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    Sacred Scripture‎ > ‎Deuterocanon‎ > ‎

    Refuting Carm on the Deuterocanon


    By Paul Swonger (Initially written between December 12-13, 2010).

    Introduction


    This document contains a point by point refutation of Carm's page entitled "Reasons why the Apocrypha does not belong in the Bible". Carm, a Calvinist Apologetics website, claims more than a million visitors to it's website each month. With that amount of traffic, I consider it a priority to answer the reasoning Carm sets forth for it's rejection of the "Apocrypha"--more properly termed and referred to hereafter, as the Deuterocanon. As this document will demonstrate, Carm is doing a great disservice to their readers by putting forward demonstrably flawed argumentation, glaringly specious history, and quite simply, an agenda based attack on God's Word. At the bottom of this document you can download a PDF copy of the document I will be discussing here, retrieved on December 11, 2010. If significant changes to Carms's document are made in the future, I may update this page. Ryan Turner is the actual author of Carm's document.

    The Importance of this Examination

    This examination of Carm's "ministry" is important because the deuterocanon is part of God's Word, and does indeed belong in the Bible. As St. Jerome said, "Ignorance of Scripture is ignorance of Christ". That's the core theme at the heart of this examination.

    This examination is also important because Carm is a "Christian Ministry" that reaches a multitude of people. If it can be demonstrated that Carm's arguments (which are quite lengthy, and thought out) are false, then it raises questions about the ultimate credibility of Carm as a whole. This issue should be important to Catholics and non Catholics alike. Catholics, because Carm does a great deal of general misrepresentation of Catholicism, in an effort to give weight to it's own theology, but Catholicism isn't their only target. In general, if you're not in theological agreement with them (a Calvinist) you're a target. If you are a Calvinist, you're also a target because they intend to shape your knowledge of the issues they discuss according to their custom mold. With that said, let's proceed with a careful examination of what Carm says about the "Apocrypha" (deuterocanon).

    Point By Point Examination


    The following is a point by point examination of the claims Ryan Turner of Carm makes in his document.

    An alleged Catholic versus Protestant issue


    Carm's Claim

    "Catholics and Protestants disagree regarding the exact number of books that belong in the Old Testament Scriptures.  The dispute between them is over seven books, part of what is known as the Apocrypha: 1 and 2 Maccabees, Sirach (Ecclesiasticus), Wisdom (Wisdom of Solomon), Baruch, Tobit, Judith, and additions to Daniel and Esther.1  However, there are a number of reasons why the Old Testament Apocrypha should not be part of the Canon, or standard writings of Scripture."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    The first problem here is that the issue of the deuterocanon is not merely a disagreement between Catholics and Protestants. It is however, often a priority of those who attack the deuterocanon to present the argument as such, as has been done frequently. The attempt to represent this issue as a Catholic versus Protestant one attempts to play on pre-existing notions regarding the Catholic Church known to exist, in an effort to give a false sense of weight to the arguments. That aside, various Orthodox Churches (Eastern, Russian, Greek, Armenian etc) also consider the deuterocanon to be Sacred Scripture, and have always done so. This of course begs the question for those protestants who assert that Catholics added the books at the Council of Trent, as the Orthodox do not accept that council, and clearly used the books in question for centuries prior to it taking place. The closing remark of this portion of the website, that suggests the "Apocrypha" should not be part of the Canon of Sacred Scripture is ultimately false, though I will address the supposed reasoning behind Carm's claim as they attempt to argue in support of it.

    Alleged Rejection by Jesus and the Apostles


    Carm's Claim

    "1.  There are no clear, definite New Testament quotations from the Apocrypha by Jesus or the apostles.  While there may be various allusions by the New Testament to the Apocrypha, there are no authoritative statements like "thus says the Lord," "as it is written," or "the Scriptures say."  There are references in the New Testament to the pseudepigrapha (literally “false writings”) (Jude 14-15) and even citations from pagan sources (Acts 17:22-34), but none of these are cited as Scripture and are rejected even by Roman Catholics.  In contrast, the New Testament writers cite the Old Testament numerous times (Mt. 5; Lk. 24:27; Jn. 10:35) and use phrases such as "thus says the Lord," "as it is written," or "the Scriptures say," indicating their approval of these books as inspired by God."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    This is really the first attempt to set what are without question, arbitrary (and false) criteria for Canonicity. Carm seems to insinuate that only a direct quote from Jesus or the Apostles, or a reference that includes the arbitrary formulas given (e.g. "thus says the Lord", "as it is written" etc) can establish the Canonicity of Sacred Scripture. This claim is false for several reasons, which I will now explain.

    Jesus nor the Apostles ever quote from Obadiah, Zephaniah, Judges, 1 Chronicles, Nahum, Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther, Ecclesiastes, or the Song of Solomon. Yet protestants that use this argument include them in the Canon of Sacred Scripture, including Calvinists (like Carm). Carm's attempt also plainly tries to downplay instances in which it is quite clear that Jesus and the Apostles are (sometimes seemingly word for word) repeating what the deuterocanonical books say. A simple google search will demonstrate that there are quite a bit more than "various allusions" to the books in question. Beyond this however, it is also important to note that by textual criticism, we do know that Jesus and the Apostles were quoting the Old Testament from the LXX (Greek Spetuagint) Bible, which in fact did include the deuterocanonical books (e.g. Mark 7:6-8 quotes the LXX (Septuagint) version of Isaiah). This begs the question, why would Jesus and the Apostles be using a Bible that included the deuterocanonicals, and that further, made no distinction between the books (e.g. the LXX did not include the deuterocanonicals in an index, or in a separate section called "Apocrypha" or any such thing).



    Carm's Claim

    "2.  Jesus implicitly rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture by referring to the entire accepted Jewish Canon of Scripture, “From the blood of Abel [Gen. 4:8] to the blood of Zechariah [2 Chron. 24:20], who was killed between the altar and the house of God; yes, I tell you, it shall be charged against this generation (Lk. 11:51; cf. Mt. 23:35).”"


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    This argument makes all sorts of assumptions (incorrect ones). The first assumption is that Jesus is making a statement about the canon, which He is most certainly not. It also assumes that there was a consensus regarding the Canon among the Jews at the time of Jesus, despite the fact that no standard breakdown of the Canon of Scripture exists during this time period.

    Though an interesting attempt, the fact of the matter is that there was no notion of a closed canon of scripture at the time of Jesus. Not even among Jews was there complete agreement on the canon at this time, which is highlighted by the fact that the Sadducees only accepted the Torah (the Five Books of Moses), and in fact were in constant conflict with other Jewish sects such as the Pharisees over various issues due to this. As Mark Shea says: "This was precisely why the Sadducees argued with Jesus against the reality of the resurrection in Matthew 22:23-33: they couldn't see it in the five books of Moses and they did not regard the later books of Scripture which spoke of it explicitly (such as Isaiah and 2 Maccabees) to be inspired and canonical."[1] Thus, it can be safely said (as a side-note) that Jesus himself experienced problems communicating the truth to those who adhered to Sola Scriptura.


    Carm's Claim

    "Abel was the first martyr in the Old Testament from the book of Genesis, while Zechariah was the last martyr in the book of Chronicles.  In the Hebrew Canon, the first book was Genesis and the last book was Chronicles.  They contained all of the same books as the standard 39 books accepted by Protestants today, but they were just arranged differently.  For example, all of the 12 minor prophets (Hosea through Malachi) were contained in one book.  This is why there are only 24 books in the Hebrew Bible today.  By Jesus referring to Abel and Zachariah, He was canvassing the entire Canon of the Hebrew Scriptures which included the same 39 books as Protestants accept today.  Therefore, Jesus implicitly rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    This portion of the argument is pretty much incoherent. While as I have stated, there was no concensus on the canon of Scripture at this time, even if we conceded for the sake of argument that there was a set order for the Tanakh at this time, Genesis being the first book and "Chronicles" being the last book says nothing about what was between them. It simply doesn't make sense as far as supporting the rejection of the deuterocanon. For example, the last book is claimed to be "Chronicles", which is part of the historical books, which includes a great deal of the deuterocanon. I would again mention here my earlier point that Jesus nor the Apostles ever mentions 1 Chronicles.

    Again, This "argument" doesn't make much sense and contains various errors. In general, the Hebrews referred to Scriptures in three ways:
    1. Five Books of Moses (Torah) - also sometimes called the Pentateuch, especially in Greek or Christian circles.
    2. Prophets (Nevi'im).
    3. Writings (Ketuvim).
    Had Jesus or the Apostles specifically referred to the "12 Prophets" (or Nevi'im Aharonim), this wouldn't exclude the major prophets, such as Jeremiah as being Canonical. No protestant would even argue this. As such, it's important to know that Jeremiah included Baruch, thus the references in general to the Nevi'im (Prophets) do not exclude deuterocanonical books. Specifically referring to the "12 Minor Prophets" (Nevi'im Aharonim) may be an attempt to obfuscate the matter further, though for now I'll chalk this one up to the apparent ignorance of the facts on the part of Carm (giving them the benefit of the doubt).


    Alleged Rejection by the Jewish community


    Carm's Claim

    "3.  The "oracles of God" were given to the Jews (Rom. 3:2) and they rejected the Old Testament Apocrypha as part of this inspired revelation.  Interestingly, Jesus had many disputes with the Jews, but He never disputed with them regarding the extent of the inspired revelation of God.2"


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    This argument contains error exclusively.

    The Douay Rheims Bible (my favored translation) renders Romans 3:2 thus:

    Romans 3:2 Much every way. First indeed, because the words of God were committed to them.

    To be clear, Romans 3:2 says that the Jews were given God's Word. No disagreement there. It seems to me however, that in favoring a translation that renders the Greek "logion" as "oracles" can be misleading. Romans 3:2 is not teaching that the Jews were "oracles", as could be easily assumed by the unsuspecting reader, but again that God's Word (logion) was given to them.

    To expand the context here (which Ryan doesn't seem interested in doing), we need only start at the beginning of Romans Chapter 3.

    Romans 3:1 What advantage then hath the Jew: or what is the profit of circumcision?

    Here we see that Paul is clearly asking in so many words, "what advantage do the Jews have?". Think about this. Paul asks a rhetorical question here, about what advantage the Jews have, and then he answers it by saying they were given God's Word. Did that include the New Testament? No. So even if for the sake of argument, we conceded that the Jews had the authority to determine the Canon of Scripture, we would be left without the entire New Testament.

    Now let's suppose for the sake of argumentation that the Jews were only given the authority to decide the Old Testament. How does Carm expect to explain away the fact that the deuterocanon was part of the OT, written by Jews, and read by Jews for nearly 300 years before the coming of Christ, as Inspired Scripture? Carm doesn't address this issue, and instead operates on presupposition, hoping you will sympathize with their position rather than hear the facts. What's not addressed by Carm here is that while some, and only some Palestinian Jews rejected the deuterocanonical books, Palestinian Jews were the smallest group of Jews on the Earth at the time, and so even if they had all rejected the deuterocanonical books, being that they were largely in use by the rest of Jews spread around by the diaspora, the Palestinian Jews were in the minority on this matter. The final point here is that again, there was no consensus among Jews of this period. The canon was not closed, and the Jews would not attempt to do so until Christianity began to spread, which was interpreted as a threat to Rabbinical (Apostate) Judaism.

    The grounds on which some Jews rejected the deuterocanonical books included the belief that "Inspired Scripture" can only be written in Hebrew, while some of the deuterocanon is believed to be originally written in Greek or Aramaic (the latter being the case with Judith). So again, on this basis we would also have to logically exclude the entire New Testament from the Bible, were we to let Jews (lost and perplexed with the destruction of the temple and the spread of Christianity) decide for us the Christian Canon of Scripture.

    The second portion of Ryan's argument continues in error. Here's the deal. Ryan says: "Interestingly, Jesus had many disputes with the Jews, but He never disputed with them regarding the extent of the inspired revelation of God". This is an important point, and I would again like to recommend Mark Shea's document, 5 Myths about Seven Books, where Mark Shea puts the final nail in the coffin of this argument. When Jesus argued with the Sadducees, it's true, He didn't try to get them to accept the larger canon of the Pharisees, which included more than the Five books of Moses that the Sadducees consider the entirety of Scripture. So the point is, that just because Jesus didn't argue with the Sadducees about their incomplete Canon of Scripture, doesn't mean the larger canon (closer to what modern Jews accept now) includes books that aren't inspired.

    I would also like to note, just to expand on my remarks regarding who among the Jews accepted or rejected the deuterocanon, Protestants tend to cite Jerome on this issue, though Jerome was not the only early Christian to attempt a survey of what books Jews considered Scripture. Another relevant person in this story is Melito of Sardis. Melito's Canon excluded Esther, though protestants accept the book as Canonical, thus these surveys fail as a "final say" in what is canonical.


    Carm Claims

    "4.  The Dead Sea scrolls provide no commentary on the Apocrypha, but do provide commentary on some of the Jewish Old Testament books.  This probably indicates that the Jewish Essene community did not regard them as highly as the Jewish Old Testament books."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    Commentary on the Book of Genesis is the only commentary found at Qumran amongst the dead Sea Scrolls. It seems apparent to me that this conclusion is not based on original research by Carm or Ryan, but more probably something someone mentioned in passing that they felt supported their position. That point aside, once again the Dead Sea Scrolls did not include the Book of Esther (which Catholics, Jews and Protestants all consider as Canonical), but did include deuterocanonical books. So by this logic, we could conclude that the deuterocanonical books were held in higher regard than Esther, which again, is accepted as Canonical by Protestants, Jews, and Catholics alike.

    Another important point here is that of the deuterocanonical books actually found among the Dead Sea Scrolls, there was absolutely nothing indicating they were thought "less of" than the rest. They weren't set aside, separated out, or marked as "lesser" in any way. These facts shed light on some serious problems with Carm's argument here.



    Carm Claims

    "5.  Many ancient Jews rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture.  Philo never quoted the Apocrypha as Scripture.  Josephus explicitly rejected the Apocrypha and listed the Hebrew Canon to be 22 books. 3 In fact, the Jewish Community acknowledged that the prophetic gifts had ceased in Israel before the Apocrypha was written."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    Again, an argument rife with error. Since the argument from silence seems convincing to Carm, they use it again. We've already discovered that since even Jesus Christ and the Apostles never quoted from Obadiah, Zephaniah, Judges, 1 Chronicles, Nahum, Ezra, Nehemiah, Esther, Ecclesiastes, or the Song of Solomon, that doesn't mean they're not canonical. Once again, protestants accept these books as Inspired Scripture, even with Jesus and the Apostles Silent on them. So the question is, if something can be canonical even if Jesus nor the Apostles quote them, why does Philo of Alexandria's silence on them mean more? Beyond that, there is more relevant information regarding Philo. It's quite apparent that Philo only accepted the Torah (the Five Books of Moses) as Scripture. So again, if we go with Philo, not only do we lose the entire NT (he was a Jew), but we loose everything in the OT after the Five Books of Moses.

    Now for Josephus. Note what Ryan says here. He says that Josephus held to 22 books. Earlier we were supposed to believe that the Hebrew Canon actually contained 24 books though. So if we accept Josephus' "canon", we lose two books from the Protestant, and Modern Jewish Old Testament.

    The following two statements are also false. Not all Jews acknowledged that prophetic gifts had ceased at the time of Josephus (who lived 3 centuries after the deuterocanonical books were initially authored by the way). To the contrary, Josephus never says prophetic gifts have ceased, and Carm nor anyone else can quote Josephus to that effect. To the contrary, Josephus openly acknowledges prophet gifts continue in his own lifetime. For anyone looking to substantiate my claim, have a look at the following table (thanks to Gary G. Michuta [2]).


    The document this image comes from is a word document by Gary G. Michuta (author of Why Catholic Bibles are Bigger). See the reference above the image for a link to that site, which discusses Josephus regarding the deuterocanon in much greater detail than I will endeavor to do here. I have also included a local copy of this document at the bottom of this page (see "Attachments").


    Alleged Rejection "by many" in the Catholic Church


    Carm Claims

    "6.  The Catholic Church has not always accepted the Apocrypha.  The Apocrypha was not officially accepted by the Catholic Church at a universal council until 1546 at the Council of Trent.  This is over a millennium and a half after the books were written, and was a counter reaction to the Protestant Reformation.4"


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    This is pretty much the stock false attack on the Catholic Church's inclusion of the deuterocanonical books. The errors of Carm in this, are again, multitude.

    1. There's no such thing as a "Universal Council". The Council of Trent was an Ecumenical Council, but it wasn't the first Ecumenical Council to list the books of Sacred Scripture exactly as Trent does, including the deuterocanonical books. That includes the Council of Florence (Session 11, February 4, 1442) which took place over 100 years before Trent. You can read more about that, including the decree on my deuterocanon page.

    2. Even if the Catholic Church hadn't included the books until Trent, that does not account for their inclusion in the Canon of Scripture adhered to by various Orthodox Churches that do not accept Trent (and most generally any council after 1054 AD).

    3. There is NO COUNCIL that gives the Canon of Sacred Scripture as modern Jews or Protestants have it. None.

    4. If the council of Trent added the deuterocanon, how did Martin Luther move them to an index called "Apocrypha" 20 years earlier?

    5. If the Council of Trent added the books to the Bible, how did the Gutenberg Bible, the first Bible Published via Printing Press, printed 100 years before Trent, include the deutercanonical books?

    6. If the Catholic Church added the deuterocanonical books to the Bible at Trent, how did the Latin Vulgate (from the 4th Century AD) include them? How did the Vetus Latina (even earlier Latin Bibles), the Major Codices, the Dead Sea Scrolls, etc include them?

    The fact of the matter is, that while an old, and common heard argument, the notion that the Catholic Church added books to the Bible at the Council of Trent is quite simply false. Historical evidence is quite clearly to the contrary, and anyone inclined to look at old Bibles (either on line, or in museums) can verify it to be so. Again, my deuterocanon page, linked above, and also at the bottom of this document, goes into these issues in some depth not done here.

    Given the facts, it's quite obvious that in the case of the alleged "Council of Jamnia", and in the case of protestantism, the attempts to remove the deuterocanonical books were based on hatred for the Church, and indeed an attempt for Jewish "authorities" to make pronouncements on books they knew Christians considered Sacred Scripture, and that contained prophecies predicting Christ and support for other Christian doctrine.


    Carm's Claim

    "7.  Many church Fathers rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture, and many just used them for devotional purposes.  For example, Jerome, the great Biblical scholar and translator of the Latin Vulgate, rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture though, supposedly under pressure, he did make a hurried translation of it.  In fact, most of the church fathers in the first four centuries of the Church rejected the Apocrypha as Scripture.  Along with Jerome, names include Origen, Cyril of Jerusalem, and Athanasius."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    1. The majority of Church fathers accepted the deuterocanonical books as Divinely Inspired Scripture.
    2.
    Church Father's aren't infallible.
    3. St. Jerome accepted the deuterocanon as Scripture. He "followed the judgment of the churches."
    4. "The only basis we have for determining the canon of the Scripture is the authority of the Church Christ established, through whom the Scriptures came." (Mark Shea, 5 Myths about 7 books).

    Jerome Wrote
    "What sin have I committed if I followed the judgment of the churches? But he who brings charges against me for relating the objections that the Hebrews are wont to raise against the story of Susanna, the Son of the Three Children, and the story of Bel and the Dragon, which are not found in the Hebrew volume (ie. canon), proves that he is just a foolish sycophant. For I wasn't relating my own personal views, but rather the remarks that they [the Jews] are wont to make against us" (Against Rufinus 11:33 [A.D. 402]).

    Supposing we did grant, for the sake of argument, that a Church Father's rejection of something was tantamount to an authoritative statement, we would have to reject much of the New Testament, and a slew of other doctrines ranging from the Dual Natures of Christ, the Trinity, and may other issues. That's because while Churchmen may have had unique or odd opinions regarding doctrine here and there, the notion of submission to the ultimate hierarchy of the Church and by logical conclusion to God, is something that is well attested to as far as practice for settling doctrinal disputes is concerned.

    The fact of the matter is that Jerome used the deuterocanonical books as Sacred Scripture until the end of his life, and reading his works clearly demonstrate this (they're public and freely available on the Internet).

    The other insinuation, that somehow "under pressure" Jerome "submitted", is only a half truth. Again, from Jerome's writings, we know that he respected and understood the hierarchy of the Church, and as modern Catholics do, subjected his judgment to that of the Church, because again, like modern Catholics, Jerome believed that the Magisterium of the Church has the authority to correct errors in judgment, as it relates to faith and morals.

    Finally, in dealing with the (again) false claim that Origen, Cyril of Jerusalem and Athanasius rejected the deuterocanonical books, I'd like to defer to a Patristic Index of deuterocanonical quotations compiled by Gary G Michuta. You can find a copy at the bottom of this document, under "attachments". It lists a great deal of Church Fathers (including the ones Carm claims didn't) using the deuterocanonical books, though while extensive, it's safe to bet that the index is not complete.


    Carm Claims

    "8.  The Apocryphal books were placed in Bibles before the Council of Trent and after, but were placed in a separate section because they were not of equal authority.  The Apocrypha rightfully has some devotional purposes, but it is not inspired."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    This is quite simply patently false.

    The LXX (Greek Septuagint) Bible included the deuterocanonical books, without any distinction that they were anything less than inspired Scripture as early as 300 B.C. There was no separate "index" of the "Apocrypha".

    The Latin Vulgate, Published in the 5th Century AD included the deuterocanonical books, without any distinction that they were anything less than inspired Scripture. There was no separate "index" of the "Apocrypha".

    The deuterocanon can also be found in various ancient papyri editions of the Bible (again, without distinction).

    The deuterocanonical books can also be found in the three oldest Codices of the Bible we have. To quote myself:

    1. The Codex Sinaiticus [c. 330-360 AD] (S) or (א), which is a relatively complete manuscript of the LXX (Greek Septuagint), included the deuterocanonical books, with only Baruch's inclusion unsubstantiated due to it not being where it traditionally appeared. Though with missing parts of the texts (lacunae), it is possible that it was included after Lamentations, in sections now missing. [ W ] [ CE ]

    2. The Codex Vaticanus [c. 325–350 AD] (B) is a virtually complete copy of the LXX (Greek Septuagint) and includes the deuterocanonical books minus only 1-4 Maccabees. [ W ] [ CE ]

    3. The Codex Alexandrinus [c. 400-440] (A) contains a majority of the Greek Spetuagint (LXX) and includes all of the deuterocanonical books that the Catholic Church considers canonical. Again, no distinction is made in this manuscript that these books are of less value or different in any way to the rest of the Sacred Scriptures. [ W ] [ CE ]

    Homework Challenge:
    Find the oldest Bible that includes the "Apocrypha" in an index.

    The deuterocanon isn't just useful for "devotional purposes". It's the Word of God.


    Alleged False Teachings


    Carm Claims

    "9.  The Apocrypha contains a number of false teachings (see: Errors in the Apocrypha).  (To check the following references, see http://www.newadvent.org/bible.)

        * The command to use magic (Tobit 6:5-7).
        * Forgiveness of sins by almsgiving (Tobit 4:11; 12:9).
        * Offering of money for the sins of the dead (2 Maccabees 12:43)."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    After quite a lofty attempt at misinforming it's readers regarding the most basic facts regarding the deuterocanonical books, an attempt is made to claim that the teachings the books contain are false. The first problem with this claim is of course, that if you're going to accept that there's false teachings within the deuterocanon, you must first, as a prerequisite, accept that they are not God's Word. Being that they are God's Word, it's not possible that they contain false teachings. In this sense, the presupposition implied here amounts to "putting the cart before the horse". It may also be relevant to note here, that "Errors in the Apocrypha" being referenced by this portion of Carm's document is referring to an article written by Matt Slick, and so Ryan is putting stock into Matt's interpretation of deuterocanonical books to prove his case here.

    The next step in examining this argument is to establish whether or not Carm's understanding (or interpretation) of the verses given actually holds water, which is notion I'm quite comfortable saying "no" to.

    The first example, is an alleged "command to use magic" in Tobit 6:5-7. I've already addressed this bit of Sacred Scripture on my deuterocanon page, though I will repeat my response here.

    Quick Examination of Tobit 6:5-7

    Tobit 6:5
    Then the angel said to him: Take out the entrails of this fish, and lay up his heart, and his gall, and his liver for thee: for these are necessary for useful medicines. 

    For thee.  Greek, "carefully." (Haydock) --- The rest is omitted also in the Hebrew of Fagius. (Calmet)

    Tobit 6:6  
    And when he had done so, he roasted the flesh thereof, and they took it with them in the way: the rest they salted as much as might serve them, till they came to Rages the city of the Medes. 

    Flesh.  St. Paul uses the like expression, (1 Corinthians xv.) as well as Pliny, [Natural History?] ix. 15. (Worthington) --- Took.  Greek and Fagius, (Calmet) "eat, and both went on till they came near to Ecbatana." (Haydock) --- From Ninive to Rages would be 10 or 12 days' journey. (Calmet)

    Tobit 6:7
    Then Tobias asked the angel, and said to him: I beseech thee, brother Azarias, tell me what remedies are these things good for, which thou hast bid me keep of the fish? 

    Tell.  Greek, "What is the heart, the liver, and the gall of the fish for?" (Haydock)


    "Far from presenting an exercise in magic, Tobit presents the ancient Christological symbol of the fish (who is, in Tobit 6:3, literally a catcher of men) salted and roasted on coals (as Christ was scourged and roasted in the sun on the cross) in order to destroy the power of a murderous demon and drive him away from a virginal bride. The fish is used to heal a blind man (cf. John 9) by making things like scales fall from his eyes (cf. Acts 10:18)."
    (Source: Steven L. Kellmeyer, "Counting the Canon", Catholic Answers)

     
    Alms giving Examined


    The next two verses cited can be interpreted as a Straw Man argument against what many (especially, in my experience, Calvinists) perceive to be a works based system of justification in Catholicism. Let's take a look at the verses.

    Tobit 4:11 For alms deliver from all sin, and from death, and will not suffer the soul to go into darkness.
    Tobit 12:9 For alms delivereth from death, and the same is that which purgeth away sins, and maketh to find mercy and life everlasting.

    There are a number of ways to answer this. The first being, that Tobit is an Old Testament book. With that in mind, let's have a look at what Matt Slick's apparent issue with these verses is.

    "We know from Scripture that alms (money or food, given to the poor or needy as charity) does not purge our sins.  The blood of Christ is what cleanses us, not money or food given to poor people.  "but if we walk in the light as He Himself is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus His Son cleanses us from all sin," (1 John 1:7)." (Matt Slick, "Errors in the Apocrypha")

    From one perspective, Matt's response to these verses makes about as much sense as saying that Genesis can't be scripture because "Circumcision doesn't save, Jesus Does" (cf. Genesis 17:10-14), or that Exodus and Deuteronomy can't be Scripture, because they say that following the Ten Commandments save (cf. Romans 3:28, Exodus 20:2–17 and Deuteronomy 5:6–21).

    The real question here though, is why does Tobit say that alms save? Carm gives the reader no context in it's cherry pick of verses from Tobit.

    Tobit 4:7 Give alms out of thy substance, and turn not away thy face from any poor person: for
    Tobit 4:8 According to thy ability be merciful.
    Tobit 4:9  If thou have much give abundantly: if thou have little, take care even so to bestow willingly a little.
    Tobit 4:10 For thus thou storest up to thyself a good reward for the day of necessity.

    In it's proper context, Tobit is clearly speaking about what Catholics call Corporal Acts of Mercy, and the teaching here most certainly is on par with what Jesus taught on the Sermon of the Mount.

    Matthew 5:7 Blessed are the merciful: for they shall obtain mercy.
    Matthew 5:8 Blessed are the clean of heart: they shall see God.

    In reading Matthew 5:7, one may ask, "for what do we need mercy?". The answer of course, is our sins. Tobit is telling Tobias, his son, that his conscience must be rightly formed, and that the Alms he gives must be out of his substance, or from the heart so to speak. In spite of what Carm is driving at here, this is by no measure a false teaching, and directly in line with sound Christian theology.

    Regarding Alms giving, or giving to the needy, see also: Matt 6: 1-4, Luke 11: 41, Luke 12: 31-34, Acts 3: 3, Acts 10: 2, Acts 24: 17, Romans 15: 25-27, 1 Cor. 16: 1-2, 2 Cor. 8: 9, Gal. 2: 10, Deut. 24: 19, Ps. 41: 1; Ps. 112: 9; Prov. 14: 21; Prov. 19: 17; Prov. 22: 9; Prov. 28: 27; Acts 9: 36; Acts 11: 29-30; Philip. 4: 18; 1 Tim. 6: 18-19).

    The next verse Carm raises is 2 Maccabees 12:43. The attempt here is to say that the practice of Judas Maccabeus here is contrary to scripture. If we take a look at Leviticus however, it becomes clear that Judas Maccabeus knew exactly what he was doing.

    Leviticus 4:13  And if all the multitude of Israel shall be ignorant, and through ignorance shall do that which is against the commandment of the Lord,
    Leviticus 4:14  And afterwards shall understand their sin: they shall offer for their sin a calf, and shall bring it to the door of the tabernacle.
    Leviticus 4:15  And the ancients of the people shall put their hands upon the head thereof before the Lord. And the calf being immolated in the sight of the Lord:
    Leviticus 4:16  The priest that is anointed shall carry of the blood into the tabernacle of the testimony.
    Leviticus 4:17  And shall dip his finger in it and sprinkle it seven times before the veil.

    Leviticus 4:18  And he shall put of the same blood on the horns of the altar that is before the Lord, in the tabernacle of the testimony. And the rest of the blood he shall pour at the foot of the altar of holocaust, which is at the door of the tabernacle of the testimony.

    Leviticus 4:19  And all the fat thereof he shall take off, and shall burn it upon the altar:
    Leviticus 4:20  Doing so with this calf, as he did also with that before. And the priest praying for them, the Lord will be merciful unto them.

    In the interest of demonstrating that my parallel between Leviticus 4:13-20 isn't some arbitrary Catholic convolution, you may consult the Protestant Anchor Bible Commentary on 2 Maccabees Page 449 to corroborate that even protestants take this as the basis for Maccabeus' actions here. The other point I would raise here again is that Judas Maccabeus wasn't some Christian, or pagan. He was a Jew, and he's giving insight into what the practices of Jews were at the time. There is at times, an unspoken presupposition that the (at the time) minority Palestinian Jews are the only ones that can give an accurate portrayal of what Jewish practices were, in contrast to the greater population of Jews of the Diaspora, or those Jews considered "Hellenistic", which of course, is utter nonsense.

    The fact remains that the cart is being put before the horse in this argument once again. If 2 Maccabees is Sacred Scripture, (which it is), no human failure or disagreement can change that fact. Even if 2 Maccabees isn't scripture, that doesn't mean that what Judas was doing here was contrary to his Jewish faith. That's just common sense.






    Allegedly Not Prophetic


    Carm Claims

    "10.  The Apocryphal books do not share many of the chararacteristics of the Canonical books: they are not prophetic, there is no supernatural confirmation of any of the apocryphal writers works, there is no predictive prophecy, there is no new Messianic truth revealed, they are not cited as authoritative by any prophetic book written after them, and they even acknowledge that there were no prophets in Israel at their time (cf. 1 Macc. 9:27; 14:41)."


    Apostolic Apologetics Responds

    It's safe to say that this, the final argument Carm levies against the deuterocanon, plays extensively on the assumption that those reading it are not familiar with the deuterocanonical books, nor how they were used by the Jews, Church Fathers, and indeed Christendom in general leading up to the protestant reformation.

    The claim that the deuterocanon contains no prophecy is false, and that can be first demonstrated, ironically, in one of the selections of verses that Carm used to argue that they are not inspired, Tobit 6:5-7, which gives a clear prophecy of Christ. More than that however, the deuterocanonical books contain perhaps the clearest prediction of the coming of Jesus Christ, in Wisdom 2:10-24.

    Wisdom 2:10-24  Let us oppress the poor just man, and not spare the widow, nor honour thc ancient grey hairs of the aged.  (11)  But let our strength be the law of justice: for that which is feeble is found to be nothing worth.  (12)  Let us, therefore, lie in wait for the just, because he is not for our turn, and he is contrary to our doings, and upbraideth us with transgressions of the law, and divulgeth against us the sins of our way of life.  (13)  He boasteth that he hath the knowledge of God, and calleth himself the son of God.  (14)  He is become a censurer of our thoughts.  (15)  He is grievous unto us, even to behold: for his life is not like other men's, and his ways are very different.  (16)  We are esteemed by him as triflers, and he abstaineth from our ways as from filthiness, and he preferreth the latter end of the just, and glorieth that he hath God for his father.  (17)  Let us see then if his words be true, and let us prove what shall happen to him, and we shall know what his end shall be.  (18)  For if he be the true son of God, he will defend him, and will deliver him from the hands of his enemies.  (19)  Let us examine him by outrages and tortures, that we may know his meekness, and try his patience.  (20)  Let us condemn him to a most shameful death: for there shall be respect had unto him by his words.  (21)  These things they thought, and were deceived: for their own malice blinded them.  (22)  And they knew not the secrets of God, nor hoped for the wages of justice, nor esteemed the honour of holy souls.  (23)  For God created man incorruptible, and to the image of his own likeness he made him.  (24)  But by the envy of the devil, death came into the world:

    The fact of the matter is that while the Deuterocanonical books do contain prophecy, containing prophecy is not a criteria for being canonical. This is demonstrated clearly by the book of Esther, which brings us to an interesting point.

    The protestant version of Esther doesn't contain even a single reference to God (let alone prophecy). It is only in the deuterocanonical version of Esther, the version that Catholics accept as canonical, that God even gets a mention. This fact in and of itself should raise serious questions for the honest seeker.

    In answering the final argument here, which by the way is very deceptive, I will defer to Mark Shea's Five Myths About 7 Books, in which he writes:

    "Myth 4

    The deuterocanonical books themselves deny that they are inspired Scripture.

    Correction: Two of the deuterocanonical books seem to disclaim inspiration, and even that is a dicey proposition. The two in question are Sirach and 2 Maccabees. Sirach opens with a brief preface by the author's grandson saying, in part, that he is translating grandpa's book, that he thinks the book important and that, "You therefore are now invited to read it in a spirit of attentive good will, with indulgence for any apparent failure on our part, despite earnest efforts, in the interpretation of particular passages." Likewise, the editor of 2 Maccabees opens with comments about how tough it was to compose the book and closes with a sort of shrug saying, "I will bring my own story to an end here too. If it is well written and to the point, that is what I wanted; if it is poorly done and mediocre, that is the best I could do."

    That, and that alone, is the basis for the myth that the deuterocanon (all seven books and not just these two) "denies that it is inspired Scripture." Several things can be said in response to this argument.

    First, is it reasonable to think that these typically oriental expressions of humility really constitute anything besides a sort of gesture of politeness and the customary downplaying of one's own talents, something common among ancient writers in Middle Eastern cultures? No. For example, one may as well say that St. Paul's declaration of himself as "one born abnormally" or as being the "chief of sinners" (he mentions this in the present, not past tense) necessarily makes his writings worthless.

    Second, speaking of St. Paul, we are confronted by even stronger and explicit examples of disclaimers regarding inspired status of his writings, yet no Protestant would feel compelled to exclude these Pauline writings from the New Testament canon. Consider his statement in 1 Corinthians 1:16 that he can't remember whom he baptized. Using the "It oughtta sound more like the Holy Spirit talking" criterion of biblical inspiration Protestants apply to the deuterocanonical books, St. Paul would fail the test here. Given this amazing criterion, are we to believe the Holy Spirit "forgot" whom St. Paul baptized, or did He inspire St. Paul to forget (1 Cor. 1:15)?

    1 Corinthians 7:40 provides an ambiguous statement that could, according to the principles of this myth, be understood to mean that St. Paul wasn't sure that his teaching was inspired or not. Elsewhere St. Paul makes it clear that certain teachings he's passing along are "not I, but the Lord" speaking (1 Cor. 7:10), whereas in other cases, "I, not the Lord" am speaking (cf. 1 Cor. 7:12). This is a vastly more direct "disclaimer of inspiration" than the oblique deuterocanonical passages cited above, yet nobody argues that St. Paul's writings should be excluded from Scripture, as some say the whole of the deuterocanon should be excluded from the Old Testament, simply on the strength of these modest passages from Sirach and 2 Maccabees.

    Why not? Because in St. Paul's case people recognize that a writer can be writing under inspiration even when he doesn't realize it and doesn't claim it, and that inspiration is not such a flat-footed affair as "direct dictation" by the Holy Spirit to the author. Indeed, we even recognize that the Spirit can inspire the writers to make true statements about themselves, such as when St. Paul tells the Corinthians he couldn't remember whom he had baptized.

    To tweak the old proverb, "What's sauce for the apostolic goose is sauce for the deuterocanonical gander." The writers of the deuterocanonical books can tell the truth about themselves - that they think writing is tough, translating is hard, and that they are not sure they've done a terrific job - without such admissions calling into question the inspired status of what they wrote. This myth proves nothing other than the Catholic doctrine that the books of Sacred Scripture really were composed by human beings who remained fully human and free, even as they wrote under the direct inspiration of God."

    In closing, I would also like to mention that the fact that Christians saw the deuterocanonical books as prophetic is in reality, one of the reasons they were so valued by them, and so hated by the Jewish authorities after the spread of Christianity had begun.


    Citations


    1. Mark Shea, Five Myths about Seven Books

    2. Gary G. Michuta, Did Josephus Accpet the Deuterocanon? (See page attachments for a local copy in .doc format)
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    Paul Swonger,
    Dec 11, 2010 7:51 PM
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    Paul Swonger,
    Dec 12, 2010 4:15 AM
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    Paul Swonger,
    Dec 12, 2010 5:03 AM