In Lk, following Jesus’ temptation by the devil, he preaches in the synagogues in the region all around Galilee, becoming well known (famous, according to the KJV) in the process:
Then Jesus, in the power of the Spirit, returned to Galilee, [4:14a]
(All verses are from Lk unless otherwise noted, with both English and Greek text taken from the NET)
Having done this, Jesus then preaches in two named places: Nazareth (vv. 4:16-30) and Capernaum (vv. 4:31-36), after which (rather implausibly) the news about him spreads all over again!
So the news about him spread into all areas of the region. [4:37]
He then leaves the synagogue, and heals Simon’s mother-in-law and others (vv. 4:38-41). Following this he goes to a desert place where the people ask him to stay, but he says that he has to preach in other towns, and so he continues to preach in the synagogues of Judea:
But [he] said to them, “I must proclaim the good news of the kingdom of God to the other towns too, for that is what I was sent to do.” [4:43]
Although the NET reads “Judea” at the end of v. 4:44, the majority of mss read “Galilee,” and so according to this alternative reading, Jesus went back to Galilee to preach in their synagogues once more. These variants are discussed in this note in the NET:
Most mss (A D Θ Ψ Ë13 33 Ï latt) have “of Galilee”; others, “of the Jews” (W). “Judea” (read by Ì75 א B Q 579 892 pc sa, and [with minor variation] C L Ë1 1241) is probably the original reading since it is both the harder reading and supported by the best witnesses. “Galilee” is an assimilation to Mark 1:39 and Matt 4:23.
There are some significant narrative problems here:
From their similarity, it is clear that vv. 4:14b/37 and 4:15/44 are doublets, and it is a reasonable inference that one of the verses in each doublet may well be 'more original' than the other. On this point it is worth noting that vv. 4:14b-15 have no parallels in either Mk or Mt, while v. 4:37 has as a close parallel at Mk 1:28, and v. 4:44 at Mk 1:39a.
So the news about him spread quickly throughout all the region around Galilee. [Mk 1:28]
In fact, the whole passage from vv. 4:31-44 has a close parallel at Mk 1:21-39a, which, taking Markan priority as a given, is almost certainly the origin of these verses in Lk. Consequently, either vv. 4:14b-15 come from a non-Markan source, or are later interpolations in Lk, based on vv. 4:37 and 4:44 respectively.
Despite the whole Capernaum passage at Mk 1:21-39a being a close parallel to vv. 4:31-44, there is one big difference: In Mk (and also in the shorter parallel in Mt) this passage takes place before Jesus preaches in the synagogue at Nazareth, while in Lk it takes place afterwards (i.e. Capernaum and Nazareth are swapped). Also, as neither Mk nor Mt have equivalents to vv. 4:14b-15, in these gospels there is no problem when we read at the end of the Capernaum episode that Jesus then preached throughout Galilee.
In both Mk and Lk the statement that Jesus preached in the synagogues in Galilee (or perhaps Judea) marks the end of the Capernaum episode. However, while in Mk the preaching in Nazareth is still to come, in Lk it has already happened, and, apparently, Jesus has already (Lk 4:14-15) preached all over Galilee. Therefore, as it appears that these latter two verses are redundant, why are they present in Lk at all?
Even though in Lk Jesus preaches in Nazareth before Capernaum, at Nazareth Jesus is able to say:
“No doubt you will quote to me the proverb, ‘Physician, heal yourself!’ and say, ‘What we have heard that you did in Capernaum, do here in your hometown too.’” [4:23]
As at this point Jesus has not yet preached in Capernaum, so how can he make such a suggestion? The answer is that this is the function of vv. 4:14b-15: to provide some context suggesting that Jesus could have already preached in Capernaum before Nazareth. There is no equivalent to these verses in either Mk or Mt simply because v. 4:23 has no equivalent in either of these gospels.
However, there is plenty of evidence that in Lk Capernaum originally came before Nazareth (as it also did in Marcion’s Gospel of the Lord), and therefore at this time vv. 4:14b-15 would have served no purpose, so would not have been in Lk (and indeed were not in Marcion’s gospel - see Lk 4 – Capernaum First ...). Instead, this text was only added later, when Capernaum and Nazareth were swapped (so occupying the positions in which we see them today), in order to suggest that Jesus could have preached in Nazareth before Capernaum.
This then makes sense of the variant seen at the end of v. 4:44, which in the NET reads “Judea,” but most mss read “Galilee.” Here the assessment of which variant is likely to be original is wrong, as it is based on the (incorrect) assumption that the original order of the verses in Lk 1-4 was the same as we see today. However, when it is acknowledged that in Lk Capernaum originally came before Nazareth then it is easy to see that “Galilee” is the original reading in Lk, following the parallel at Mk 1:39a. The other two readings (“Judea” and "of the Jews”) then only came about later, after Capernaum and Nazareth were swapped (so occupying the positions in which we see them today) and vv. 4:14b-15 had been added, in order to avoid the implication that Jesus had simply gone back to Galilee again to preach, and had ignored everywhere else.If you have any comments, questions, suggestions, etc. regarding this topic please email me at email@example.com