Which scenario best exemplifies Charles Darwin’s theory of natural selection?
A Aaron has larger muscles than Earl because Aaron lifts weights and Earl does not
B A natural disaster wipes out all of the living creatures on a particular island
C An ape learns how to use a new tool by observing another ape use that tool
D A baby spreads out its toes in response to having its foot stroked
E A mutation in a species of lizards that allows them to better blend into their surroundings leads to greater survival and more offspring possessing this mutation in a later generation
Which of the follow scenarios is the best example of natural selection?
A During a drought, the foliage in a region turns brown. More brownish moths than whitish moths from a particular breed survive predation and produce more offspring. Subsequent generations of moths have a higher percentage of brownish moths than the generation before.
B During a hurricane, both brownish and whitish moths are killed in approximately equal numbers by the storm. The population of moths is substantially reduced.
C Just before the moth breeding season, the weather conditions result in an unusual abundance of food. With so much food, the moth population increases dramatically, regardless of color.
D An increase in predation substantially reduces the population of adult brownish and whitish moths. Relatively few moths survive to breed, and the population is reduced in the next generation.
E Farmers in the region spray a pesticide that kills many of the moths in the region, as well as several other types of insects. The population of moths is substantially reduced.
Areas that have a large prevalence of malaria, such as Africa, have a high frequency of children who have sickle cell anemia or are carriers of the trait. What role does the concept of natural selection play in this trend?
A The climate in Africa is particularly suitable for both malaria and sickle cell anemia, and thus both are able to flourish in the region.
B Being a carrier of, or having sickle cell anemia is adaptive in this region, because it protects against malaria. Subsequently, children born with sickle cell anemia are less likely to die from malaria.
C People with sickle cell anemia are more prone to contracting malaria, which explains why the incidence of both is so high.
D Having malaria as a child changes women’s genetic makeup, making them more likely to pass on the sickle cell gene to their child.
E Areas with a large prevalence of malaria often do not have adequate medical care and thus there are higher frequencies of a large number of diseases.
Ruth and Debbie are identical twins who were raised by the same family. Vince and Frankie are identical twins who were separated at birth and raised by different families. According to research on the heritability of personality traits, Ruth's and Debbie's personalities are statistically
A more likely to be similar to one another than are Vince’s and Frankie’s personalities
B likely to be as similar and dissimilar to one another as are Vince’s and Frankie’s personalities
C more likely to be dissimilar to one another than are Vince’s and Frankie’s personalities
D less likely to match on the personality dimensions of agreeableness and extraversion than are Vince and Frankie but not on other personality dimensions
E less likely to match on the personality dimensions of openness and neuroticism than are Vince and Frankie but not on other personality dimensions
Johnny often hits his brother even though his brother does not do anything to antagonize him. Johnny’s aggression is most likely due to a combination of
A his genetic makeup, the fact that aggression can be evolutionarily adaptive, and a lack of neuroplasticity
B developmental delays, the fact that aggression can be evolutionarily adaptive, and a lack of neuroplasticity
C the environment he grew up in, developmental delays, and the fact that aggression can be evolutionarily adaptive
D his genetic makeup, developmental delays, and a lack of neuroplasticity
E his genetic makeup, the environment he grew up in, and the fact that aggression can be evolutionarily adaptive
Madeline has previously been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. She has an identical twin sister, Josephine, and a nonidentical sister, Abigail. Neither of Madeline’s sisters have previously been diagnosed with major depressive disorder. Which of the following statements is true of Madeline’s sisters?
A Because their sister has been diagnosed, it is highly likely that both sisters will be diagnosed with major depressive disorder at some point in their lives.
B Neither sister is likely to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder because it is rare for family members to be diagnosed with the same disorder.
C The sisters are equally likely to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder in response to a stressful or traumatic event.
D Josephine is less likely to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder than Abigail in response to a stressful or traumatic event.
E Josephine is more likely to be diagnosed with major depressive disorder than Abigail in response to a stressful or traumatic event.
Which of the following endocrine glands may explain unusually tall height in a 12 year old?
A Pituitary
B Adrenal
C Pancreas
D Parathyroid
E Testes
Female sex hormones are released by
A Parathyroid glands
B Pituitary glands
C Hypothalamus
D Thalamus
E Ovaries
Abnormalities in calcium regulation are most likely to arise from problems with
A The gonads
B The thymus
C The parathyroid gland
D The hypothalamus
E The pineal gland
The part of the endocrine system that is responsible for overseeing and regulating the release of hormones across the entire body is the
A Pancreas
B Hypothalamus
C Adrenal glands
D Pineal gland
E Thyroid
Which chemical is most closely associated with sleep?
A Cortisol
B Oxytocin
C Melatonin
D Testosterone
E Estrogen
Which hormone is released when a person is under stress?
A Progesterone
B Testosterone
C Estrogen
D Oxytocin
E Cortisol
A person whose body is not producing enough testosterone is most likely to exhibit
A overly aggressive behavior
B fatigue
C memory loss
D increased hunger
E increased thirst
The hormone most associated with the fight or flight response is
A Oxytocin
B Epinephrine
C Testosterone
D Estrogen
E Dopamine
The medulla oblongata is a part of the
A Cerebellum
B Prefrontal cortex
C Occipital lobe
D Brain stem
E Corpus callosum
In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal travels from the _____________ of a single neuron
A Cell body to the axon to the dendrites.
B Dendrites to the axon to the cell body.
C Axon to the cell body to the dendrites.
D Dendrites to the cell body to the axon.
E Axon to the dendrites to the cell body.
The slowdown of neural communication in multiple sclerosis involves degeneration of the
A Thesholds
B Dendrites
C Endocrine Gland
D Pituitary gland
E Myelin sheath
Within a single neuron the action potential
A Travels in one direction toward the axon terminal
B Is generated in the dendrites
C Will be slower if the myelin is present
D Crosses the synapses to the adjacent neurons
E Depends on the movement of charged calcium atoms.
Psychoactive drugs interfere with normal neural transmission. Where does this interference take place?
A Axon
B Cell body
C Myelin sheath
D Synapse
E Hormones
A person with schizophrenia may have an overactive dopamine system. Drugs used to treat this disorder prevent the action of dopamine by keeping it from binding with its receptors. These drugs are
A Agonists
B Somatic
C Sympathetic
D Selectively permeable
E Antagonists
A neuron sends a signal along its
A dendrite
B Optic chiasm
C Axon
D Neurotransmitter
E Nucleus
The fatty casing that helps speed up the neural transmissions of a neuron is called the
A Medulla
B Myelin sheath
C Cerebrum
D Soma
E Corpus callosum
Which of the following describes what happens when a neuron sends a signal?
A The neuron goes from being positively charged to briefly being negatively charged, and finally returns to being positively charged again. The magnitude of the negative charge is fixed regardless of the strength of the input signal it receives.
B The neuron goes from being negatively charged to briefly being positively charged, and finally returns to being negatively charged again. The magnitude of the negative charge is fixed regardless of the strength of the input signal it receives.
C The neuron goes from being negatively charged to briefly being positively charged, and finally returns to being negatively charged again. The magnitude of the positive charge varies depending on the strength of the input signal it receives.
D The neuron goes from being positively charged to briefly being negatively charged, and finally returns to being positively charged again. The magnitude of the negative charge varies depending on the strength of the input signal it receives.
E The neuron goes from being negatively charged to being positively charged, and then it remains at that level until it fires again. The magnitude of the positive charge varies depending on the strength of the input signal it receives.
If a body does not have enough potassium, how might that affect neuronal firing?
A The neurons will fire too easily because there will not be enough negatively charged ions to maintain a negatively charged resting state.
B The neurons will fire too easily because there will not be enough positively charged ions to maintain a positively charged resting state.
C The neurons will struggle to fire because there will not be enough positively charged ions to trigger the firing of the neuron.
D The neurons will struggle to fire because there will not be enough negatively charged ions to trigger the firing of the neuron.
E The neurons will struggle to fire because potassium binds to receptors and inhibits neuronal firing.
At a synapse, neurotransmitters released by the sending neuron do which of the following?
A They combine with neurotransmitters released by the receiving neuron.
B They combine with neurotransmitters released by other sending neurons.
C They pass through channels into the receiving neuron.
D They bind to receptors at the receiving neuron, which opens ion channels.
E They bind to ions in the synapse, which creates a chemical reaction that causes the receiving neuron to fire.
A Mimicking neurotransmitters that bind to neural receptors to cause neural firing
B Blocking receptors to prevent other neurotransmitters from binding to the neural receptors
C prompting the production of neurotransmitters
D strengthening the connections between neurons
E raising the threshold at which the neuron will fire
What effect do agonists have?
A They decrease the likelihood that a person will get a good night’s sleep.
B They stimulate the gastric system, leading to increased hunger.
C They decrease the likelihood that a postsynaptic neuron will fire.
D They increase the likelihood that a postsynaptic neuron will fire.
E They lead to a decreased sex drive
A drug that is used to treat seizures functions by preventing inhibitory neurotransmitters from returning to the presynaptic neuron. This slows the rate of neurons firing by increasing the amount of the inhibitory neurotransmitter in the synapse. The drug is most likely to be classified as a
A GABA reuptake inhibitor (GRI)
B selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)
C hallucinogen
D stimulant
E beta blocker
The parietal lobe is most involved in
A processing sensory information
B storing information in long-term memory
C coordinating complex motor movements
D regulating emotions
E triggering the fight-or-flight response
Carl Wernicke discovered the region of the brain that is responsible for
A visual perception
B sense of balance
C memory consolidation
D language comprehension
E language production
Which of the following best describes a major role of the thalamus?
A It regulates body temperature
B It regulates hunger.
C It regulates the autonomic nervous system.
D It relays most sensory signals to the cortex.
E it relays olfactory signals to the cortex.
The phenomenon of declining physiological effects of taking a drug after sustained use is referred to as
A Endorphin release
B Withdrawal
C Long-term potentiation
D Tolerance
E A relapse
Which of the following groups of characteristics best describes the REM sleep stage?
A Fast breathing, relatively high heart rate, relatively high blood pressure Fast breathing, relatively high heart rate, relatively high blood pressure
B Possible muscle contractions and sensations of falling
C Likelihood of sleepwalking and sleep talking
D Slow breathing, low heart rate, low blood pressure
E Acting out dreams and bed-wetting
Sleep paralysis typically occurs in people who are
A Over the age of 65
B Woken up while sleep walking
C Overweight
D Snoring
E In REM sleep
The explanation that holds that dreams are merely the brain’s attempt to make sense of meaningless patterns of brain activity during sleep is called the
A Activation-synthesis theory
B Psychoanalytic theory
C Social learning theory
D Cognitive theory
E Evolutionary theory
The psychodynamic theory of dreaming would postulate that
A time spent dreaming helps with problem solving and creativity
B people sleep more after they have engaged in strenuous physical activity
C dreams are the brain’s way of making sense of random neural activity
D dreams fulfill unconscious wishes
E lions sleep more than deer
Waking up frequently, loud snoring, silent pauses in breathing, and sleepiness during the day are symptoms of
A Somnambulism
B Sleep apnea
C Narcolepsy
D Circadian rhythm sleep disorders
E Insomnia
Michael Gazzaniga is best known for
A showing that cats can learn to escape puzzle boxes
B conditioning Little Albert to be fearful of rats
C studying attachment styles in children
D studying false memories
E studying split-brain patients
In a study mimicking Roger Sperry’s work, Dr. Kornhauser compared the responses of split-brain patients against a control group of neurotypical participants. In his study, participants focused on a dot in the center of a computer screen and objects are presented in either the left or right visual field. After seeing the object, the participants named the object. The results of the experiment are presented on the right.
What is the most appropriate conclusion Dr. Kornhauser can draw from the results?
A Split-brain patients cannot process objects using the right half of their brain and thus are not able to identify the objects in the right visual field.
B Split-brain patients have a much faster reaction time to objects in the right visual field due to having a more direct connection between the visual cortex and their language center.
C Split-brain patients have a much faster reaction time to objects in the right visual field due to having a more direct connection between the visual cortex and their language center.
D Because the connection between the right visual cortex and language center has been severed, split-brain patients are not able to retrieve the name of objects seen in the left visual field.
E Because accuracy in the control group was low, the objects he used were likely too difficult for the participants.
Separating the monkeys into two groups, researchers created a lesion in one area of the brains of the monkeys in one group and a lesion in a different area of the brains of the monkeys in the second group. The researchers then tested the monkeys’ performance on the two tasks. The figures below show the monkeys’ accuracy on the two tasks.
The lesions were most likely performed in the
A Frontal lobe for Group 1 and the occipital lobe for Group 2
B Occipital lobe for Group 1 and the frontal lobe for Group 2
C Temporal lobe for Group 1 and the parietal lobe for Group 2
D Occipital lobe for Group 1 and the parietal lobe for Group 2
E Parietal lobe for Group 1 and the temporal lobe for Group 2