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I have seen that minors are about semitones and majors about whole tones, but, if a major thirds goes up on 4 semitones, but so does perfect four seemingly. Well, they say it's 5 semitones (reasonably), but I have seen compass examples and it seems the same as 4 semitones.

.Also, if a second is a way to get through the terms major second/minor second, which minor second is one semitone and a major second is a whole tone, a perfect four would follow the major pattern or the minor patter? I mean, if it's five semitones, it would be considered a minor, because it's 'whole tone + whole tone + semitone' and not 'whole tone + whole tone'/'whole tone + whole tone + whole tone', basically, it's not an natural number. So, a perfect four would be equivalent to minor four and then next would be a major four? Because if a perfect four is 5 semitones and a minor 5 is 7, there must be something in the middle, would that be M4?

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Does perfect four only refer to what would be a minor five or it refers to 4ths in general, if so how would that work, because if a P4 is 5 semitones, there would lack a 6, or a M4, how could that be any of the 4ths if it does not generate 5 and 6 instead of just 5?

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I don't know how things are with resources for training/introducing newcomers to Scala nowadays, but back in the day I've been finding that it was indeed not perfect. But I know for sure that there are many more courses and books on Scala today (and oh boy I wish I had them 7 years ago). To name a few:

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A bit confused at the moment regarding when a perfect fourth is classed as a consonance, and when it is classed as a dissonance. I have read here on Stack Exchange, that perfect fourth intervals are consonant when they are inverted perfect 5ths, unless they involve the bass- (eg 64-53).

In my example, bar 22 is Dm7 (ii7) in third inversion, followed by G (V) in first inversion in bar 23. The parts concerned are alto and tenor (alto clef). I would like to put a G (anticipation- highlighted) in the alto part. This non chord note forms a dissonance of a second with the F in the tenor part below. In the next bar, the two voices form a 4th, D-G (two chord notes of the GM chord). Is this fourth classed as a consonance, because it is an inverted perfect 5th in the upper voices? Or is it a dissonance, meaning that putting in a second interval before it is problematic?

Basically the dissonance of the fourth is in relation to the bass. That is why the fourth in a first inversion 6/3 chord isn't treated as a dissonance. Relative to the bass the intervals of the upper voices are a third and a sixth.

The cadential and the pedal are the given a contrapuntal treatment similar to a suspension. There will be a fourth and sixth above a bass and those two tones resolve by stepping down to a third and fifth. Passing and arpeggiated move differently and involve movement not of the upper voices, but of the bass. In passing types the bass moves between the root and third of a chord like I V6/4 I6 or I6 V4/6 I and in arpeggiated types the bass just steps through the various chord tones like I I6 I6/4 I. You can find scores illustrating these in a good harmony textbook.

I think you've got it right. The fourth is a consonance if it's in the upper part of a chord (like E-G-C a C63). It's a dissonance when it's not part of the chord (as any other note would be.) It's a dissonance against the bass as this (at least since tonality became common) implies a 6-4 chord like G-E-C-G which is used in a few idiomatic places.

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