Pharmacology review - II

 
Pharmacology Midterm review
 

Question
Answer

What is the rate-limiting factor for drug distribution?  

blood flow  

What term is used to describe a drug which binds to a receptor and has an action similar to that of an endogenous chemical?  

  agonist

What can drugs combine with in addition to receptors?  

enzymes, transport proteins, and nucleic acids  

By what process can one drug increase the metabolism of both itself and other drugs?  

induction  

What form of a drug crosses cell membranes easily?  

nonionized  

What term is used to decribe the situation when the effect of two drugs given together is more intense or longer in duration than the sum of their individual actions?  

synergism  

What term is used to describe the phemomenon in which elevating a dose of drug no longer improves the clinical effect for that drug?  

ceiling effect  

What term is used to describe the strength by which a particular messenger binds to its receptor site?  

affinity  

What is the study of the activity of drugs within the body known as?  

pharmacokinetics  

What term is used to describe a severe response to a chemical that is characterized by life-threatening respiratory distress and shock?  

anaphylactic reaction  

An all-inclusive effect on the whole body is also called a(n)______ effect.  

systemic  

From what two organs are most drugs eliminated?  

kidney and liver  

What happens during an oxidative metabolic reaction?  

The drug loses an electron and gains an oxygen atom.  

How does grapefruit interact with certain drugs?  

It contains a compound that can inhibit intestinal cytochrome P-450, allowing more drug to be absorbed.  

What is a classic example of a drug that is eliminated by a zero-order pharmacokinetic process?  

alcohol  

Why are the intestines the major site of drug absorption after oral administration of drugs?  

They have a large surface area from which to absorb drugs.  

If a drug has a half-life of 6 hours and a starting blood concentration of 100mg/kg, how long will it take until the concentration of the drug in the blood is 25mg/kg?  

12 hours  

In what way are the capillaries in the central nervous system (CNS) different from other capillaries?  

They are enveloped by glial cells, which present additional barriers against water-soluble compounds.  

What does bioavailability reflect?  

The fraction of an administered dose that is available to the target tissue.  

What does the abbreviation ADME stand for?  

absorption, distribution, metabolism, elimination  

What is the most serious allergic reaction to penicillins?  

anaphylaxis  

What is the biggest challenge in developing a new antibiotic?  

killing the bacteria without harming the patient.  

What bacterial pathway do sulfonamides interfere with?  

folic acid biosynthesis  

Which of the following is not a mechanism by which bacteria develop antibiotic resistance?  

metabolism  

Which of the following is an example of a gram-positive bacterium and infection it causes?  

staphylococcus resulting in toxic shock syndrome.  

What are two general signs that an infection is bacterial in origin?  

white blood cell count above 12,000 and fever above 101 degrees Fahrenheit.  

What is true of a bacteriostatic antibiotic?  

It inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria.  

By which century were the organisms that cause cholera, syphilis, and leprosy isolated and identified?  

20th  

Which of the following drugs is associated with an adverse effect known as Red Man's syndrome?  

vancomycin  

Which statement regarding linezolis (Zyvox) is incorrect?  

It should be stored in clear glass containers.  

What was the first true class of antibiotics?  

sulfonamides  

What term is used to describe antibiotic treatment that is begun before the results of the organism culture have been returned?  

empirical  

Which of the following classes of antibiotics inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomes?  

tetracyclines  

Which of the following drugs is classified as a macrolide?  

erythromycin  

What are the bacteria that require oxygen to survive known as?  

aerobic  

What is the most frequent form of bacterial resistance to antibiotics?  

destruction of the antibiotic by bacterial enzymes  

What type of infections are aminoglycosides such as amikacin or kanamycin used to treat?  

sepsis  

Why should the counting tray be swabbed with alcohol after dispensing an antibiotic?  

to prevent cross-contamination  

When this drug is dispensed, a "Do not drink alcohol" sticker must be attached to the container.  

metronidazole  

How do third-generation cephalosporins differ from earlier cephalosporins?  

improved activity against gram-negative bacteria  

Why is it more difficult to develop antiviral drugs than it is to develop antibiotics?  

Because viruses utilize the host (patient) cell processes, killing them is often toxic to the patient.  

Which of the following choices represents a class of antiretroviral drugs?  

nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI), non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI), protease inhibitor (PI), and fusion inhibitor  

What is common about the mechanism of action of antifungal drugs?  

Antifungals interfere with the synthesis of ergosterol, a building block for fungal cell membranes.  

What is an example of a chronic viral infection?  

herpes  

How can antibiotics worsen fungal infections?  

Antibiotics may kill the body's natural flora, which tend to keep fungi in check.  

Which of the following antifungal drugs should be taken with a fatty meal and can be used safely in children?  

griseofulvin  

What is a route by which most common viruses spread?  

direct contact, ingestion of contaminated food and water, ingalation of airborne particles, and exposure of contaminated body fluids and/or comtaminated equipment  

What pair of viruses below are examples of latent viruses?  

herpes and HIV  

What is a common target of fungal infections?  

nails  

What is another name for an individual virus particle?  

virion  

What is becoming a common dosing method for treating fungal nail infections?  

pulse dosing (one week per month)  

Which of the following drugs is used to treat influenza A or influenza B?  

rimantadine, zanamivir, and oseltamivir  

Which drug or drug class listed below is least likely to be used to treat side effects associated with amphotericin B?  

penicillin  

Which of the antiviral drugs listed below is also effective in treating patients with parkinsonism?  

amantadine  

Which of the following drugs acts by preventing the HIV virus from entering immune cells?  

enfuvirtide  

What aspect of the fungal cell wall is affected by amphotericin B?  

permeability  

What term is used to describe a specific molecule produced by B-lymphocyles with help from T helper cells and other mechanisms?  

immunoglobulin  

Patients taking which of the following drugs should not drive at night?  

viroconazole  

How are fungal and human cells similar?  

They both have a defined nucleus  

Which of the following drugs is classified as a nucloside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)?  

abacavir  

Which of the following drugs is an example of a selective 5-HT receptor agonist?  

sumatriptan (Imitrex)  

Which local anesthetic drug does not relax vascular smooth muscle?  

cocaine  

Which of the following narcotics is a controlled substance?  

morphine, codeine, oxycodone, and meperidine  

Which of the following drugs can be used to reverse the effects of a narcotic?  

naloxone (Narcan)  

Which narcotic is the standard against which all other narcotics are measured or compared?  

morphine  

What is not an aspect of balanced anesthesia?  

hypertension  

What neurotransmitter is also known as adrenaline?  

epinephrine  

What is the only neuromuscular blocker that acts via a depolarizing mechanism?  

succinylcholine (Quelicin)  

What class of drugs can be used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers?  

anticholinesterases  

Which of the following general anesthetics is administered intravenously?  

ketamine (Ketalar)  

What class of drugs may be used to treat migraine headaches?  

triptans  

Following injection with a local anesthetic, what sensation is affected first?  

pain perception  

Which of the following drugs are the most used preoperative sedatives?  

benzodiazepines  

What is the most inportant action of alpha-adrenergic receptors?  

vasoconstriction, raising blood pressure  

What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?  

afferent and efferent  

Which drug listed below can be administered as a nasal spray to treat a migraine attack?  

sumatriptan (Imitrex), zolmitriptan (Zomig), dihydroergotamine (Migranal), and butorphanol (Stadol)  

What did the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) define, in 2001, as the "fifth" vital sign?  

pain  

What term describes the physical and emotional reliance of patients on narcotics?  

dependence  

What ate the primary opiate receptors associated with analgesia?  

mu, kappa, delta  

Which of the following narcotics can be given intravenously as a preanesthetic medication and also administered as a patch or as a lozenge?  

fentanyl (Actiq)  

Fluoxetine is an example of an antidepressant that appears to work through which of the following mechanisms?  

It inhibits the reuptake of serotonin into certain neurons in the brain  

What drug used to treat alcohol addiction interferes with the metabolism of ethanol?  

disulfiram (Antabuse)  

Which monoamine oxidase inhibitor is used to treat Parkinson's patients rather than depressed patients?  

selegiline (Eldepryl)  

Tardive dyskinesia is associated with the long-term use of which psychiatric medication?  

antipsychotics  

Which two neurotransmitters are believed to be most involved with schizophrenia and the drugs used to treat this disorder?  

dopamine and serotonin  

Which or the following new antipsychotic drugs is classified today as being "atypical"?  

olanzapine (Zyprexa)  

Which of the following is a symptom of alcohol withdrawal?  

nausea and vomiting, delirium tremens (DTs), hallucinations, and sweating  

Which of the following drugs is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?  

amitriptyline  

Which class of antidepressants inhibits enzymes that metabolize catecholamines?  

MAOIs  

Which of the following is an anticholinergic drug used to treat the Parkinson-like side effects of antipsychotic therapy?  

benztropine (Cogentin)  

With which psychiatric disorder do patients suffer from alternating episodes of major depression and mild-to-severe agitation?  

bipolar mood disorder  

Which drug used to treat depression is also used for smoking cessation?  

buproprion  

Which of the following antianziety drugs is not a benzodiazepine?  

buspirone (Buspar)  

Which of the following drugs used to treat insomnia is not a DEA scheduled controlled substance?  

diphenhydramine  

What class of drugs is part of the standard of care for alcohol (ethanol) detoxification?  

benzodiazepines  

What system can be adversely affected by lithium and how?  

gastrointestinal-nausea, vomiting, and anorexia; neuromuscular-tremors; weight- weight gain; renal- increased thirst and urination  

Which of the following drugs is classified as a tricyclic antidepressant and has significant anticholinergic side effects?  

imipramine  

During which stages of sleep does dreaming occur?  

stages III and IV  

What term is used to describe anxiety for which there is no identifiable source than from within the patient?  

endogenous  

What drug can be used as an alternative to lithium in the treatment of bipolar disorder, particularly with rapid cyclers?  

divalproex (Depakote)  

Which of the following drugs has been shown to improve the cognitive function and social behavior of Alzheimer's patients and is sold over the counter?  

gingko  

What dopamine precursor is used to treat Parkinson patients?  

levodopa (Doplar)  

Which pair of anticonvulsants is most likely to interact with other drugs a patient may be taking?  

phenobarbital (Luminal) and phenytoin (Dilantin)  

Which anticonvulsant does not appear to act via GABA receptors and is frequently used to treat neuropathic pain?  

gabapentin (Neurontin)  

What is a characteristic pathologic feature in the midbrain of patients with Parkinson's disease?  

Lewy Bodies  

What are the most common side effects of antiseizure medications?  

sedation and some degradation of cognitive process  

Which of the following anticonvulsants is also used to treat manic episodes in bipolar mood disorders?  

valproic acid (Depakene)  

What class of drugs may be used to diagnose and treat myasthenia gravis?  

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors  

Which of the following anticonvulsants is correctly paired with the process it most likely affects?  

diazepam (Valium)--GABA  

What combination drug contains levodopa plus an inhibitor of peripheral levodopa metabolism?  

Sinemet  

What is the potential way in which antiepileptic medications can interact with each other and other drugs?  

They can alter the metabolism of other drugs  

What term is used to describe continuous tonic-clonic seizures, lasting over 30 minutes, during which consciousness may not return?  

status epiepticus  

The prevalence of Parkinson's disease is highest in what age group?  

above age 60  

Which drug used to treat ADD/ADHD is not a controlled substance?  

atomoxetine (Strattera)  

Which drug listed below is used to treat patients with multiple sclerosis?  

interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif), interferon beta-1b (Betaseron), mitoxantrone (Novantrone), and baclofen  

Which anticonvulsant is the drug of choice for absence seizures?  

ethosuximide (Zarontin)  

With what type of seizure may patients display blank stares, rotating eyes and rapid blinking; not have generalized convulsions; and have up to 100 occurrences a day?  

absence seizure  

Which neurotranmitter is deficient in the nigrostriatal pathways of patients with Parkinson's disease?  

dopamine  

Which of the following anticonvulsants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance?  

diazepam (Valium)  

What two neurotransmitters in the brain appear to play the greatest role in seizures?  

GABA and glutamate  

Which of the following medication is least likely to be used to treat or stop an acute asthma attack?  

cromolyn sodium  

Which of the following antitussives is a DEA controlled substance?  

codeine  

What is a potential symptom of nicotine withdrawal?  

anxiety, difficulty in concentrating, gastrointestinal diturbances, and increased appetite and weight gain  

In what percent of asthma patients is there an allergic component?  

35-55%  

Which of the following is a reversible syndrome in which breathing may be difficult?  

asthma  

Which of the following is a potentially life-threatening condition in which the patient has difficulty breathing, has blue lips, and nail beds, may lose consciousness, and does not respond to normal management?  

status asthmaticus  

Which repiratory medication listed below is an inhaled coricosteroid?  

fluticasone (Flovent)  

With which device, used to administer asthma or COPD medication, does a stream of air flow past a liquid to create a fine mist for the patient to inhale?  

nebulizer  

An asthma attack consists of how many phases or responses?  

2  

What is the least sedating OTC antihistamine and the only one approved by the FDA for cold symptoms?  

clemastine (Tavist Allergy)  

Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) may be used to treat what two lung diseases?  

bronchitis and cystic fibrosis  

What are two signs or symptoms of nicotine excess?  

dizziness and diarrhea  

Which of the following forms of nicotine replacement therapy is only available by prescription?  

nicotine nasal spray  

Which of the following drugs is only indicated for long-term maintenance therapy of bronchospasms associated with emphysema and bronchitis?  

tiotropim (Spiriva)  

Which of the following drugs may be used to treat tuberculosis?  

isoniazid (Laniazid, Nydrzid), rifampin (Rifadin. Rimactine), ciproflozacin (Cipro), and rifapentine (Priftin)  

Which of the following asthma medications blocks parasympathetic acetylcholine receptors and should not be given to patients with known peanut allergies?  

ipratropium (Atrovent)  

What is the most useful measure for assessing the severity of asthma on a regular basis?  

peak expiratory flow rate (PAOR)  

Which of the following is an OTC expectorant available in caplet, capsule, liquid, syrup, tablet, and sustained-release forms?  

guaifesesin (Mucinex)  

What is a common adverse effect of many (older) antihistamines (H-1 blockers)?  

anticholinergic responses, hyperactivity in some children, and sedation  

What class of drugs used to treat hypertension, angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and migraine headaches is contraindicated in asthma patients?  

beta blockers  

What drug is metabolized by colonic bacteria and is used to prevent and treat hepatic-induced encephalopathy?  

lactulose (Enulose)  

Which medication below is used in preteens to treat diarrhea and acts by interfering with enzyme-dependent electron transfer in anaerobic energy metabolism?  

nitazoxanide (Alinia)  

Which of the drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody that binds to tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and is indicated for the treatment of Crohn's disease?  

infliximab (Remicade)  

What three drugs given together are used to treat H. pyloric-induced peptic ulcers?  

bismuth subsalicylate-metronidazole-tetracycline (Helidac)  

Which drug listed below forms a protective coat over an ulcer, helping it resist degradation by gastric acid, pepsin, and bile salts?  

sucralfate (Carafate)  

Which drug listed below is an example of a phase II drug used to treat GERD?  

cimetidine (Tagamet), omeprazole (Prilosec), esomeprazole (Nexium), and famotidine (Pepcid)  

Which drug below acts on 5-HT-4 receptors and is used to treat constipation-predominant irritable bowel syndrome?  

tegaserod (Zelnorm)  

Which drug listed below acts to facilitate the admixture of fat and water to soften stool?  

docusate-senna (Senokot-S)  

What is a potential problem associated with low-fiber diets?  

constipation  

Which histamine-2 receptor blocker affects cytochrome P-450 and may interact with many other drugs?  

cimetidine (Tagamet)  

If abdominal pain is caused by the release of an allergy or inflammation mediator, what mast cell stabilizer may be prescribed?  

cromolyn sodium (Gastrocrom)  

What is another term for heartburn?  

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)  

By what criterion is dietary fiber characterized?  

fermentability, water-holding capacity, stool-bulking capacity, and solubility  

For the treatment of hepatitis, which drug listed below is an interferon linked with a branched polyethylene glycol (PEG) molecule in order to allow once weekly dosing?  

peginterferon alfa-2a (Pegasys)  

vWhich drug or drug combination is correctly paired with its DEA control schedule?  

diphonoxylate-atropine (Lomotil)--C-V  

What receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) are blocked by metoclopramide (Reglan)?  

dopamine  

What is the drug of choice in treating malabsorption syndrome due to panceratic insufficiency?  

pancrelopase (Creon-10)  

Which of the following drugs is used for chemotherapy-induced emesis and frequently causes headaches in patients treated with it?  

ondansetron (Zofran)  

What is praziquantel (Biltricide) used to treat?  

intestinal parasites (tapeworms)  

What GI disorder is characterized by inflammation of the large bowel with the patient experiencing diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus?  

ulcerative colitis  

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
Pharmacology review - II
Quote:


  1. What is the first oral therapy for interstitial cystitis? pentosan polysulfate sodium (Elmiron)
  2. What term is used to describe the working units of the kidneys? nephrons
  3. Which of the following should a patient undergoing dialysis NOT take? antacids
  4. What hormone is diminished in patients with anemia due to renal failure? erythropoietin
  5. What drug is often given in combination with flutamide (Eulexin) to treat BPH? leuprolide (Eligard, Lupron Depot, Viadur)
  6. Which of the following agents for urinary tract problems is available OTC? phenazopyridine (Azo-Standard, Uristat)
  7. What is an example of a "loop" diuretic? furosemide (Lasix)
  8. What is the clinical syndrome resulting from renal dysfunction called? uremia
  9. What is the only osmotic diuretic on the market? mannitol (Osmitrol)
  10. What do the kidneys regulate? blood plasma volume , concentration of waste products in the blood, plasma acid-base balance, electrolyte concentrations
  11. What antibiotic (or combination) may be used to treat urinary tract infections (UTIs)? amoxicillin (Amoxil, Trimox), amoxicillin-clavulanate (Augmentin), ciprofloxacin (Cipro), nitrofurantoin (Macrobid, Macrodantin)
  12. When taking which of the following antibiotics (or combinations) should sunscreen be used? sulfamethoxazole-trimethoprim (Bactrim, Cotrim, Septra)
  13. What class of drugs is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)? alpha-adrenergic blockers
  14. During what stage of renal failure does the patient require chronic dialysis? end-stage renal disease
  15. What is a goal of renal therapy? reestablishing an appropriate intravascular volume ,restricting fluids in volume-overload patients ,treating underlying fluid, electrolyte, or pH problems
  16. Which of the following drugs used for renal disease may be given by mouth? cinacalcet (Sensipar)
  17. Which drug below causes immature red blood cells (reticulocytes) to be released from bone marrow into the bloodstream? epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit)
  18. Who should never handle crushed tablets of finasteride (Propecia, Proscar)? pregnant women
  19. What drug is an amino acid derivative and is a cofactor needed for the transformation of long-chain fatty acids? levocarnitine (Carnitor)
  20. Which of the following drugs may be used to prevent rejection in kidney transplant patients? cyclosporine (Sandimmune)
  21. Which of the antiplatelet drugs listed below is a monoclonal antibody? abciximab (ReoPro)
  22. Beta blockers may be used in combination with what other drug to reduce the risk of death or recurrence following a myocardial infarction? aspirin
  23. Which of the following drug classes is not used to treat angina? angiotensin II- receptor antagonists
  24. Which of the following drugs used for TIAs and stroke prevention blocks ADP receptors, reducing platelet adhesion and aggregation? clopidogrel (Plavix)
  25. Which of the following is a Class I or membrane stabilizing antiarrhythmic drug? flecainide (Tambocor) ,lidocaine (Xylocaine) ,procainamide (Pronestyl) ,quinidine
  26. Which antiarrhythmic drug also has anticonvulsant properties? phenytoin (Dilantin)
  27. What does the systolic blood pressure reading represent? pressure during the filling of the heart
  28. What term describes a thickening of the heart muscle in an enlarged heart? myocardial hypertrophy
  29. Which fibrinolytic agent below binds to fibrin, converts plasminogen to plasmin, and is incompatible with dextrose? tenecteplase (TNKase)
  30. What drug below is a phosphodieterase inhibitor used for IV therapy of congestive heart failure and calcium channel blocker intoxication? milrinone (Primacor)
  31. Which of the following anticoagulant drugs is available in tablet form? warfarin (Coumadin)
  32. Diuretics help to lower blood pressure by reducing preload
  33. What term describes an abnormal, hyper-excitable site within the heart that becomes the dominant pacemaker? ectopic pacemaker
  34. What pacemaker cells of the heart generate a normal cardiac rhythm? sinoatrial (SA) node
  35. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs is also available in a topical form that can be used to treat baldness? minoxidil (Loniten, Rogaine)
  36. What class of drugs are used to dissolve clots that have already formed? fibrinolytic agents
  37. Which of the following drugs is an inhibitor of angiotensin-converting enzyme and is used to treat congestive heart failure and hypertension? lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
  38. Which of the following is a selective aldosterone antagonist used to treat hypertension? eplerenone (Inspra)
  39. Which of the following antihypertensive drugs binds to angiotensin II-receptors and rarely causes coughing as an adverse effect? valsartan (Diovan)
  40. What form of angina is characterized by coronary artery spasm? variant angina
  41. What form of enzyme cyclooxygenase is associated with inflammatory pain, but not with protection of the GI lining? COX-2
  42. Which of the following drugs is least likely to produce GI irritation at analgesic doses? celecoxib (Celebrex)
  43. What patient should not take misoprostol (Cytotec), a drug sometimes used to counter the gastric irritating effects of NSAIDs? pregnant women
  44. NSAIDs can interact with which of the following drug classes? other NSAIDs, including aspirin, diuretics , oral hypoglycemics ,digoxin
  45. Which of the following is an example of a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)? adalimunab (Humira) , anakinra (Kineret) , methotrexate (Rheumatrex) , azathioprine (Imuran)
  46. Which of the following muscle relaxant acts on benzodiazepine receptors? diazepam (Valium)
  47. What substances reduce pain, fever, and inflammation? salicylates
  48. Which of the following muscle relaxants is a DEA scheduled controlled substance? diazepam (Valium)
  49. How do salicylates reduce fever? increasing blood flow to skin
  50. What dose of aspirin (per day)may be fatal? 10 g
  51. Why should aspirin not be given to children? Reye's syndrome can develop in children who have been exposed to chicken pox.
  52. What is the prototype NSAID? aspirin
  53. Which of the following drugs used to treat gout interferes with leucocytes, reducing their mobility and joint phagocytosis? colchicine
  54. What prostaglandin molecule, which facilitates platelet aggregation, is inhibited by low dose (81 mg-325 mg) aspirin? thromboxane A-2
  55. What clinical effect of aspirin is also produced by acetaminophen (Tylenol)? fever reduction
  56. What effect of nonnarcotic analgesics most commonly limits their use? gastrointestinal disturbances
  57. What is the most serious adverse effect associated with acetaminophen? liver damage
  58. What is the effect of preventing acetylcholine (ACh) destruction on skeletal muscle? paralysis by fatigue
  59. When injected, a 30 mg dose of which of the following NSAIDs is as effective as 12 mg of morphine in relieving pain? ketorolac (Toradol)
  60. What is a laboratory test for rheumatoid arthritis? ESR
  61. What is not a potential adverse effect of corticosteroids? hypotension due to increased sodium excretion
  62. What is a potential use of progestins in women? birth control , prevention of uterine cancer in post-menopausal women taking hormone replacement therapy , treatment of menstrual dysfunctions , reducing the incidence of endometrial hyperplasia
  63. When a patient has had the thyroid surgically removed, due to cancer, for example, what is the drug of choice for chronic therapy? levothyroxine (Levothroid, Synthroid)
  64. What is needed for calcium to get into the bone? vitamin D
  65. Which of the following drugs or drug classes may cause male impotence? alcohol ,corticosteroids , haloperidol (Haldol) ,opiates
  66. Which of the following drugs is used to treat genital herpes? acyclovir (Zovirax)
  67. Which synthetic insulin is the longest acting? glargine (Lantus)
  68. What is the most common form of diabetes? type II
  69. Which of the following drugs act to prevent bone loss by modulating estrogen receptors? raloxifene (Evista)
  70. Which drug listed below has been shown to speed the healing of lower extremity diabetic ulcers? becaplermin gel (Regranex)
  71. Which of the following drugs used to treat male impotence does not act by inhibiting the enzyme phosphodiesterase? alprostadil (Caverject, Edex, Muse)
  72. Which of the following oral hypoglycemic agents acts by interfering with carbohydrate metabolism and glucose absorption? acarbose (Precose)
  73. What large molecule is broken down by thyroid cells to produce thyroid hormones? thyroglobulin
  74. Which of the following antibiotics is often the drug of choice for treating syphilis? penicillin G benzathine (Bicillin L-A)
  75. Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a fungus? candidiasis
  76. What is a danger of using nicotine in combination with estrogen? increased risk of blood clots
  77. Which of the following synthetic human growth hormones is recommended for used in children of families of short stature? Growth hormone treatment is not recommended in this population.
  78. Which hormone listed below is not released by the pituitary gland? thyroxine (T-4)
  79. Which of the following drugs is used for emergency contraception? levonorgestrel (Plan B)
  80. Which of the following drugs may interact adversely with oral contraceptives? erythromycin ,carbamazepine ,prednisolone ,clofibrate
  81. In general, what is the maximum dosage and the number of consecutive weeks that superpotent steroids are given? 45 to 50 g per week; 2 weeks
  82. Which of the following drugs, derived from chrysanthemums, is available OTC and is used for head lice? pyrethrins (Rid Mousse)
  83. Which of the following drugs is not used to treat fungal infections? fluorouracil (Efudex)
  84. What term is used to describe the excessive response of the skin to sun in the presence of a sensitizing agent? phototoxicity
  85. What skin condition is methotrexate, an inhibitor of normal bone marrow tissue cell growth, used to treat? psoriasis
  86. What drug applied topically for wound healing is also used as an anticonvulsant? phenytoin (Dilantin)
  87. What drug is used to treat chronic ketatococonjunctivitis (dry eye)? cyclosporine (Restasis)
  88. Which of the following antibiotics is available in a topical dosage form? clindamycin (Cleocin T) , metronidazole (MetroGel) , mupirocin (Bactroban)
  89. What chemical was traditionally used in the eyes of newborns to prevent gonococcal infection? silver nitrate
  90. Which of the following is a type of sweat gland? eccrine
  91. Which of the following is given orally to treat glaucoma? acetazolemide (Diamox)
  92. Which of the following otic agents contains an antibiotic to fight infection and a steroid to reduce inflammation? ciprofloxacin-dexamethasone (Ciprodex)
  93. What is the top layer of skin known as? epidermis
  94. What term defines chemicals that free objects from pathogenic organisms or render them inert? disinfectant
  95. Which drug used to treat glaucoma may cause light-colored eyes to turn brown? latanoprost (Xalatan)
  96. Which of the following drugs is used to treat acne vulgaris? tretinoin (Retin-A)
  97. What is the most commonly occurring eye disease? glaucoma
  98. What drug is used to treat cold sores? docosanol (Abreva)
  99. Which of the following drugs is a neurotoxin used to treat facial wrinkles? botulinum toxin type A (Botox)
  100. What causes age-related macular degeneration (AMD)? unknown
  101. What drug is recommended by ACLS guidelines for cardiac emergencies and Code Blue carts? atropine , dopamine (Intropin) , naloxone (Narcan) , verapamil (Isoptin)
  102. What is the drug of choice for treating an overdose of acetaminophen (Tylenol)? acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
  103. Which of the following is a recommended or common addition to total parenteral nutrition mixtures? sodium , vitamin B-6 ,copper , insulin, regular
  104. Which dietary supplement is incorrectly paired with its medicinal use? garlic -- impotence
  105. How can grapefruit juice affect the pharmacological disposition of many drugs? It affects their metabolism.
  106. What characterizes marasmus? It is due to an imbalance between protein and calorie intake and produces growth retardation.
  107. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin? vitamin C
  108. Which of the following drugs may cause tinnitus (ringing in the ear), nausea, and vomiting in children with doses greater than 150mg/kg? aspirin
  109. What organ maintains the largest stores of fat-soluble vitamins? liver
  110. What vitamin found in dairy products, liver, and fish oils is also known at retinol? vitamin A
  111. What reversal agent may be used to treat respiratory depression caused by an opioid (narcotic) overdose? naloxone (Narcan)
  112. What bioterrorism agent is derived from castor beans, inhibits protein synthesis, and has no known treatment? ricin
  113. What herbal supplement, sometimes referred to as "Nature's Prozac", is used for mild-to-moderate depression? St. John's wort
  114. Which of the following is the leading cause of fatal poisonings in children? iron tablets
  115. What is a complication associated with total parenteral nutrition (TPN)? acid-base imbalance , high serum lipid concentrations , electrolyte imbalance , liver toxicity
  116. What is another name for vitamin B-9? folic acid
  117. What drug may be used to treat cholinergic agonist-induced bradycardia? atropine
  118. In contrast to two-in-ones, three-in-one TPN solutions may crack or oil out.
  119. What form of calcium is most commonly used in antacids? calcium carbonate
  120. What term describes a method in which the patient is fed through a vein? total parenteral nutrition
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