Source one for my research into Christian predestination is from the Bible itself. This is where the issue was first presented to me, and although some might shrug it off as a doctrinal fallacy, I find the way in which Paul words his thoughts in Romans 8 very interesting. Starting in verse 18, Paul switches topics to discuss the present suffering of believers who are waiting expectantly on the return of Christ. Due to their persecution, many Christians at that time were living under brutal conditions, which Paul explains away by stating, “... [C]reation was subjected to frustration, not by its own choice, but by the will of the one who subjected it, in hope that the creation itself will be liberated from its bondage to decay and brought into the freedom and glory of the children of God” (Romans 8:20-21). Paul goes on encouraging believers that God is on their side, noting that “... [The Holy Spirit] intercedes for God’s people in accordance with the will of God” (Romans 8:27). Finally, Paul reassures those reading his letter by proclaiming the most problematic paragraph yet in Romans 8:28-30 :
And we know that in all things God works for the good of those who love him, who[i] have been called according to his purpose. For those God foreknew he also predestined to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brothers and sisters. And those he predestined, he also called; those he called, he also justified; those he justified, he also glorified.
This paragraph is particularly problematic to me for several reasons. Firstly, Paul seems to contradict himself in the middle of his sentence-- how can those who are predestined also be called? Does not calling in and of itself imply a willingness to follow or listen to ones callings? If not, then what does Paul actually mean by the predestined in this sense? Who is affected by this predestination and why? Aside from the word predestined, Paul also mentions the word foreknew. What is the difference between these two phrases-- there must be one, as he implicitly declares that God both foreknew and predestined certain believers.
However, I do not just have a problem with verses 28-30, but also verses 20-21. Paul’s statement about God subjecting creation to turmoil brings into question many attributes of the Christian God as we see Him today. One may even say that the God Paul presents here has such divine, ultimate authority, that He has punished humanity to a fallen state just so that He could save them. If not, and God created mankind without knowledge that we would fall into sin, then man implicitly has free will to obey or disobey God. But how is this complicated by Paul’s belief that God ultimately had a will for humanity at every moment? Finally, when considering verse 27, do we only have free-will when it matches up with some list of righteous alternatives that God has made? If the only intercedes according to God’s will, does this mean that if our actions are outside the will of God, he is not listening? Ultimately, how can any action truly be outside the will of God if he has predestined those he has called? I aim to figure out what both Arminians and Calvinists believe on this topic, and how their views have changed over time to create an increasingly nuanced argument for and against Christian predestination.
Holy Bible: New International Version. Zondervan, 2018.