straight track is ………………….
a) zero
b) infinite
c) Depend on length of track
d) None of these
44. In three point lining method, only Versine is measured by lining transducer and same is compared with theoretical Versine, which is fed by Versine potentiometer from front cabin ,but in straight track why do we not feed versine in versine potentiometer.
a) Does not required
b) Versine is zero
c) By default normal setting of Versine potentiometer is zero
d) None of these
45. In 3 point lining method for circular curve, we can calculate the Versine by the formula
a) H= AD xBD/ABxBC
b) H=ACxCD/ABxBD
c) H=BCxCD/2R
d) H=BCxCD/4R
46. In 3 point lining method,for curve, radius & length of transition is given by JE/SE(P.Way) are R=250 mtrs & L= 50 mtrs respectively. Hv (versine cumulation value) or CSM will be
a) 94 mm
b) 140 mm
c) 0
d) 100 mm
47. Calculation formula for rate of change of Versine constant throughout transition portion.
a) VL/R
b) L/V
c) Vx L
d) V/L (mm/mtrs)
48. In 3 point lining method, slew is fed from ……………potentiometer
a) versine
b) slew
c) General lift
d) cant
49. In 3 point lining method, in a trasitioned curve having same transition length on both side, costant for versine of two points i.e. A (during straight to tranistion) & C(Circular to transition) is ………….
a) Always different
b) same
c) Same but opposite side
d) None of these
50. In 3 point lining method, versine for section A can be calculated by the formula
a) System constant for A/R
b) System constant B/R
c) operation constant value for A/(Rx L)
d) None of these
51. What is full form of LASER in the lining system of tamping machine
a) Levelling &Alignment by Service Engineer
b) Long alignment by surveying of existing rail
c) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation
d) None of these
52. Which machines are equipped with Automatic Guiding Computer (ALC) for track geometry measurement and LASER Sighting System (LSS) for lining besides other features for design tamping
a) Tamping express
b) UNO & old DUO
c) UNI-3S
d) BCM
53. During survey by chord system,the lining errors are to be determined by measuring offsets at every ……. intervals on …. chord on straight track
a) 10 m & 20 m
b) 5 m & 20 m
c) 5 m & 40 m
d) 10 m & 40 m
54. During survey by chord system,the lining errors are to be determined by measuring offsets at every …. intervals on …………. chord on a curved track
a) 10 m & 20 m
b) 5 m & 20 m
c) 5 m & 10 m
d) None of these
55. The long-wave track geometry faults become significant with the …………. in speed of trains.
a) increase
b) decrease
c) constant
d) None of these
56. LASER lining is used on straight track in 3-point mode to remove …………….
a) Long misalignment or false curve
b) Short misalignment curve
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
57. In ALC, measuring method is used when track data is …………………
a) Known
b) Not known
c) Not depend on track data
d) None of these
58. During ALC measuring mode,track can measured by the tamping machine in
a) Reverse direction only
b) Working direction only
c) Both direction
d) None of these
59. While working in ALC measuring mode, checking of working order of ……………… is necessary before the start of the measuring run to avoid errors at the start of the measuring run, due to poor bogie alignment or incorrect pre-loading.
a) The lining system only
b) The lifting system only
c) Both a & b
d) None of these
60. In ALC working, the lining system has to be set to ……………….
a) 4- point only
b) 3-point only
c) 3-point or 4- point
d) None of these
61. Versine potentiometer converts versine value to electrical signal at the rate of ………………….(-ve for RH side and +ve for LH side).
a) 25mv/mm
b) 50 mv/mm
c) 2 mv/mm
d) 10 mv/mm
62. Before starting calibration of versine potentiometer, +10V & -10V to this potentiometer should be checked and adjusted by potentiometer P1 & P2 in …………PCB of front cabin
a) EK 813SV
b) EK 345
c) EK 290
d) EK 348
63. Slew potentiometer is provided in front cabin on panel ………
a) B4
b) B2
c) B3
d) B1
64. Slew potentiometer converts slew value to electrical signal at the rate of
a) 50 mv/mm
b) 25 mv/mm
c) 2 mv/mm
d) 10 mv/mm
65. Tamping Machine corrects the leveling error in ……………. mode/modes.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) Four
66. In smoothening mode, general lift over the Base rail is generally …………. .
a) fixed
b) varies
c) Fixed or varies
d) None of these
67. In smoothening mode, Longitudinal level and Cross-level are corrected
a) completely
b) Not completly
c) Cannot say
d) None of these
68. In Design or Precision mode, ……………… is fed by general lift potentiometer over base rail.
a) General lift
b) Target height
c) slew
d) Versine
69. In Design or Precision mode, ……………… is/are removed
a) Short waves defect only
b) Long waves defect only
c) Both a&b
d) None of these
70. General Lift should always be …………. than the largest dip which shall be ascertained by P.Way supervisor in advance
a) less
b) more
c) equal
d) None of these
71. for single insertion, normal general lift value should be …………in PSC sleeper track
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 20 mm
d) 30 mm
72. For double Insertion, general Lift valuein PSC sleeper should exceed
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 20 mm
d) 30 mm
73. While tamping, ramp in & ramp outof ……………. should be given to the track .
a) 1 in 1000
b) 1 in 100
c) 1 in 360
d) 1 in 720
74. If leveling offset is LR, distance between front tower to measuring tower is "b" & measuring tower to rear tower is "a", then level error is ……………
a) LRxa/(a+b)
b) LR/ab
c) LRxa/b
d) LRxb/a
75. Residual error ratio in lifting for UNO/DUO machine is …………….
a) 1.33
b) 3
c) 2.775
d) 3.326
76. For carrying out attention to longitudinal profile of railway track, one rail is kept as ……………………………
a) Base or datum rail
b) Cant rail
c) Cess rail
d) Non cess rail
77. While selecting base rail on straight track in single line and middle track in multiple lines, ……………………………. is kept as Base Rail
a) Non cess rail
b) Lower/more disturbed track
c) Higher/less disturbed rail
d) None of these
78. Generally while selecting base rail on curved track…………………………is kept as base rail.
a) Non cess rail
b) Lower rail
c) Higher rail
d) Any one
79. In Plasser Tampers, direction of Cant Selector Switch is to be always kept
a) Same side
b) Opposite to base rail
c) Does not say
d) None of these
80. In Russian Tamper, ………………….is provided for selecting Base Rail.
a) Cant selecter switch
b) Slew selecter switch
c) Base selector switch
d) None of these
81. In DUOMATIC/UNOMATIC, superelevation is fed from …………………….
a) Working cabin
b) Front cabin
c) Both cabin
d) Any cabin
82. In levelling system, there are …………… height transducers
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) One
83. Longitudinal levels are measured by ……………….in levelling system
a) pendulum
b) General lift potentiometer
c) Height transducer
d) Cant potentiometer
84. In levelling system, front pendulam isused for correction of ………….automatically
a) Longitudinal level
b) Cross level
c) versine
d) Twist
85. In levelling system, middle pendulam is used for ……………………………
a) Cross level correction
b) Indication of cross level
c) Cannot say
d) Twist
86. The output of the rear pendulum serves …….functions in CSM
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
87. Most importantfunction ofrearpendulaminTampingExpress is
a) Cross level correction
b) Longitudinal level correction
c) Versine correction
d) Twist correction
88. Recording of cross level is being done with the help of …………………………
a) Front pendulum
b) Measuring pendulum
c) Rear pendulum
d) None of these
89. In which machine, we can fed super elevation/cant in both the cabins
a) UNO/DUO
b) CSM
c) Tamping Express
d) UNIMAT
90. In CSM, superelevation potentiometer is provided in ……………. Cabin
a) front
b) working
c) both
d) none of these
91. Correction value can be calculated by the formula
a) K= 100 x SE/R
b) K=50 x SE/R
c) K= 50 x SE/(R*L)
d) None of these
92. Front pendulam used for sending signals in tamping machine for
a) versine
b) Cross level
c) Cannot say
d) Both a&b
93. …………….machines are used for twist correction.
a) UNO & DUO
b) UNI-2S & 3S
c) CSM & Tamping Express
d) None of these
94. What is full form of GVA
a) General versine addition
b) Geometry value assesment
c) Geo value access
d) None of these
95. What is full form of ALC
a) Automatic logic control
b) Automatic guiding computer
c) Automatic lining control
d) Automatic LASER Control
96. In ALC, there is ……… mode for correction.
a) one
b) two
c) three
d) None of these
ANSWERS
1. c
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. d
6. a
7.b
8.d
9. a
10. c
11. b
12. c
13. c
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. b
18. b
19. a
20. b
21. b
22. c
23. d
24. b
25. b
26. a
27. c
28. a
29. b
30. a
31. a
32. c
33. c
34. c
35. a
36. c
37. b
38. b
39. a
40. a
41. b
42. b
43. a
44. c
45. c
46. a
47. d
48. b
49. c
50. c
51. c
52. a
53. c
54. a
55. a
56. c
57. b
58. c
59. c
60. b
61. b
62. a
63. a
64. a
65. b
66. a
67. b
68. b
69. c
70. b
71. d
72. d
73. a
74. a
75. d
76. a
77. c
78. b
79. b
80. c
81. b
82. a
83. c
84. b
85. b
86. c
87. d
88. c
89. c
90. b
91. b
92. b
93. c
94. b
95. b
96. c
Page updated
Google Sites
Report abuse