Isaiah 53 not JC



“Behold, my servant shall act wisely;”   You believe this is JC.  You believe JC is god.  So God is his own servant?


“his appearance was so marred, beyond human semblance, and his form beyond that of the children of mankind”

When did that happen to JC?


“a man of sorrows, and acquainted with sickness”   When exactly was JC sick?


“Like one from whom men hide their faces he was despised, and we esteemed him not.”

Wasn’t JC a very popular preacher who entered Jerusalem amongst a big crowd of followers?


A mistranslation: “Surely he took up our infirmities and carried our sorrows, yet we considered him stricken by God,
smitten by him, and afflicted.”

The word “yet” seems to imply that the considerations of the Jewish people that he was stricken by God, was wrong.

However, that word “yet” is nowhere to be found in the Hebrew.  It is inserted by translators who want to prove their point.


“But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities;”

The same holds true for the word “But”, which also seems to imply that the Jews were wrong.   In both places in the Hebrew only the word “and” is written, so the correct translation is as follows:  “Surely he took up our infirmities and carried our sorrows, and we considered him stricken by God, smitten by him, and afflicted.  And he was pierced for our transgressions,
he was crushed for our iniquities;”


“He was oppressed and afflicted, yet he did not open his mouth;”

He didn’t open his mouth?     When Jesus said this, one of the officials nearby struck him in the face. "Is this the way you answer the high priest?" he demanded. "If I said something wrong," Jesus replied, "testify as to what is wrong. But if I spoke the truth, why did you strike me?"   John 18:22

When he was hanging at the cross he accused God, that is himself; he cried out: “Why did I forsake myself?”

 “At the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a loud voice, "MY GOD, MY GOD, WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME?"  Mark 15:34

He didn’t open his mouth?


“for the transgression of my people the plague was upon them”

This is a very clear proof it speaks about the Jewish people being punished for their own sins.  “The plague was upon THEM”.  Plural.   So this is not about a singular person, so this is not about the messiah.

The Hebrew word translated as “upon them” is “lamo”  The same word “lamo” is also used in Genesis 9:26-27: “God shall enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem; and Canaan shall be THEIR servant."

Deut 32:32;  and THEIR clusters are bitter.”  Literally: “For them are bitter clusters.”

Deut 32: 35  and their destiny will overtake THEM”

Deut 33:2;  “"The LORD came from Sinai and dawned OVER THEM from Seir;”


The word “lamo” which means “for them” or “upon them” is also used in Isaiah 16:4, 26:14+16, 35:8,  Psalm 119:165.

Some translations, realizing they cannot get around the plural, translate it as: “for the transgression of my people, TO  WHOM the stroke was due?”  Like this it is translated by the NASB, AMP, ASV, and in the footnote of the NIV.

But this is a very forced translation.  There is nothing “due” in verse 8.



“He was assigned a grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death, though he had done no violence”

Done no violence?  “So he made a whip out of cords, and drove all from the temple area, both sheep and cattle; he scattered the coins of the money changers and overturned their tables.”  John 2:15


“And with the rich in his death”     The Hebrew word for “death” is written in the plural, again indicating it does not speak about a singular person.  Unless of course Christianity wants to say that their god died several times.   If you say this talks about a whole people, then there is no problem.  

But, if you want to say this speaks about the messiah, then you are in trouble.


And of course, this word is mistranslated in about every Christian translation to be found.


“Yet it was the will of the LORD to crush him; he has put him to grief;”  So it was the will of God to crush Himself???


“when he makes his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his offspring; he shall prolong his days”  God makes himself an offering for sin?   JC sees his offspring?  How is he going to do that?  He was never married.


“He shall prolong his days” 

God is going to prolong his days when he makes himself an offering for sin?  And if he doesn’t, God is not going to prolong his days?  

But didn’t God die when he was 30? 


“when he makes his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his offspring” 

God needs to make himself an offering in order to be able to forgive his creatures?   God first has to be murdered by his creatures, and only then he can forgive them?


“Therefore I will divide him a portion with the many, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong”  God is going to give Himself a portion with the strong?  When exactly did JC get that?


Is it so hard to see that this is all nonsense?  Having two gods, J-H-W-H and JC, and still insisting you have only one, denying you are an idol worshipper?  How brainwashed do you have to be?